Oral Medicine
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Oral Medicine is a specialized field of dentistry that focuses on the diagnosis, management, and non-surgical treatment of oral mucosal diseases, orofacial pain, and related systemic conditions affecting the oral and maxillofacial region. This course covers the clinical aspects of common and rare disorders, including ulcers, white and red lesions, salivary gland diseases, and potentially malignant conditions. Students will learn to integrate medical knowledge with dental care, emphasizing interdisciplinary collaboration for complex cases. The curriculum includes patient assessment, diagnostic techniques, biopsy procedures, pharmacological management, and principles of treating medically compromised patients, preparing students for advanced clinical decision-making in oral healthcare.
Recommended Textbook
Oral pathology clinical pathologic correlations 6th edition by joseph a. regezi
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16 Chapters
556 Verified Questions
556 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Vesiculobullous Diseases
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systemic corticosteroids can affect many metabolic processes. Which of the following effects of prednisone is regarded as therapeutic when prescribed for patients with pemphigus vulgaris and mucous membrane pemphigoid?
A)Gluconeogenesis
B)Potentiation of vasopressors
C)Suppression of pituitary-adrenal axis
D)Sodium resorption
E)Immunosuppression
Answer: E
Q2) A 9-year-old girl presents with marked gingival inflammation and multiple small ulcers involving her vestibular mucosa, vermilion, and perioral skin. She has a fever, malaise, joint pain, and headache. She most likely has which of the following?
A)Primary herpes simplex infection
B)Measles
C)Herpangina
D)Mucous membrane pemphigoid
E)Acute lupus erythematosus
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Ulcerative Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Squamous cell carcinoma of the right floor of the mouth would most likely metastasize to which of the following sites?
A)Submental lymph nodes
B)Submandibular lymph nodes, right side
C)Submandibular lymph nodes, left side
D)Lung
E)Mandible
Answer: B
Q2) A 32-year-old man experiences sudden diffuse swelling of his lips and face following ingestion of a 1.5 pound steamed Maine lobster. Virtually no redness is associated with the swelling. This suggests which of the following?
A)Angioedema
B)Contact allergy
C)Indigestion
D)Erythema multiforme
E)Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: White Lesions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cutaneous lesions may be seen in all the following except:
A)Erythema multiforme
B)Chronic lupus erythematosus
C)Hairy leukoplakia
D)Secondary herpes simplex infections
E)Primary herpes simplex infections
Answer: C
Q2) A 9-year-old boy has bilateral, white thickening of his buccal mucosa that extends into the vestibules. The lesions have been present since birth. His brother has similar lesions. Which of the following is suggested?
A)Lichen planus
B)Leukoedema
C)Mucous patches
D)White sponge nevus
E)None of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Red-Blue Lesions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Burning mouth syndrome is treated with:
A)Improvement of oral hygiene
B)Antifungals
C)Empathy
D)Empirical measures
E)All the above
Q2) Burning mouth syndrome:
A)May be caused by Candida albicans
B)Occurs more commonly in women than in men
C)May be associated with xerostomia
D)Most commonly affects the tongue
E)All the above
Q3) HIV-associated Kaposi's sarcoma:
A)Is typically seen in men over the age of 60 years
B)Occurs most commonly in the buccal mucosa intraorally
C)Is associated with one of the herpesviruses
D)Has an excellent prognosis
E)Presents as a painful nonhealing ulcer
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6
Chapter 5: Pigmented Lesions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lateral or radial spread at the epithelial-connective tissue interface is a characteristic growth feature of which of the following pigmented lesions?
A)Blue nevus
B)Ephelis
C)In situ melanoma
D)Invasive melanoma
E)Amalgam tattoo
Q2) A 40-year-old woman presents with multiple melanotic macules of her lips and buccal mucosa. If the patient is found to have adrenal insufficiency, which of the following conditions should be considered?
A)von Recklinghausen's disease of skin
B)McCune-Albright syndrome
C)Addison's disease
D)Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
E)None of the above
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Chapter 6: Verrucal-Papillary Lesions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following verrucal-papillary lesions is associated with chronic candidiasis and the wearing of ill-fitting dentures?
A)Verrucous carcinoma
B)Verruca vulgaris (oral wart)
C)Dysplasia
D)Keratoacanthoma
E)None of the above
Q2) Which of the more than 100 human papillomavirus subtypes have been associated with the development of human carcinomas?
A)Subtypes 2 and 6
B)Subtypes 11 and 13
C)Subtypes 16 and 18
D)Subtypes 13 and 79a
E)All the above
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8
Chapter 7: Connective Tissue Lesions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Granular cell tumors of the adult have a predilection for which of the following sites?
A)Gingiva
B)Upper lip
C)Lower lip
D)Tongue
E)Buccal mucosa
Q2) All the following occur predominantly in the gingiva except:
A)Peripheral giant cell granuloma
B)Peripheral fibroma
C)Congenital epulis of the newborn
D)Pyogenic granuloma
E)Neurofibroma
Q3) Denture-induced fibrous hyperplasia that is associated with the flanges of poorly fitting dentures is characteristically seen in what location?
A)Retromolar pad
B)Buccal mucosa
C)Lateral border of the tongue
D)Anterior vestibular mucosa
E)Hard palate
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Chapter 8: Salivary Gland Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell that replaces salivary and lacrimal gland parenchyma, resulting in dryness seen in association with Sjögren's syndrome, is the:
A)Macrophage
B)Lymphocyte
C)Langerhans cell
D)Neutrophil
E)Mast cell
Q2) The circumscribed salivary gland tumor that is composed of a benign mixture of neoplastic ductal epithelium and myoepithelium-derived connective tissue is known as:
A)Pleomorphic adenoma (mixed tumor)
B)Monomorphic adenoma
C)Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D)Adenoid cystic carcinoma
E)Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma
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Chapter 9: Lymphoid Lesions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 32-year-old HIV-positive patient developed an ulcerated gingival mass that was biopsied and diagnosed as high-grade lymphoma. A staging workup showed that he had stage IV disease. His prognosis relative to his lymphoma would be:
A)Excellent
B)Good
C)Fair
D)Poor
Q2) Oral extranodal lymphomas that are HIV related are most commonly of which of the following types?
