Operating Room Techniques
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Operating Room Techniques is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary for effective participation in surgical procedures within the operating room environment. The course covers principles of aseptic technique, sterilization, instrumentation, surgical site preparation, and patient positioning, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the surgical team. Students will learn about operating room protocols, infection control measures, patient safety, equipment handling, and emergency procedures, all underpinned by ethical and legal considerations. Emphasis is placed on teamwork, communication, and adaptability to ensure efficient and safe patient care during surgical interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Care of the Patient in Surgery 16th Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
30 Chapters
749 Verified Questions
749 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1853 Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts Basic to Perioperative Nursing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37030
Sample Questions
Q1) The cardiac team is developing a standardized sterile back table setup and is unable to find sufficient research evidence for their project.Where might they look for information on best practices?
A) Survey regional surgical technology programs for their back table models
B) Review case studies and expert opinions on sterile back table setups
C) Review AORN's Guidelines for Perioperative Practice on sterilization and disinfection
D) Consult with facility instrument vendor representatives for their advice
Answer: B
Q2) In a research study by Kleiner and colleagues (2014),use of crew resource management (CRM)principles was a practical and effective means to:
A) identify potential surgical defects in the OR.
B) monitor central processing productivity.
C) promote teamwork.
D) improve the quality of OR briefings and debriefings.
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
3
Chapter 2: Patient Safety and Risk Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37031
Sample Questions
Q1) Early on,during the preliminary sponge count on closure of a repair of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm,the circulating nurse was unable to account for 2 lap sponges.He had maintained accountability for all sponges and instruments discarded from the sterile field and bagged each sponge carefully.He immediately turned and addressed the entire team in a clear voice.Select the appropriate communication that the circulating nurse must employ during this count discrepancy.
A) "Stop everything. I'm missing a couple of sponges. They are not in the trash or back table. Check the wound."
B) "I think you are missing 2 sponges. Shall I call X-ray while the scrub person checks her table again? Doctor, please check the incision."
C) "We have a count discrepancy. We started with 70 sponges and find only 68. We are missing 2 lap sponges. Everyone, please check your areas.
D) "I've called X-ray because we are short 2 sponges. I've called the charge nurse to get someone to help me check the trash and linen."
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 4
Chapter 3: Workplace Issues and Staff Safety
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37032
Sample Questions
Q1) Contact with infected patients or infectious material places healthcare workers at risk for occupational-acquired infection.Which communicable disease are healthcare workers most commonly at risk for acquiring or transmitting?
A) Hepatitis B
B) HIV
C) Seasonal influenza
D) Hepatitis C
Answer: C
Q2) Wet floors are a common hazard causing slips,trips,and falls (STFs).Select a prevention strategy that is a best practice for preventing STFs from spills on wet floors.
A) Transport liquids in covered containers with lids in place.
B) Place bright yellow low-profile pop-up signs in areas where STFs are most likely to occur.
C) Position highly visible yellow absorptive pads in areas where STFs are most likely to occur.
D) Use a dripless, brush-free gel solution for surgical patient skin preps.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Infection Prevention and Control
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37033
Sample Questions
Q1) Qualities of an effective packaging material must include several key characteristics.Select the three most important qualities.
A) Cost, good microbial barrier, lint-free writable surface
B) Good steam penetration and removal, good microbial barrier, resists tearing
C) Aseptic presentation, event-related sterility indicators, writable surface
D) Stackable in sterilizer/storage shelf, comparable cost, low toxicity
Q2) While antibiotics have been credited with saving lives,misuse of antibiotics has contributed to the evolution of multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs).Select the antibiotic application that has evidence to support it as a best practice and not,potentially,a misuse of antibiotics.
A) Antibiotics should be administered 1 hour prior to surgical incision, within 2 hours for vancomycin or fluorquinolones for every procedure with an incision or entered body system.
B) Vancomycin paste applied to cut edges of the sternum in cardiac surgery.
C) Tobramycin and methylmethacrylate bead implants into deep orthopedic incisions at risk for osteomyelitis.
D) Bacitracin ointment on a clean subcuticular sutured incision as part of the dressing.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Anesthesia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37034
Sample Questions
Q1) Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)is often a side effect of the analgesic
A) morphine
B) ketamine
C) ketorolac
D) esmolol
Q2) The term balanced anesthesia is described as:
A) a combination of IV medications and inhalation agents.
B) nitrous oxide, air, and oxygen.
C) premedication, induction agents, and reversal agents.
D) induction agent, muscle relaxation, and analgesics.
