Organic Chemistry for Chemical Engineering
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides chemical engineering students with a comprehensive foundation in organic chemistry principles relevant to their field. Emphasizing the structure, properties, synthesis, and reactions of organic molecules, the curriculum explores topics such as hydrocarbons, functional groups, stereochemistry, and reaction mechanisms. Special attention is given to industrially significant processes including polymerization, catalysis, and organic synthesis relevant to chemical manufacturing. Through lectures and problem-solving exercises, students learn to analyze reaction pathways, predict product outcomes, and apply organic chemistry concepts to real-world engineering challenges in areas such as materials, pharmaceuticals, and environmental technologies.
Recommended Textbook Organic Chemistry 4th Edition by Janice Gorzynski
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Chapter 1: Structure and Bonding
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Q1) What is the formal charge of carbon in carbon monoxide (CO) when drawn with a triple bond?
A) 0
B) -2
C) -1
D) +1
Answer: C
Q2) In which of the following ions does carbon have a formal charge? \(\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { OH }\quad\)\(\mathrm { NaCH } _ { 3 }\quad\)\(\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CO } _ { 2 } -\)
I\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)II\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\)III
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) None of the above
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Acids and Bases
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Q1) Which of the following species cannot act as both a Brønsted-Lowry acid and base?
A) HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
B) HSO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>
C) HO<sup>-</sup>
D) H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>
Answer: C
Q2) What is the correct classification of the following compound?
CH<sub>3</sub>-O-CH<sub>3</sub>
A) Brønsted-Lowry acid and Lewis acid.
B) Brønsted-Lowry base and Lewis base.
C) Brønsted-Lowry base.
D) Lewis base.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following compounds is not a Lewis acid?
A) AlCl<sub>3</sub>
B) HCl
C) H<sub>2</sub>O
D) CBr<sub>4</sub>
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Organic Molecules and Functional Groups
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Q1) Why do \(\pi\) bonds confer reactivity on a particular molecule?
A) Because \(\pi\) bonds are difficult to break in chemical reactions.
B) Because \(\pi\) bonds make a molecule an acid.
C) Because \(\pi\) bonds are easily broken in chemical reactions.
D) Because \(\pi\) bonds make a molecule an electrophile.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following molecules are aliphatic hydrocarbons? \[\begin{array} { c c c c }
\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { OH } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } = \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } & \mathrm {
CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { OCH } _ { 3 } \\
\text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV } \end{array}\]
A) I, II, III
B) I and III
C) II, III, IV
D) II and IV
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Alkanes
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the conformations of acyclic alkanes is true?
A) Conformations are the same arrangements of atoms that cannot be interconverted by rotation about single bonds.
B) In the eclipsed conformation, the C-H bonds on one carbon bisect the H-C-H bond angle on the adjacent carbon.
C) In the staggered conformation, the C-H bonds on one carbon are directly aligned with the C-H bonds on the adjacent carbon.
D) Rotating the atoms on one carbon by 60° converts an eclipsed conformation into a staggered conformation, and vice versa.
Q2) Which of the following compounds has primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary carbon atoms?
A) Pentane
B) 2-Methylpentane
C) 2,2-Dimethylpentane
D) 2,2,3-Trimethylpentane
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Chapter 5: Stereochemistry
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Q1) If a mixture has an ee of 90%, what is the percentage of each enantiomer?
A) 65% : 35%
B) 55% : 45%
C) 80% : 20%
D) 95% : 5%
Q2) Which of the following statements about constitutional isomers if not true?
A) They have different IUPAC names.
B) They always have the same functional groups.
C) They have different physical properties.
D) They have different chemical properties.
Q3) Which of the following statements about stereoisomers is not true?
A) Stereoisomers have identical IUPAC names except for a prefix like cis or trans.
B) Stereoisomers differ in configuration.
C) Stereoisomers always have the same functional groups.
D) Stereoisomers differ only in their structural formula.
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Chapter 6: Understanding Organic Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about a two-step reaction mechanism is true?
A) The transition states are located at energy minima.
B) Each step is characterized by its own value of \(\Delta\)H° and E<sub>a</sub>.
C) The rate-determining step has the lower energy transition state.
D) The reactive intermediate is located at an energy maximum.
