Oncology Nursing Final
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Oncology Nursing is a specialized course designed to equip students with comprehensive knowledge and skills necessary for the care of individuals diagnosed with cancer. The course covers the fundamentals of cancer biology, treatment modalities such as chemotherapy, radiation, and surgery, as well as symptom management and supportive care throughout the cancer continuum. Students will learn about patient assessment, collaborative care planning, psychosocial support, and education strategies for patients and their families. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations, evidence-based practice, and the vital role of the oncology nurse in multidisciplinary teams to promote quality of life and holistic care for oncology patients.
Recommended Textbook Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy 3rd Edition by Charles M. Washington
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cancer: An Overview
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Q1) All clinical trials are retrospective.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which department typically handles financial assistance,logistical issues,and community services?
A) radiation oncology
B) pastoral care
C) social work
D) administration
Answer: C
Q3) Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)is an example of a screening examination that is both sensitive and specific.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Ethics and Legal Considerations of Cancer Management
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Q1) Fidelity is about being faithful or loyal.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Hospice is a form of active euthanasia.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Utilitarianism is an example of which broad group of ethical theories?
A) teleology
B) deontology
C) virtue ethics
Answer: A
Q4) Patient medical records are used only for patient care purposes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Principles of Pathology
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Q1) The hallmark of reversible cell damage is cellular swelling.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Agents causing inflammation include: I.hypoxia
II.chemicals
III.ionizing radiation
IV.allergic reactions
A) I and II
B) I,II,and III
C) II,III,and N
D) I,II,III,and IV
Answer: D
Q3) Homeostasis refers to a relatively constant or stable external environment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Overview of Radiobiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Isoeffect curves are most closely associated with which of the following?
A) oxygen enhancement
B) radiation syndromes
C) tolerance doses
D) fractionation
Q2) Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
A) adenine
B) cytosine
C) thymine
D) uracil
Q3) All tumors reoxygenate at the same rate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Carbohydrates contain enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Interval to completion of therapy or the total number of days a patient is under treatment is an important variable for local tumor control.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Detection and Diagnosis
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Q1) The American Cancer Society strongly recommends mass screening for all of the following except:
A) breast cancer
B) lung cancer
C) prostate cancer
D) colorectal cancer
Q2) In the TNM staging system,the "T" indicates:
A) metastases
B) nodal status
C) primary tumor
D) grade of the tumor
Q3) A very healthy 40-year old woman has a hematocrit of 30.0%.This is within normal limits.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A diagnosis can be subjective or objective.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Medical Imaging
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Q1) The technical factor having the most affect on radiographic density is:
A) mAs
B) kVp
C) distance
D) grid ratio
E) all may have a great impact on density
Q2) X-ray production requires a cathode filament,current sufficient to liberate electrons,an anode target,and an extremely high voltage applied across the tube circuit.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of the photostimulatable phosphor plate over conventional x-ray image production?
A) less radiating per exposure
B) postprocessing manipulation of density and contrast
C) no need for radiographic grids
D) higher spatial resolution
Q4) In 1895,Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen discovered the process of phosphorescence.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Treatment Delivery Equipment
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Q1) The rate of decay per month on a cobalt 60 unit is:
A) 1% per month
B) 2% per month
C) 3% per month
D) 5% per month
Q2) A bending magnet in an accelerator may be used:
A) to help deflect microwave power
B) to deflect (bend)the electron beam
C) gather stray electrons together in a bunch
D) gather random paper clips
Q3) a(n._______________ test is performed on the cobalt 60 unit to determine whether the source's seal is broken.
A) penumbra
B) light field-radiation field coincidence
C) electron equilibrium
D) wipe
Q4) Inherent filtration is due to materials present in the x-ray tube itself that the beam must pass through.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Treatment Procedures
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Q1) Based partially on historical studies showing a reduction in treatment error associated with increased portal imaging,________ portal imaging for radical cases has become an accepted but not universally implemented standard.
A) twice-daily
B) weekly
C) monthly
D) initial and final
Q2) Which of the following is used in shaping the field of an electron beam treatment?
A) MLC
B) bolus
C) aluminum
D) Cerrobend cutout
Q3) Safety and care in assessment of pain,mobility,and other factors affecting the patient's well-being are the responsibility of the:
A) radiation oncologist
B) patient's family
C) radiation therapist
D) radiation Oncology Nurse
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Chapter 9: Radiation Therapy Education
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Q1) Which professional organization is charged with administering the credentialing examination for graduates of radiation therapy educational programs?
A) ACR
B) JRCERT
C) ASRT
D) ARRT
Q2) Federal minimum standards currently exist that mandate the minimum education and credentialing standards for individuals operating radiation producing equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why are communication and education necessary to establish a positive relationship with the patient and/or other health care providers?
A) verifies consent
B) ensures accurate explanation of the procedure
C) provides an opportunity for questions
D) all of the above
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11
Chapter 10: Infection Control in Radiation Oncology
Facilities
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Q1) Hepatitis B is an example of a virus transmitted as a blood-borne pathogen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nosocomial infections affect:
A) patients
B) health care workers
C) the public
D) a and b
E) all of the above
Q3) All of the following statements describe the use of standard precautions except:
A) Wear gloves when touching blood and body fluids.