Q3) A frail 92-year-old was positioned in lithotomy for a 90-minute rectal procedure under SAB.At the end of the procedure,when the circulating nurse and surgeon gently removed her legs from the position and placed her in a supine position,she experienced a common side effect of spinal anesthesia,____________.
A) numbness of both legs and feet
B) paralysis with bilateral popliteal pain
C) hypotensive episode
D) hypertensive episode
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 7
Chapter 6: Positioning the Patient for Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37035
Sample Questions
Q1) The circulating nurse instructed the new anesthesia resident in the proper positioning of the arm and hands on the OR bed arm boards.She cautioned him to avoid pressure on the elbow to prevent:
A) ulnar nerve injury.
B) radial artery tension.
C) radial nerve compression.
D) pressure sore of the elbow.
Q2) The perioperative nurse noticed abrasions on a patient's elbows when she visited him in the intensive care unit (ICU)the day after his 6-hour abdominal surgery.The patient told her that the ICU nurses had difficulty pulling him back up in bed every time he slid down toward the bottom,and he was not able to be much help in moving himself.This skin injury was probably the result of which physical force?
A) Heat and moisture from prolonged bed rest
B) Pressure of his elbows resting on the bed for 2 days
C) Friction from his elbows rubbing over the sheets when slid up in bed
D) Negativity from the bath blankets the nurses stacked to make arm rests for the patient
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 8
Chapter 7: Sutures, sharps, and Instruments
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37036
Sample Questions
Q1) Nonabsorbable sutures are strands of material that effectively resists enzymatic digestion in living animal tissue.The USP categorizes nonabsorbable surgical suture into classes.A suture composed of monofilament or multifilament metal wire would be a:
A) Class I suture.
B) Class II suture.
C) Class III suture.
D) Class IV suture.
Q2) During the draping procedure,the anesthesia provider asked the scrub person for two towel clamps to secure the top of the unsterile edge of the drape to the intravenous (IV)poles.The scrub person had two penetrating and two nonpenetrating clamps on the back table.She knew she would need to secure the suction and electrosurgical pencil to the sterile field as soon as draping was finished.How should the scrub person respond to the anesthesia provider's request for towel clips?
A) Refuse to give him any towel clamps because they are counted.
B) Give him two Allis clamps instead.
C) Give him the penetrating towel clamps.
D) Give him the nonpenetrating towel clamps.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Surgical Modalities
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37037
Sample Questions
Q1) A 9-year-old female softball player has arrived in the OR for emergency repair of superficial facial and deep arm lacerations when she ran into the chain link fence during practice after school.The perioperative nurse discovers that the patient has diabetes and has an insulin pump that should remain connected during the short procedure.The best option for energy-generated hemostasis is:
A) battery-generated eye electrosonic cautery.
B) bipolar electrosurgery.
C) hemoelectrocoagulated plasma capacitor.
D) monopolar electrosurgery.
Q2) Endoscopic instruments are designed to perform the intervention at the target tissue site through the tubular endoscope.The endoscopic instrument is considered:
A) an extended instrument with a working head.
B) an extension of the surgeon's hand.
C) a means to perform hands-free surgery.
D) much less accurate than a surgeon's hand.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Wound Healing, dressings, and Drains
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37038
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about surgical dressings is true?
A) Surgical dressings cushion and protect the wound from trauma and gross contamination and absorb drainage.
B) Surgical dressings maintain a moist environment and prevent cell dehydration.
C) Surgical dressings maintain tension on the suture line to prevent dehiscence.
D) Surgical dressings promote patient comfort.
E) Surgical dressings may support, splint, or immobilize the incisional area.
Q2) Hydrotherapy for wound care was traditionally accomplished in an immersion bath whirlpool system.Because immersion in a tank is not practical from an intraoperative perspective,the hydrotherapy method most frequently used in the OR is:
A) hyperosmosis.
B) hydroirrigation.
C) pulsatile lavage.
D) water pik pressure-washout.
Q3) Which statement best reflects the appropriate purpose of a surgical drain?
A) Drains can prevent the development of deep wound infections.
B) Drains allow optimal observation of the incisional site.
C) Drains provide a portal for antibiotic irrigation.
D) Drains can provide opportunities for wound aeration.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 11
Chapter 10: Postoperative Patient Care and Pain Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37039
Sample Questions
Q1) There are many therapeutic management strategies that have been successful in treating PONV.What evidence-based practice best improves patient comfort,readiness for discharge,and satisfaction with care?
