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Organizational Behavior explores the dynamics of individual and group actions within workplace settings, focusing on how psychological, social, and cultural factors influence employee motivation, leadership, team dynamics, communication, and decision-making processes. The course examines theories and real-world practices that shape effective organizational culture, conflict resolution, and change management, equipping students with tools to analyze and improve organizational effectiveness in various business environments.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior 7th Edition by Steven
McShane
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Q1) The observable demographic or physiological differences in people, such as their race, ethnicity, gender, age, and physical disabilities constitute _____ diversity.
A)deep-level
B)internal
C)surface-level
D)organizational
E)reflective
Answer: C
Q2) Organizational behavior encompasses the study of how organizations interact with their external environments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Research indicates that Baby Boomers and Generation-X employees bring the same values and expectations to the workplace.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Scenario: Kleen Waterproofing Dave Docket, the installation manager at Kleen Waterproofing, has been receiving customer complaints that several crewmembers either come late to the job or they do not show up at all, without any communication with the customers.The job completion dates keep getting delayed and customer dissatisfaction keeps increasing.Dave has also just hired several new employees who are motivated, able to perform their jobs, and have adequate resources.However, they are not sure what tasks are included in their job.Dave is wondering how he can understand what is going on with his crew behavior and what can he do to improve the situation.According to the MARS model, the new employees Dave has hired will likely:
A)emphasize the utilitarianism principle in their decision making.
B)have lower job performance due to poor role perceptions.
C)have better job performance because they are motivated and able to perform the work.
D)have above-average organizational citizenship.
E)have a high degree of differentiation according to Holland's classification of occupations.
Answer: B
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Q1) Diversity awareness programs mainly educate employees about the value of diversity and problems with stereotyping.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) If you form a general negative impression of a person based on one prominent characteristic, and it affects your perception of other characteristics of that person, it is called:
A)a projection bias.
B)the halo effect.
C)selective attention.
D)a self-serving bias.
E)stereotyping.
Answer: B
Q3) A self-concept has high complexity when the individual's most important identities are highly interconnected.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

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Q1) Behavioral intentions represent your conscious positive or negative evaluations of the attitude object and your motivation to engage in a particular behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Moods are less intense emotional states that are directed toward something or somebody in particular.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Strong emotions trigger our conscious awareness of a threat or opportunity in the external environment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Employees with higher job satisfaction tend to convey more friendliness and positive feelings to customers.
A)True B)False
Q5) People with high emotional intelligence are superior leaders.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is the main source of multisource feedback?
A)Subordinates
B)Peers
C)Supervisors
D)Customers
E)All of these
Q2) Which of the following statements is consistent with the observations of Maslow?
A)Motivation research must look at each need and drive apart from others.
B)A specific human behavior is typically initiated by a solitary need or drive.
C)Higher-order needs are not influenced by personal and social influences.
D)Maslow refocused attention on need gratification instead of need deprivation.
E)Maslow suggested that people are naturally motivated to reach their potential.
Q3) According to expectancy theory, an outcome that opposes our values has:
A)a high E-to-P expectancy.
B)an inappropriate comparison other.
C)a negative outcome valence.
D)a low P-to-O expectancy.
E)a low need for socialized power.
Q4) Describe the three ideas of social cognitive theory that are most relevant to employee motivation.
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Q1) Where subjective measures of performance are necessary, companies should rely on multiple sources of information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true about stock option plans?
A)They refer to bonuses from the work unit's cost savings and productivity improvement.
B)They give employees the right to purchase company stock at a predetermined price up to a fixed expiration date.
C)They directly award bonuses to employees based on cost savings and increased labor productivity.
D)They tend to weaken employee commitment to the organization.
E)They encourage employees to buy company stock, usually at a discounted price or through a no-interest loan.
Q3) Job specialization increases work efficiency, but it tends to reduce employee motivation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast gainsharing with employee share ownership plans.
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Q1) Satisficing refers to:
A)the tendency to choose an alternative that is good enough rather than the best.
B)the feeling employees experience when they are not involved in a decision in which they would have made a valuable contribution.
C)a desirable outcome of decision making when several employees participate in the decision process.
D)the feeling employees experience when they make the right decision.
E)the tendency for decision makers to evaluate alternatives sequentially rather than comparing them all at once.
Q2) One reason why the problem identification stage is imperfect is that various stakeholders try to frame the decision maker's view of the situation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Although the implicit favorite comparison process seems to be hardwired in human decision making, it often undermines effective decision making.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Employees with _____, in which work output is exchanged back and forth among individuals, should be organized into teams to facilitate coordination in their interwoven relationship.