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) "Two reactions can have identical values for \(\Delta\)H° but very different E<sub>a</sub> values."
B) "The larger the activation energy, the slower the reaction."
C) "\(\Delta\)H° determines the height of the energy barrier."
D) "The lower the activation energy, the faster the reaction."
Q3) Which of the following reaction quantities will have an effect on reaction rate?
A) "\(\Delta\)G°"
B) "\(\Delta\)H°"
C) "K<sub>eq</sub>"
D) "E<sub>a</sub>"
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Chapter 7: Alkyl Halides and Nucleophilic Substitution
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Q1) Which of the following is the most nucleophilic?
A) CH<sub>4</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>O
C) NH<sub>3</sub>
D) HF
Q2) Rank the following in order of increasing nucleophilicity, putting the least nucleophilic first. \[\begin{array} { c c c c }
\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { O } ^ { - } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm {~S} ^ { - } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { OH } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { SH }
\\
\text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV }
\end{array}\]
A) II < IV < I < III
B) IV < III < II < I
C) III < IV < I < II
D) II < I < IV < III
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Chapter 8: Alkyl Halides and Elimination Reactions
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Q1) How many different E2 products can form from the dehydrohalogenation of 2-bromobutane?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) What is the major elimination product in the reaction of 1-bromobutane with potassium tert-butoxide in tert-butanol?
A) cis-2-Butene
B) 1-Butene
C) trans-2-Butene
D) Butanol
Q3) Which of the following statements about an E1 mechanism is not true?
A) The reaction is fastest with tertiary alkyl halides.
B) A better leaving group makes the reaction rate increase.
C) The reaction follows first-order kinetics.
D) Stronger bases favor the E1 reaction.
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Chapter 9: Alcohols, Ethers and Epoxides
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Q1) Which of the following explains why epoxides are much more reactive than ethers?
A) The C-O-C bond angle of an epoxide is 109°, making epoxides have angle strain.
B) The oxygen atom of an epoxide is sp<sup>2</sup> hybridized.
C) The C-O-C bond angle of an epoxide is 120°, making epoxides have angle strain.
D) The C-O-C bond angle of an epoxide is 60°, making epoxides have angle strain.
Q2) What is the IUPAC of the following compound?
(CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>3</sub>COH
A) 2-Ethyl-2-pentanol
B) 2-Ethyl-3-pentanol
C) 3-Ethyl-3-pentanol
D) 2,2-Diethyl-1-butanol
Q3) Which of the following statements about the reaction of ethers with strong acids is true?
A) HCl, HBr and HI can all be used.
B) The mechanism of ether cleavage is S<sub>N</sub>1 only.
C) The mechanism of ether cleavage is S<sub>N</sub>2 only.
D) The mechanism of ether cleavage is S<sub>N</sub>1 and S<sub>N</sub>2.
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Chapter 10: Alkenes
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Q1) Calculate the degree of unsaturation for a molecule with molecular formula C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>11</sub>Cl.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 0
Q2) Which of the following reactions of alkenes takes place with anti stereochemistry only?
A) Addition of HBr
B) Addition of H<sub>2</sub>O in the presence of H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
C) Addition of BH<sub>3</sub> followed by H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>/HO<sup>-</sup>
D) Addition of Br<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Which of the following statements about hydroboration/oxidation of alkenes is true?
A) In hydroboration, the boron atom bonds to the more substituted carbon.
B) Hydroboration occurs with anti addition.
C) Oxidation occurs with retention of configuration.
D) 9-BBN does not undergo hydroboration in the same manner as BH<sub>3</sub>.
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Chapter 11: Alkynes
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Q1) Which of the following bases cannot deprotonate acetylene? You are given the pK<sub>a</sub> values of the conjugate acids in parentheses. \(\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { NH } ^ { - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 40 \right) \quad \mathrm { CO } _ { 3 } ^ { 2 - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 10.2 \right) \quad \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 }
= \mathrm { CH } ^ { - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 44 \right) \quad \left( \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \right) _ { 3 } \mathrm { CO } ^ { - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 18 \right)\)
I\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)II\(\quad \quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)III\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\q uad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)IV
A) Only I and II
B) Only I and III
C) Only II and III
D) Only II and IV
Q2) How many \(\sigma\) bonds and \(\pi\) bonds are present in a triple bond?