A) Administration of promethazine as soon as the patient complains of nausea
B) Pharmacologic prophylaxis
C) Prophylaxis paralleled with anesthesia induction
D) Administration of postoperative opioids
Q2) Select the most reliable indicator of pain.
A) A proxy pain rating by someone who knows the patient well
B) Facial grimacing and crying
C) The patient's self-report of pain
D) Physiologic indicators, such as elevated vital signs
Q3) Unfortunately,patients who are managed with opioids as part of their analgesic program can have adverse events related to the medication.What are two of the most serious opioid-related adverse events?
A) Pruritis followed by anaphylaxis
B) Unintended advancing sedation and respiratory depression
C) Respiratory depression and alveolar collapse
D) Urticaria followed by anaphylaxis
Page 12
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 11: Gastrointestinal Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37040
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the McBurney incision is most correct?
A) It is an oblique inguinal incision in the left lower quadrant.
B) It is the incision of choice to repair a direct inguinal hernia.
C) It is an oblique inguinal incision in the right lower quadrant.
D) The direction is more transverse than oblique.
Q2) A 55-year-old woman has arrived for an outpatient esophagogastroduodenoscopy.She is assessed by the perioperative nurse to be in good health and is listed as American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA)class I.The patient changes into her gown and awaits transfer to the procedure room when she is informed that she will not be transferred to the procedure room until __________ and must wait for ________.
A) she is typed and screened; type and crossmatch
B) her ride home arrives; a responsible adult
C) she is NPO for 2 more hours; a bowel prep
D) her esophagus is cleansed; return of gag reflex
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37041
Sample Questions
Q1) A 42-year-old woman from India is visiting her daughter and new grandson.She is a devout follower of Hindu religious practices and has been diagnosed with splenomegaly,possibly from idiopathic thrombocytopenia.The patient is scheduled for a total splenectomy.During the preoperative assessment,the perioperative nurse,an observant practitioner of Hinduism,is concerned about the possibility of significant bleeding because of the patient's coagulopathy and the need for hemostatic agents that are typically used to stop bleeding.Many of these products are manufactured from bovine source products,and it would be in conflict with the patient's religion to use products from a cow.An appropriate risk-reduction strategy for selection of hemostatic agents that would not be in conflict with the patient's belief system would be:
A) substitute absorbable gelatin and oxidized collagen products; soak in thrombin. B) substitute absorbable collagen products; apply with dry gloves. C) substitute absorbable gelatin and oxidized collagen products. D) substitute microfibrillar collagen soaked in thrombin; add epinephrine 1:1000.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Hernia Repair
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37042
Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a common postoperative complication related to inguinal hernia surgery is:
A) delayed return to activity.
B) inguinal nerve entrapment.
C) femoral canal adhesions.
D) hernia recurrence.
Q2) Depending on their location,hernias are classified as direct inguinal,indirect inguinal,femoral,umbilical,incisional,or epigastric.Hernias in any of these groups are either reducible or nonreducible.The characteristic "reducible" hernia can best be described as a hernia:
A) that does not require surgical repair.
B) that is an urgent diagnosis.
C) with visceral contents that can be returned to the abdomen.
D) with a narrow sac neck that is closed with adhesions.
Q3) Which hernia type occurs within the Hesselbach triangle?
A) Direct inguinal hernia
B) Indirect inguinal hernia
C) Ventral hernia
D) Umbilical hernia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 15
Chapter 14: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37043
Sample Questions
Q1) During the preoperative nursing assessment in the ambulatory surgery receiving unit,the nurse notices bruises and abrasions in various stages of healing on her patient's abdomen,arms,and breasts.In a quiet and respectful manner,the nurse says,"The staff at our facility are concerned about your safety.We know that many things can happen in our lives that affect our mental and physical health." This technique is an appropriate method of establishing a sense of __________ with the patient while conveying caring and concern.
A) intimacy
B) normalcy
C) catharsis
D) trust and confidentiality
Q2) An example of perineal glands that secrete mucus is:
A) Skene's glands.
B) Bartholin's glands.
C) perineal glands.
D) labial glands.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
16
Chapter 15: Genitourinary Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37044
Sample Questions
Q1) Endoscopic examination of the urinary tract,with a sterile cystoscope,is typically designated as which wound classification category?
A) Class I (clean)
B) Class II (clean-contaminated)
C) Class III (contaminated)
D) Class IV (infected)
Q2) Patients having genitourinary surgery are at risk for impaired urinary elimination.Select the statement that best reflects a desired outcome for an adult patient.