A)Low-grade, B-cell lymphomas
B)Low-grade, T-cell lymphomas
C)High-grade, T-cell lymphomas
D)High-grade, B-cell lymphomas
E)None of the above
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11
Chapter 10: Cysts of the Jaws and Neck
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two cystic radiolucencies in the mandible of a 16-year-old boy were lined by thin parakeratinized epithelium showing palisading of basal cells. All teeth were vital and the patient had no symptoms. This patient has which of the following?
A)Odontogenic keratocysts
B)Periapical granulomas
C)Periapical cysts
D)Traumatic bone cysts
E)Central mucoepidermoid carcinomas
Q2) A 16-year-old patient was found to have a unicystic radiolucency in the body of the mandible between the roots of vital teeth nos. 28 and 29. Thin parakeratinized epithelium was found lining the cystic space on biopsy. This is a(n):
A)Lateral root cyst
B)Traumatic bone cyst
C)Odontogenic keratocyst
D)Laterally positioned periapical cyst
E)Cyst of dental lamina
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Chapter 11: Odontogenic Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) An asymptomatic multilocular radiolucency of the body of the mandible in a 35-year-old man could be all the following except:
A)Ameloblastoma
B)Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
C)Odontogenic keratocyst
D)Complex odontoma
E)Odontogenic myxoma
Q2) On routine radiographic examination, an asymptomatic 0.5 cm radiolucent lesion was found at the apex of tooth no. 24 in a 37-year-old woman. The pulp tested vital. This lesion is most likely which of the following?
A)Condensing osteitis
B)Periapical granuloma
C)Periapical scar
D)Focal sclerosing osteitis
E)Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia
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Chapter 12: Benign Nonodontogenic Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ossifying fibroma is characterized clinically by:
A)Slow growth
B)Well-defined borders
C)Benign fibro-osseous microscopic appearance
D)Appearance in young adults
E)All the above
Q2) Which of the following could be classified as a benign fibro-osseous lesion?
A)Fibrous dysplasia
B)Idiopathic histiocytosis
C)Ewing's tumor
D)Odontogenic myxoma
E)Hematopoietic bone marrow defect
Q3) All the following are components of McCune-Albright syndrome except:
A)Café-au-lait macules
B)Intestinal polyps
C)Fibrous dysplasia
D)Precocious puberty
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14
Chapter 13: Inflammatory Jaw Lesions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jaw pain is a feature most often associated with:
A)Periapical granuloma
B)Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia
C)Periapical abscess
D)Odontogenic keratocyst
E)Dentigerous cyst
Q2) When an inflammatory process of the jaws results in reduplication of the periosteum, as well as medullary bone inflammation, the condition is known as:
A)Acute osteomyelitis
B)Diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis
C)Condensing osteitis
D)Garré's osteomyelitis
E)Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis
Q3) Garré's osteomyelitis is usually associated with which of the following?
A)Trauma to the jaws
B)Immune dysfunction
C)Gingivitis
D)Actinomycotic infection
E)Decayed mandibular molar
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Malignancies of the Jaws
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ill-defined radiolucent and radiopaque lesion in the maxilla of a 65-year-old woman was biopsied. Histologically, it was a solid neoplasm composed of malignant plasma cells. This most likely represents which of the following?
A)Multiple myeloma
B)Ameloblastic fibroma
C)Fibrous dysplasia
D)Osteoblastoma
E)Osteosarcoma
Q2) The Epstein-Barr virus may be associated with the etiology and pathogenesis of which of the following jaw lesions?
A)Garré's disease
B)Ewing's tumor
C)Burkitt's lymphoma
D)Central giant cell granuloma
E)Osteogenesis imperfecta
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16
Chapter 15: Metabolic and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypoplastic clavicles, delayed eruption, supernumerary teeth, and frontal bone bossing are features of:
A)Hemifacial hypertrophy
B)Cleidocranial dysplasia (dysostosis)
C)Gardner's syndrome
D)Down syndrome
E)Multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome (MEN III)
Q2) Bilateral symmetric enlargement of the mandible or maxilla would most likely be seen in which of the following?
A)Garré's osteomyelitis
B)Paget's disease
C)Osteosarcoma
D)Fibrous dysplasia
E)Ameloblastic fibroma
Q3) Hyperparathyroidism causes which of the following changes in serum chemistry?
A)Decreased calcium
B)Increased calcium
C)Increased phosphorus
D)Decreased alkaline phosphatase
E)None of the above
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Chapter 16: Abnormalities of Teeth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Premature deciduous tooth loss may occur in association with all the following except:
A)Amelogenesis imperfecta
B)Hyperthyroidism
C)Burkitt's lymphoma
D)Langerhans cell disease
Q2) Enamel hypoplasia can result from which of the following?
A)Congenital syphilis
B)Nutritional deficiencies in utero or in childhood
C)Exanthematous diseases of childhood such as varicella
D)Fluoride in drinking water at levels greater than 1 ppm
E)All the above
Q3) Serum calcium would be significantly elevated in which of the following?
A)Central giant cell granuloma
B)Cherubism
C)Ameloblastoma
D)Langerhans cell disease (idiopathic histiocytosis) of the mandible
E)None of the above
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