A) One \(\sigma\) bond and one \(\pi\) bond.
B) One \(\sigma\) bond and two \(\pi\) bonds.
C) Two \(\sigma\) bonds and one \(\pi\) bond.
D) Two \(\sigma\) bonds and two \(\pi\) bonds.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Oxidation and Reduction
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Q1) A compound X of molecular formula C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>12</sub> with no triple bonds reacts with one equivalent of H<sub>2</sub> to give a new compound having molecular formula C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>14</sub>. What can be inferred about the structure of compound X?
A) Compound X has 3 rings.
B) Compound X has 3 \(\pi\) bonds.
C) Compound X has 1 ring and 2 \(\pi\) bonds.
D) Compound X has 2 rings and 1 \(\pi\) bond.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the reduction of epoxides with LiAlH<sub>4</sub> is true?
A) The nucleophile is a hydride (H<sup>-</sup>).
B) In unsymmetrical epoxides, nucleophilic attack of H<sup>-</sup> occurs at the more substituted carbon atom.
C) The reaction follows S<sub>N</sub>1 mechanism.
D) The nucleophile, H<sup>-</sup>, is a weak nucleophile.
Q3) Which of the following statements about oxidation and reduction is not true?
A) The conversion of an alkyne to an alkene is reduction.
B) The conversion of an alkene to an alkane is reduction.
C) Oxidation results in a decrease in the number of C-H bonds.
D) Reduction results in an increase in the number of C-Z bonds.
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Chapter 13: Mass Spectrometry and Infrared Spectroscopy
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Q1) An alkyne C-H bond absorbs at higher wave number than an alkene C-H bond. What does this tell you about the strength of these two bonds?
A) The alkene C-H bond is stronger.
B) The alkyne C-H bond is stronger.
C) The alkene C-C bond is stronger.
D) The alkyne C-C bond is stronger.
Q2) Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about a compound that has a molecular ion peak in its mass spectrum at mass 69, and shows a prominent peak in its IR spectrum at 2250 cm<sup>-1</sup>?
A) The compound has a molecular mass of 70.
B) The compound contains a C=O group.
C) The compound contains a cyano or alkyne group.
D) Both (The compound has a molecular mass of 70) and (The compound contains a C=O group) are true statements.
E) Both (The compound has a molecular mass of 70) and (The compound contains a cyano or alkyne group) are true statements.
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Chapter 14: Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy
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Q1) Which of the following statements about <sup>13</sup>C NMR is not true?
A) "In <sup>13</sup>C proton-decoupled NMR spectra, all peaks are singlets."
B) "<sup>13</sup>C NMR spectra display peaks for only carbons that bear hydrogen atoms."
C) "<sup>13</sup>C NMR chemical shifts occur over a greater range than <sup>1</sup>H NMR chemical shifts."
D) "<sup>13</sup>C NMR easily differentiates between the different hybridized carbons (sp<sup>3</sup>, sp<sup>2</sup> and sp hybridized carbons)."
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic radiation?
A) All molecules absorb electromagnetic radiation at some frequency.
B) Frequency is directly proportional to wavelength.
C) NMR uses the microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
D) The radio frequency region of the electromagnetic spectrum has the largest energy per photon.
E) Energy is inversely proportional to frequency.
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Chapter 15: Radical Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about chlorination is true?
A) The rate-determining step in chlorination is endothermic.
B) The transition state resembles the product.
C) The more stable radical is formed faster.
D) A mixture of products results.
Q2) How many monochlorination products can be formed (constitutional isomers only) from the reaction of CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH< sub>3</sub> with Cl<sub>2</sub> and hv?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Q3) Which of the following statements about bromination is true?
A) The rate-determining step in bromination is exothermic.
B) Both radicals are formed.
C) A mixture of products results.
D) A single radical halogenation product predominates.
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Chapter 16: Conjugation, Resonance, and Dienes
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Q1) What is the definition of a resonance structure?
A) Compounds with the same molecular formula
B) Compounds with different carbon frameworks
C) Structures that differ only in the placement of pi and nonbonding electrons
D) Structures that differ only in the location of bonds
Q2) Which of the following statements about the mechanism of the Diels-Alder reaction is true?
A) Three pi bonds break; two sigma bonds and one pi bond form.