A) The patient will be able to urinate before the bladder exceeds 350 mL of fullness.
B) The patient will regain his or her normal pattern of urinary elimination.
C) The patient will excrete 50 mL of urine per hour.
D) The patient will be able to ambulate to the bathroom following surgery.
Q3) Select the statement about the prostate that best reflects its location.
A) The prostate sits adjacent to the urethra.
B) The prostate sits below the urethra.
C) The prostate is anterior to the bladder.
D) The prostate is interposed between the bladder neck and the urethra.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37045
Sample Questions
Q1) A number of symptoms and signs are well-established manifestations of thyroid dysfunction.The American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists (AACE)has established practice guidelines for the diagnostic evaluation and screening of hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism.The AACE recommends the ___________ as the single best screening test.A history of ___________ are symptoms of concern,and patients with ___________ require MRI or CT imaging,because this may be indicative of metastasis.Select the clinical triad to complete this diagnostic screening guideline.
A) serum TSH; calcifications; cough
B) thyroxin profile; whole-body radiation; Hashimoto's disease
C) free thyroid hormone levels; thyroiditis; a fixed immobile neck mass
D) TSH assay, neck or ear pain, dysphagia
Q2) A 62-year-old woman with a 4-year history of Graves' disease has not responded to medical therapy.She is scheduled for a subtotal thyroidectomy.Which condition,a complication of Graves' disease,is her probable indication for a subtotal thyroidectomy?
A) Tracheal obstruction
B) Diffuse unilateral enlargement of a lobe
C) Cricothyroid compression
D) Autoimmune hypothyroidism
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: Breast Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37046
Sample Questions
Q1) The catheter component of an infusion port system is inserted into which structure(s)?
A) Left mammary or subclavian vein
B) Right atrium by way of the jugular vein
C) Subclavian or jugular vein
D) Inferior vena cava
Q2) Review the list below and select the option that most accurately describes the action taken after a fine-needle aspiration biopsy (FNAB)of a suspicious breast mass.
A) The aspirate fluid is cytologically examined.
B) The aspirate fluid is histologically examined by frozen section.
C) The aspirate fluid is microscopically examined immediately by the procedural physician.
D) The patient undergoes an immediate excisional biopsy if the aspirate fluid is positive for malignancy.
Q3) Which factors are considered high increased risk for breast cancer?
A) Nulliparity, dense breasts
B) Family history, early menarche
C) Age greater than 60, genetic factors
D) History of hormone replacement therapy, obesity
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 19
Chapter 18: Ophthalmic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37047
Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing for pars plana vitrectomy in the posterior segment,the perioperative nurse must be aware that a combined scleral buckling procedure may be necessary.Other important information the perioperative nurse should know before preparing the OR for the procedure includes the location of the ocular problem,the surgeon's plan to address the problem,and the instrumentation and biomedical equipment and devices to be used.Technologic advances in ophthalmic surgery require that perioperative nurses be familiar with complex biomedical equipment.A best practice,stated below,relevant to the safe use of complex equipment would be to:
A) determine the presence and appropriate date (not expired) of the biomedical monitoring label.
B) confirm competence through inservice education and training specific to new equipment.
C) schedule the manufacturer's representative to be present to provide technical support.
D) schedule the biomedical clinical engineer to check all equipment before each procedure.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 19: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37048
Sample Questions
Q1) When microlaryngoscopy is performed to remove polyps or nodules from the vocal cords,which important postoperative instruction must the nurse give the patient during discharge teaching?
A) Complete voice rest is essential.
B) Coughing and deep-breathing exercises should be performed.
C) Clearing the throat to remove secretions is advised.
D) The patient should use a humidifier.
Q2) Both ears provide stereophonic hearing that gives us very specific hearing capabilities.Binaural hearing makes it possible for:
A) determination of the source location of sounds.
B) enhanced voice recognition.
C) amplification and resolution of sound properties.
D) recognition of more than one sound at a time.
Q3) The external ear canal lining is protected and lubricated with cerumen (earwax),which traps foreign material and:
A) liquefies foreign matter in the ear canal.
B) lubricates the external ear.
C) maintains the high acidic pH in the ear canal.
D) reduces bacterial levels in the outer ear.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 21
Chapter 20: Orthopedic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37049
Sample Questions
Q1) Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty are used for the treatment of vertebral compression fractures attributable to osteoporosis or pathologic conditions.Bone cement is injected into the vertebral body to decrease back pain and prevent further vertebral body height loss.Equipment includes C-arm,radiolucent OR bed,and X-ray vests for staff as well as bone biopsy needles,vertebroplasty system,and cement injection system.An important nursing consideration relevant to this interventional radiology-assisted procedure would be to:
A) shield the patient with a lead apron, covering from thyroid to reproductive organs.