A)pooled interdependence
B)reciprocal interdependence
C)counterproductive norms
D)high levels of social loafing
E)a very high level of heterogeneity
Q2) Under stressful or dangerous conditions, people are more likely to stay together than disperse, even when the other people are strangers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is team cohesion? List the factors affecting team cohesion.
Q4) Teams tend to have more cohesion when entry to the team is restricted.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Social loafing is more prevalent when the task is interesting.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are team norms? How are they developed in an organization?
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Q1) Most information technologies require less social etiquette and attention, so employees can easily multi-communicate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Shanti's Workshop Shanti recently went to a communication workshop to help improve her workplace performance.She learned that in effective communication, she should resist forming an opinion until the speaker has finished, then attempt to empathize with the listener, and finally effectively respond to the speaker.She learned techniques regarding maintain eye contact and sending back channel signals to show interest.When Shanti attempts to empathize with the speaker, this is known as:
A)Sensing
B)Evaluating
C)Understanding
D)Responding
E)Identification
Q3) Communication refers to the process by which information is transmitted and understood between two or more people.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Expert and referent power originate mainly from the power holder's own characteristics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Employees have _____, ranging from sarcasm to ostracism, to ensure that coworkers conform to team norms.
A)reward power
B)legitimate power
C)referent power
D)expert power
E)coercive power
Q3) Power is the act of changing another person's attitudes and behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly describe the strategies of expert power that cope with uncertainty in organizations.
Q5) People who have more power over others engage in more automatic rather than mindful thinking.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Communication problems could cause conflicts.Explain.
Q2) According to the emerging view on organizational conflict, there are two types of conflict.They are:
A)Task conflict and constructive conflict
B)Task conflict and optimal conflict
C)Task conflict and relationship conflict
D)Relationship conflict and optimal conflict
E)Relationship conflict and process conflict
Q3) In a purely win-lose situation, the bargaining zone states that:
A)the parties usually apply a collaborative approach to resolving their differences.
B)one should begin negotiations by describing the resistance point for each item on the agenda.
C)the two parties rarely know each other's initial point.
D)parties tend to move from their target point to their initial point very quickly.
E)neither the target nor the resistance point is revealed to the other party.
Q4) Poor communication is a part of manifest conflict.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Can transformational leadership be equated with charismatic leadership? Explain your answer.
Q2) Servant leaders try to understand employees' needs and facilitate their work performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The competency perspective of leadership indicates leadership:
A)performance.
B)potential.
C)behavior.
D)contingency.
E)transformation.
Q4) Managerial leadership entails the daily activities that support and guide the performance and well-being of individual employees and the work unit to support current objectives and performance.
A)True B)False
Q5) Transformational and managerial leadership are opposite leadership perspectives. A)True
B)False
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Q1) When tasks have high variability and low analyzability, a mechanistic structure works better than an organic structure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Formalization represents the establishment of standardization as a coordinating mechanism.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Decentralization is the preferred strategy for organizations in simple, integrated (one market), and hostile environments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For which type of environment should organizations adopt an organic structure?
A)Munificent environment
B)Dynamic environment
C)Stable environment
D)Simple environment
E)Routine environment
Q5) Define span of control and distinguish between narrow and wide span of control.
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Q1) In corporate cults, the culture is so strong that it focuses employees on one mental model so much that they may fail to see issues from different perspectives.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true about organizational culture?
A)It is suggested that companies with strong cultures tend to be more successful, irrespective of any conditions.
B)Companies have strong cultures when the dominant values are held mainly by a few people at the top of the organization.
C)Most employees across all subunits understand the dominant values but choose to ignore them.
D)The life span of strong organizational cultures is almost always short.
E)The strength of an organization's culture refers to how widely and deeply employees hold the company's dominant values and assumptions.
Q3) What does organizational culture consist of? Briefly describe its components.
Q4) Organizational culture fulfills people's need for social identity.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Information systems and reward systems can both help to refreeze the desired conditions in organizational change.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are parallel learning structures? What are they intended to accomplish?
Q3) How we perceive and understand the change process depends on the questions we ask and language we use throughout that process.This is called the constructionist principle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ leaders are agents of change because they develop an appealing vision of the desired future state, communicate that vision in ways that are meaningful to others, make decisions and act in ways that are consistent with that vision, and build commitment to that vision.
A)Operational
B)Transformational
C)Charismatic
D)Collaborative
E)Transactional
Q5) Briefly describe the four stages in the Four-D model of appreciative inquiry.
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