B) Three pi bonds break; one sigma bond and two pi bonds form.
C) Two pi bonds break; one sigma bond and one pi bond form.
D) Two pi bonds break; two sigma bonds and one pi bond form.
Q3) Which of the following is not a feature of the Diels-Alder reaction?
A) They are initiated by peroxides.
B) They form new six-membered rings.
C) Three pi bonds break.
D) They are concerted.
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Chapter 17: Benzene and Aromatic Compounds
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Q1) Which of the following statements about benzene is true?
A) Benzene is a saturated hydrocarbon.
B) Benzene undergoes addition reactions.
C) Benzene has five degrees of unsaturation.
D) Benzene undergoes substitution reactions.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the molecular orbital (MO) theory is true?
A) When two p orbitals of similar phase overlap side-by-side, a \(\pi\)* antibonding molecular orbital is formed.
B) When two p orbitals of opposite phase overlap side-by-side, a \(\pi\) bonding molecular orbital is formed.
C) A \(\pi\) bonding molecular orbital is higher in energy than the two atomic p orbitals from which it is formed.
D) A \(\pi\)* antibonding molecular orbital is higher in energy than the two atomic p orbitals from which it is formed.
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Chapter 18: Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution
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Q1) Why is the nitro group a meta director?
A) Because it is sterically very large.
B) Because it adds electron density to the meta position, thus activating it.
C) Because it stabilizes the intermediate cation.
D) Because it removes more electron density from the ortho and para positions than the meta position, thus deactivating the meta position less.
Q2) What are the two distinct pathways for nucleophilic aromatic substitution?
A) Addition-substitution and substitution-addition
B) Addition-elimination and elimination-addition
C) Addition-addition and elimination-elimination
D) Elimination-substitution and substitution-elimination
Q3) Why is sulfuric acid used in aromatic nitration?
A) To keep the reaction from getting too basic
B) To form the active electrophile NO<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>
C) To protonate the aromatic ring
D) To keep the reaction from getting too acidic
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Carboxylic Acids and the Acidity of the O-H
Bond
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Q1) As applied to the chemistry of amino acids, what is the definition for the isoelectric point?
A) The pH at which the amino acid exists primarily in its acidic form.
B) The pH at which the amino acid exists primarily in its basic form.
C) The pH at which the amino acid exists as a mixture of isomers.
D) The pH at which the amino acid exists primarily in its neutral form.
Q2) What is the hybridization of the carbon atom in a carboxy group?
A) sp
B) sp<sup>2</sup>
C) sp<sup>3</sup>
D) p
Q3) What two groups make up the carboxylic acid group (RCOOH)?
A) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
B) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
C) Carbon monoxide and hydroxyl
D) Carbonyl oxide and hydrogen
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Carbonyl Chemistry;
Organometallic Reagents; Oxidation and Reduction
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Q1) The behavior of acid chlorides is different from that of aldehydes in a reaction with a nucleophile because
A) The acid chloride contains a better leaving group.
B) The aldehyde is more easily oxidized.
C) The carbonyl of the aldehyde is more positive.
D) The carbonyl of the aldehyde is less hindered.
Q2) What are the two steps in a nucleophilic addition mechanism?
A) Nucleophilic attack followed by protonation.
B) Nucleophilic attack followed by deprotonation.
C) Nucleophilic attack followed by substitution.
D) Nucleophilic attack followed by elimination.
Q3) Which of the following statements about organometallic reagents is not true?
A) Organometallic reagents contain a carbon atom bonded to a metal.
B) The more polar the carbon-metal bond, the more reactive the organometallic reagent.
C) Organometallic reagents react as bases and nucleophiles.
D) Organometallic reagents are strong acids that readily donate a proton to water.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Aldehydes and Ketones Nucleophilic Addition
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Q1) Cyclic acetals are used as protecting groups for ketones or aldehydes because they are inert to all of the following reagents except
A) aqueous acid.
B) aqueous base.
C) oxidizing reagents.
D) reducing reagents.
Q2) Butanal (MW= 72) has a boiling point of 76 °C while butanol (MW= 74) has a boiling point of 118 °C. What accounts for this difference in boiling points?
A) Butanol is polar while butanal is not polar.
B) Butanol can exhibit dipole-dipole interactions while butanal cannot.