B) have a spinal fixation system available outside of the room.
C) position patient in prone body alignment with padding to prevent skin and nerve injury.
D) abduct both arms less than 90 degrees on attached arm boards.
Q2) Ligaments are best defined as:
A) bands of dense connective tissue that hold bone to bone.
B) layers of elastic, resilient supporting tissue found at the end of bones.
C) tough, long strands of fibers that form the ends of muscles.
D) layers of connective tissue that nourish the bone.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Neurosurgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37050
Sample Questions
Q1) Meticulous hemostasis is extremely important in neurosurgery.Numerous interventions and types of materials are used to limit blood loss.Which of the following describes a best practice toward the goal of achieving hemostasis during neurosurgery?
A) Gelatin sponge is commonly used to pack burr holes.
B) Soft gauze sponges are routinely used to control bleeding around delicate neural tissue.
C) Bone wax is commonly applied to oozing surfaces.
D) Gelatin sponge, which is absorbable, can be left in the body.
Q2) Trigeminal neuralgia is an extremely painful and debilitating condition characterized by unilateral intense pain in the ear,eye,lips,nose,scalp,forehead,teeth,or jaw.A variety of treatments,including microvascular surgical decompression,are available.Select a minimally invasive targeted therapy that has demonstrated significant success in ablation of the entry of the trigeminal nerve.
A) Endovascular ablation
B) Stereotactic alcohol injections
C) Gamma Knife radiosurgery
D) Cavitron ultrasonic surgical ablation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Reconstructive and Aesthetic Plastic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37051
Sample Questions
Q1) During the planning phase of a procedure for liposuction,the perioperative nurse will assemble and organize supplies and devices,because the procedure may require:
A) repositioning one or more times during surgery.
B) meticulous accounting of fluid loss and blood replacement.
C) the use of implant material.
D) patient transfer to an alternating-pressure bed.
Q2) Facial fractures are classified according to a system developed by Rene Le Fort in the early 1900s.A fracture that starts at the nasal bones; crosses the frontal process of the maxilla and lacrimal bones; and extends through the orbital floor,infraorbital rim,and lateral maxillary sinus wall is known as a:
A) Le Fort I.
B) Le Fort II.
C) Le Fort III.
D) Le Fort IV.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 23: Thoracic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37052
Sample Questions
Q1) The nerves of the lungs are a part of the autonomic nervous system.Which structures are constricted and relaxed by their influence?
A) The bronchi and the blood vessels
B) The alveoli and the pulmonary vein
C) The pulmonary artery and vein
D) The bronchi and bronchioles
Q2) Lung volume reduction surgery (LVRS)is an alternative surgical treatment for patients with which pulmonary condition?
A) Chronic pulmonary asthma with oxygen needed to keep saturation at 90%
B) Acute unilateral pulmonary emphysema
C) Chronic pulmonary emphysema
D) Unsuccessful or failed laser surgery for giant lung bulla
Q3) In the last decade,many energy devices have entered day-to-day practice in thoracic surgery.These energy devices include:
A) ultrasonic shears.
B) Sanders Venturi system.
C) stereotactic ablative radiotherapy.
D) argon plasma coagulation.
E) radiofrequency ablation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 25
Chapter 24: Vascular Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37053
Sample Questions
Q1) The perioperative nurse,with an understanding of the special surgical considerations for vascular procedures,will plan for the possibility of angiography studies being performed during the intraoperative or interventional procedure.An appropriate consideration when preparing the OR or interventional procedure room would be to:
A) assess the patient for allergies to contrast dyes.
B) provide a radiolucent OR bed surface with X-ray capabilities.
C) provide contrast media, catheters, impermeable sterile X-ray covers, and lead aprons.
D) provide radiation-protection devices, such as lead aprons and shields.
Q2) What properties enable arteries to compensate for changes in blood pressure and blood volume?
A) Regeneration and thick muscularis
B) Dilatation and absence of valves
C) Contraction and constriction
D) Elasticity and distensibility
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 25: Cardiac Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37054
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the diagnostic test that represents an invasive cardiac study.
