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Oral Pathology explores the nature, identification, and management of diseases affecting the oral and maxillofacial regions. This course provides a comprehensive overview of the etiology, clinical features, histopathology, and progression of oral diseases, including benign and malignant neoplasms, developmental abnormalities, and infections. Emphasis is placed on correlating clinical presentations with underlying pathological processes to facilitate accurate diagnosis and effective treatment planning. Through lectures, case studies, and laboratory exercises, students develop a solid foundation in the principles of pathology as they apply to dental practice.
Recommended Textbook
Oral Pathology for the Dental Hygienist 6th Edition by Olga A. C. Ibsen
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10 Chapters
617 Verified Questions
617 Flashcards
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50 Verified Questions
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Q1) Radiographic features, including the cotton-wool effect and hypercementosis, are especially helpful in the diagnosis of:
A)Paget disease.
B)dentinogenesis imperfecta.
C)anemia.
D)diabetes.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following would be described as a segment that is part of the whole?
A)Bulla
B)Vesicle
C)Lobule
D)Pustule
Answer: C
Q3) Fordyce granules:
A)are ectopic sebaceous glands.
B)are seen on the dorsal tongue.
C)require antibiotic treatment.
D)are lesions that require biopsy for diagnosis.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electric burns in the oral area are usually seen in:
A)electricians.
B)infants and young children.
C)the elderly.
D)individuals involved in an electrical fire.
Answer: B
Q2) An example of an irreversible cellular response that occurs during tissue injury is:
A)atrophy.
B)hypertrophy.
C)hyperplasia.
D)necrosis.
Answer: D
Q3) Excessive scarring in skin is called:
A)a keloid.
B)healing by primary intention.
C)a hematoma.
D)healing by tertiary intention.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the mildest form of this autoimmune disease, oral lesions appear as erythematous plaques or erosions. White striae radiating from the center of the lesion are also commonly present. These oral lesions are indicative of what autoimmune disease?
A)Mucous membrane pemphigoid
B)Pemphigus vulgaris
C)Lupus erythematosus
D)Behçet syndrome
Answer: C
Q2) Which lymphocyte matures without passing through the thymus and later can develop into a plasma cell that produces antibodies?
A)T-lymphocyte
B)B-lymphocyte
C)Macrophage
D)LE cell
Answer: B
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Q1) Opportunistic infections can occur because the oral microflora is affected by changes such as a decrease in salivary flow, immune system alterations, or antibiotic administration.
A)Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
B)Both the statement and reason are correct but not related.
C)The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D)The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E)Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, blastomycosis, and cryptococcosis are all examples of what type of infection?
A)Viral
B)Fungal
C)Developmental
D)Bacterial
Q3) Candidiasis is the result of an overgrowth of a:
A)yeastlike fungus.
B)spirochete.
C)filamentous bacterium.
D)fusiform bacillus.
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Q1) Microdontia most commonly occurs in:
A)maxillary laterals and third molars.
B)maxillary canine.
C)mandibular molars.
D)mandibular incisors and molars.
Q2) The most common cyst observed in the oral cavity is caused by pulpal inflammation and is called a(n) _____ cyst.
A)dentigerous
B)eruption
C)radicular
D)primordial
Q3) Pitting is the most common type of enamel hypoplasia seen in patients who have which condition during tooth development?
A)Febrile illness
B)Drinking water with 2.4 ppm of fluoride during tooth development
C)Congenital syphilis
D)Herpes simplex
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of oogenesis?
A)Oogenesis starts around the time of puberty.
B)The second meiosis is completed at the beginning of ovulation.
C)Nondisjunction is more prevalent in male spermatogenesis than in female oogenesis.
D)The older the woman, the greater the chance of shedding a trisomic ovum.
Q2) Cases of facial clefting occur in about 1 in _____ births.
A)80
B)200
C)800
D)2000
Q3) For autosomal-dominant inheritance:
A)males will be affected more often than females.
B)the risk of having an affected offspring is 25% when a person has a gene for the condition.
C)all of the offspring will be affected by a condition that is transmitted by autosomal-dominant inheritance.
D)an individual can carry a gene with a dominant effect without presenting any clinical manifestations.
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Q1) Idiopathic leukoplakia:
A)is a malignant lesion of the oral mucosa.
B)can be rubbed off with gauze squares.
C)is caused by direct irritation, as in tobacco pouch keratosis.
D)does not have a specific known cause.
Q2) Which of the following tumors will most closely resemble an ameloblastoma with ameloblast-like epithelial cells surrounding areas that resemble stellate reticulum?
A)Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
B)Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
C)Calcifying odontogenic cyst
D)Odontogenic myxoma
Q3) Kaposi sarcoma is:
A)caused by a human herpesvirus.
B)seen only in association with HIV infection.
C)most often seen intraorally on the tongue.
D)a malignant striated muscle tumor.
Q4) Mitosis is uncontrolled with rapid division.
A)Benign
B)Malignant
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Q1) Mosaic bone may be observed in a patient with Paget disease as a result of:
A)lack of trabeculae.
B)prominent reversal lines resulting from resorption and deposition of bone.
C)the presence of "giant cells."
D)a "ground glass" appearance.
Q2) "Ground glass" is the classic radiographic description of _____.
A)osteomalacia
B)Paget disease of bone
C)fibrous dysplasia
D)florid cemento-osseous dysplasia
Q3) Café au lait skin macules are associated with:
A)monostotic fibrous dysplasia.
B)polyostotic fibrous dysplasia.
C)Paget disease of bone.
D)osteomalacia.
Q4) Paget disease of bone:
A)typically occurs in children under the age of 18.
B)is painless.
C)may reveal a "cotton-wool" appearance on radiographs.
D)results in shrinkage of affected bone.

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Q1) Which of the following drugs may be taken during the course of radiation treatment to reduce the severity of radiation-induced xerostomia?
A)Prednisone
B)Pilocarpine hydrochloride
C)Aspirin
D)Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs
Q2) Which of the following disorders of red blood cells and hemoglobin is associated with sensitivity to dietary gluten found in wheat and wheat products?
A)Aplastic anemia
B)Polycythemia vera
C)Secondary polycythemia
D)Celiac sprue
Q3) Advantages of an insulin pump for therapy of type 1 diabetes include:
A)blood sugar levels no longer need to be monitored.
B)the pump is internal.
C)the pump can maintain a more predictable control of blood sugar levels than multiple insulin injections.
D)the insulin dosage with the pump is limited to once-a-day dosing.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the articular disk in the temporomandibular joint is true?
A)It is attached to the anterior and posterior aspects of the condyle.
B)It is attached to the inferior belly of the medial pterygoid muscle.
C)The disk is highly vascular.
D)The disk is surrounded and protected by the fibrous connective tissue joint capsule.
Q2) Which type of dental radiography is best for examining disk position, function, form, and the presence of joint effusions?
A)Panoramic imaging
B)Transcranial imaging
C)Computerized tomography (CT)
D)Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Q3) The three elevator muscles of mastication that when activated, close the mandible, include the masseter, the medial pterygoid, and the _____.
A)lateral pterygoid
B)temporalis
C)anterior digastric
D)mylohyoid
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