C) Butanol can hydrogen bond and butanal cannot hydrogen bond.
D) Butanal is less sterically hindered than butanol.
Q3) What is the driving force for the Wittig reaction?
A) The formation of an alkene
B) The deprotonation of a phosphonium salt
C) The elimination of triphenylphosphine oxide
D) The formation of a phosphonium salt
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Chapter 22: Carboxylic Acids and Derivatives
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Q1) Why doesn't nucleophilic acyl substitution stop at the tetrahedral intermediate?
A) The nucleophile is too basic.
B) Reforming the carbonyl is energetically favorable.
C) The leaving group is unstable and wants to be negatively charged.
D) There is no tetrahedral intermediate.
Q2) Where do the carbonyl signals appear in the <sup>13</sup>C NMR spectrum of carboxylic acid derivatives?
A) 1700 cm<sup>-1</sup>
B) 180-160 ppm
C) 2.5-3.0 ppm
D) 100-80 ppm
Q3) All of the following contain sp<sup>2</sup> hybridized atoms in their functional group except
A) a carboxylic acid
B) a nitrile
C) an aldehyde
D) an anhydride
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Chapter 23: Substitution Reactions of Carbonyl
Compounds at the Alpha-Carbon
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Q1) If you want to form a thermodynamic enolate, you want to:
A) Keep the reaction as cold as possible.
B) Use an aprotic solvent such as THF.
C) Use a protic solvent such as ethanol.
D) Use a carboxylic acid.
Q2) Which of the following bases will completely convert 1,4-cyclohexandione into an enolate?
A) Sodium hydroxide
B) Sodium methoxide
C) Sodium tert-butoxide
D) Sodium hydride
Q3) Which of the following is the intermediate for halogenation of ketones under acidic conditions?
A) An enolate
B) An enol
C) A tautomer
D) An epimer
Q4) Will acetone be completely deprotonated by potassium tert-butoxide?
A) Yes
B) No
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Chapter 24: Carbonyl Condensation Reactions
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Q1) In the correct order, what are the three general steps in the mechanism of a Claisen reaction?
A) Enolate formation, elimination, nucleophilic addition.
B) Enolate formation, nucleophilic addition, elimination.
C) Elimination, enolate formation, nucleophilic addition.
D) Nucleophilic addition, enolate formation, elimination.
Q2) When is a crossed Claisen reaction between two different esters synthetically useful?
A) When only one of the esters has \(\alpha\) hydrogen atoms.
B) When both esters have \(\alpha\) hydrogen atoms.
C) When only one of the esters has \(\beta\) hydrogen atoms.
D) When both esters lack \(\alpha\) hydrogen atoms.
Q3) What is the name given to an Aldol reaction between two different carbonyl compounds?
A) multiple Aldol reaction
B) crossed Aldol reaction
C) differential Aldol reaction
D) versatile Aldol reaction
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Chapter 25: Amines
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Q1) Rank the following compounds in order of increasing basicity, putting the least basic first. \[\begin{array} { c c c c } \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CONH } _ { 2 } & \mathrm { NH } _ { 3 } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { NH } _ { 2 } & \left( \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \right) _ { 2 } \mathrm { NH } \\ \text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV } \end{array}\]
A) II < III < IV < I
B) I < II < III < IV
C) IV < III < II < I
D) II < I < III < IV
Q2) Why is the N-H bond of an imide especially acidic?
A) The conjugate base is stabilized by electron-donating inductive effect.
B) The conjugate base is stabilized by resonance.
C) The conjugate acid is stabilized by resonance.
D) The conjugate base is stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
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Chapter 26: Carbon-Carbon Bond Forming Reactions in Organic Synthesis
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true about the Simmons-Smith reaction?
A) The Simmons-Smith reaction involves the formation of a free carbene.
B) The Simmons-Smith reaction uses the reagents zinc-copper couple.
C) The Simmons-Smith reaction is stereospecific.
D) The Simmons-Smith reaction involves CH<sub>2</sub>I<sub>2</sub> reacting with a copper-activated zinc reagent.
Q2) Which of the following is true about the use of the Grubbs catalyst?
A) The Grubbs catalyst is used in carbon-carbon coupling reactions.
B) The Grubbs catalyst is used in alkene metathesis.
C) The Grubbs catalyst is used in carbene formation.