A) Resting multiple-gated acquisition (MUGA)
B) Exercise MUGA
C) Cardiac function
D) Electrophysiology studies
Q2) An implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD)is an electronic device designed to monitor cardiac electrical activity and deliver prompt defibrillation.Myocardial or thoracic subcutaneous patches may be added if the transvenous catheters alone do not adequately defibrillate the heart.Patients with previously implanted defibrillator patches may present for removal of a patch(es).Which nursing action would be appropriate during this procedure?
A) Be prepared for emergency intervention if there is pacing as well as defibrillating
B) Be prepared for emergency intervention if there is excessive bleeding
C) Be prepared for emergency intervention if there is a lethal dysrhythmia
D) Be prepared for emergency intervention if the transvenous catheter migrates
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Pediatric Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37055
Sample Questions
Q1) This diagnosis describes the protrusion of the viscera through a defect in the abdominal wall to the right of the umbilical cord.It may be idiopathic or one in a combination of other syndromes with associated anomalies.Select the diagnosis.
A) Omphalocele
B) Congenital talipes equinovarus
C) Umbilical hernia
D) Gastroschisis
Q2) Baby Boy Doe is a newborn found outside of the emergency department (ED).He is hypothermic and has several deep lacerations across his back,abdomen,and legs that will require surgical repair.He is transferred to the surgical bay of the ED and prepared for anesthesia induction.Which risk reduction strategies are appropriate during the preanesthetic phase to achieve and maintain normothermia?
A) Adjust room temperature to 23° to 24° C (73.4° to 75.2° F).
B) Provide a radiant heat lamp during placement of monitoring lines and induction.
C) Wrap lower extremities in elastic bandages and encase in a plastic bag for newborns.
D) Keep child exposed as much as possible to benefit from the heat lamp.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
28
Chapter 27: Geriatric Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37056
Sample Questions
Q1) There are many important considerations related to the extent of surgical treatment.Therefore,the decision for surgery relies heavily on the patient's physical status at the time of surgery and on the extent of disease progression.When treating patients who are nearing the end of life,attention should promote:
A) maximizing the quantity of life.
B) solely shifting to maximizing survival.
C) maximizing the quality of life and dignity.
D) minimizing suffering.
E) minimizing institutional cost and resources.
Q2) The predominant reason for urologic surgery in elderly men is benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).Which appropriate assessment questions would the perioperative nurse ask the patient scheduled for a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)during the preoperative interview?
A) If he has symptoms that describe evidence of constipation
B) If he has symptoms that describe evidence of painful urination
C) If he has symptoms that describe evidence of blood in the urine
D) If he has symptoms that describe evidence of straining at urination
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29
Chapter 28: Trauma Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37057
Sample Questions
Q1) Traumatic deaths may occur in three phases or time frames.Which phase occurs within the first 1 to 2 hours after the injury,where definitive trauma care has the most significant effect?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
Q2) Focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST)may assist with diagnosis in difficult situations.Which group of scans is performed,and what do they identify?
A) Chest, pelvic, and four abdominal scans; collections of fluid and free air
B) Chest, abdominal, and cervical spine scans; hemorrhage
C) A full body scan; midline shifts
D) Upper and lower extremity scans; compartment syndrome
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 29: Interventional and Image-Guided Procedures
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37058
Sample Questions
Q1) Fluoroscopy time should be limited as much as possible.Which measures aid perioperative staff to limit the time of live fluoroscopy?
A) Sounding an audible warning alarm on fluoroscopy equipment after 5 minutes of fluoroscopy
B) Requiring nonessential team members to retreat to the control room during live imaging
C) Programming image-hold and loop-replay technique prior to imaging
D) Shutting off fluoroscopy equipment automatically after 5 minutes of continuous imaging
Q2) The IR procedure that is used to correct a blocked or narrowed blood vessel and restore flow is called:
A) angioplasty.
B) venoplasty.
C) venogram.
D) Seldinger technique.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 30: Integrative Health Practices: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37059
Sample Questions
Q1) A certified clinical aromatherapy practitioner (CCAP)asks the pediatric patient for a favorite flavor from a short list of banana,strawberry,bubble gum,mint,or tutti-fruiti,and then proceeds to place a drop of the chosen flavor into the inhalation mask before anesthesia induction.The child inhales the favorite flavor while drifting off to sleep.This complementary therapy falls within the category of:
A) clinical aromatherapy.
B) herbal sedation.
C) aroma anxiolysis.
D) postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) prevention.
Q2) What ancient Egyptian treatment promotes balance and wellness through nerve stimulation by pressure applications?
A) Tai chi
B) Reflexology
C) Trephining
D) Ayurveda
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32