D) The Grubbs catalyst is used with palladium as a co-catalyst.
Q3) Choose the statement below that is not true about the Suzuki reaction.
A) The product of the Suzuki reaction is completely stereospecific.
B) The Suzuki reaction involves both an organoborane reagent and an organopalladium catalyst.
C) The Suzuki reaction forms more highly substituted alkenes.
D) The Suzuki reaction involves an oxidative addition followed by a reductive elimination.
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Chapter 27: Pericyclic Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about electrocyclic reactions is true?
A) An electrocyclic reaction is generally irreversible.
B) Generally, an acyclic triene is favored over a six-membered ring at equilibrium.
C) Generally, a four-membered ring is favored over an acyclic diene at equilibrium.
D) An electrocyclic reaction is generally reversible.
Q2) How many \(\pi\) molecular orbitals are present in 1,3,5,7,9-decapentaene?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 10
D) 12
Q3) Which of the following statements about pericyclic reactions is not true?
A) Pericyclic reactions are concerted reactions.
B) Pericyclic reactions proceed through a cyclic transition state.
C) Pericyclic reactions are not stereospecific.
D) Pericyclic reactions require light or heat.
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Chapter 28: Carbohydrates
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Q1) What is the composition of sucrose?
A) two glucose units with a \(\alpha\)-1,4'-glycoside bond
B) one glucose and one fructose unit with a \(\alpha\)-glycosidic bond to the 2'carbon of a fructofuranose ring
C) one galactose and one glucose unit with a \(\beta\)-1,4'-glycoside bond
D) repeating unit of glucose units joined in a \(\beta\)-1,4'-glycosidic linkage
Q2) Which of the following pairs of carbohydrates will afford the same product from a Wohl degradation?
A) xylose/glucose
B) ribose/arabinose
C) fructose/mannose
D) lyxose/threose
Q3) How many carbons does a pentose sugar have?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
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Chapter 29: Amino Acids and Proteins
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Q1) Which of the following is (are) globular protein(s)?
A) hemoglobin
B) keratins
C) collagens
D) elastins
Q2) Which one of the following naturally occurring amino acids does not have an S configuration?
A) cysteine
B) alanine
C) tyrosine
D) isoleucine
Q3) Which of the following correctly describes the Merrifield synthesis?
A) It uses a solid phase technique for the synthesis of peptides.
B) It uses DCC (dicyclohexylcarbodiimide) to form the amide bond in a peptide synthesis.
C) It uses BOC (tert-butoxycarbonyl) as a protecting group for peptide synthesis.
D) It uses aqueous phase techniques for the synthesis of large polypeptides.
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Chapter 30: Lipids
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Q1) What is (are) the biological precursor(s) for the formation of the steroid skeleton found in cholesterol?
A) cyclohexane
B) squalene
C) triacyl glycerols
D) arachadonic acid
Q2) How can an unsaturated fatty acid be converted into a saturated fatty acid?
A) hydrogenation
B) hydration
C) ozonolysis
D) hydrolysis
Q3) From the statements below, pick out the one that is not correct for fat-soluble vitamins.
A) Fat-soluble vitamins are classified as lipids.
B) Fat-soluble vitamins are a group of biologically active compounds containing 20 carbon atoms.
C) Fat-soluble vitamins are required in small quantities for normal metabolism.
D) Fat-soluble vitamins are stored in fat cells for use when they are needed.
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Chapter 31: Synthetic Polymers
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Q1) What modification occurs when a small amount of p-divinylbenzene is added to the polymerization reaction of styrene to form polystyrene? (Recall that the vinyl group is -CH=CH<sub>2</sub>.)
A) Cross-linking of the polystyrene
B) Isotactic stereochemistry of the polystyrene
C) Syndiotactic stereochemistry of the polystyrene
D) "Softening" of the polystyrene by a plasticizer
Q2) In which type of polymer are the chains packed less tightly together, resulting in lower melting points and a softer texture?
A) isotactic polymers
B) syndiotactic polymers
C) atactic polymers
D) cross-linked polymers
Q3) Which of the following initiators can be used for free radical chain-growth polymerization?
A) benzoyl peroxide
B) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>Li
C) BF<sub>3</sub>
D) Al(CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>, TiCl<sub>4</sub>
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