B) No hand washing necessary if using gloves.
C) Use mouthpieces when performing CPR.
D) Never recapping used needles.
Q4) The most important way to prevent the spread of infection is:
A) handwashing
B) wearing gloves
C) using a gown
D) using chemical disinfectants
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Chapter 11: Patient Assessment
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Q1) All of these tools measure hope except:
A) The Nowotny Hope Scale
B) The Herth Hope Scale
C) The Miller Hope Scale
D) The Hope Me Not Scale
Q2) Epilation occurs at doses around 2,000 cGy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Quality of life is how long someone has to live.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Leukopenia is a reduction in platelets.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cystitis is a specific side effect of radiation treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Chemotherapy can cause side effects to appear earlier.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Pharmacology and Drug Administration
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Q1) Select the drugs that may be prescribed to relieve anxiety. I.Ativan
II.Valium
III.Librium
IV.Prozac
A) I,II,and IV
B) I,II,and III
C) II,III,and IV
D) I,II,III,and IV
Q2) In which part of the body is barium sulfate is used as a contrast agent?
A) gastrointestinal tract
B) bronchography
C) myelography
D) cardiovascular
Q3) Select potential reasons why a patient may be unable to take oral preparations of a drug.
A) Patient is experiencing nausea and vomiting.
B) Patient has difficulty in swallowing.
C) Patient refuses to swallow medication.
D) all of the above
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Applied Mathematics Review
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Sample Questions
Q1) Convert 8.25 R into the SI unit of exposure.
A) 3.20 x 10<sup>3</sup> C/kg
B) 3.20 x 10<sup>4</sup> C/kg
C) 2.13 x 10<sup>-3</sup> C/kg
D) 2.13 x 10<sup>-4</sup> C/kg
Q2) Solve for x in the equation 4(x + 6)= 6x - 16.
A) 1.6
B) 3.2
C) 4
D) 12
Q3) Find the log of log453.
A) 2.656
B) 6.116
C) -19.08
D) 8.752
Q4) How many significant figures are there in 6,800?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) unable to determine
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Chapter 14: Introduction to Radiation Therapy Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus is known as:
A) atomic weight
B) strong force
C) atomic mass number
D) nuclear stability
Q2) An electron's binding energy is the amount of energy required to remove that electron from the atom and is usually measured in:
A) MeV
B) keV
C) Coulombs
D) kilograms
Q3) The thickness of some added material required to reduce beam intensity to half its original value is called the:
A) half-life
B) inverse square factor
C) half-value layer
D) intensity coefficient
Q4) X-rays are photons produced by the interaction of electrons with any material.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Aspects of Brachytherapy
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Q1) For brachytherapy to the cervix,where is point A located in relation to the cervical os?
A) 2 cm superior and 2 cm lateral
B) 1 cm superior and 2 cm lateral
C) 2 cm inferior and 2 cm lateral
D) 2 cm superior and 1 cm lateral
Q2) What is the average energy of iridium 192?
A) 170 keV
B) 730 keV
C) 450 keV
D) 380 keV
Q3) Of the following,which brachytherapy would be used to treat the breast?
A) intracavitary
B) interstitial
C) topical
D) permanent implant
Q4) Cesium 137 is used for the treatment of prostate cancer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Special Procedures
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Q1) The CyberKnife can treat anywhere in the body because it uses a(n)___________ technique.
A) nonisocentric
B) repetitive
C) real-time
D) isocentric
Q2) Cone beam CT:
A) uses a fan beam
B) has a 3D extended digital array
C) has an area detector with 2D extended digital array
D) has multiple rotational speeds
Q3) TomoTherapy differs from some other volumetric imaging techniques because it:
A) is both a CT and a linear accelerator
B) uses kV and MV imaging
C) delivers customized fields
D) uses the same source for imaging and treating
Q4) Deformable image registration is easier than rigid body registration.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Intensity-Modulated Radiation Therapy
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Q1) Which of the following treatment planning systems or techniques is accomplished by selecting an optimal dose?
A) inverse treatment planning
B) forward treatment planning
C) direct treatment planning
D) indirect treatment planning
Q2) Conformal therapy treatment techniques and segmenting are both attributed to:
A) 3D
B) MLCs
C) wedges and compensators
D) 3D CRT
Q3) The two most common approaches in treatment planning are:
A) IMRT with multileaf collimators (MLCs)
B) forward and inverse planning
C) dose escalation and dose histograms
D) PET scans and beam's-eye view treatment plans
Q4) Intensity-Modulated Radiation Therapy (IMRT)can only be used with multileaf collimators (MLCs).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Radiation Safety and Protection
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Q1) The average annual dose received by the general public from all medical radiation procedures is ____ mSv.
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D) 0.5
Q2) The annual dose equivalent limit to the whole body for educationally exposed individuals is ____ mSv.
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 5
D) 50
Q3) The annual dose equivalent limit to the whole body for frequent nonoccupationally exposed individuals is ____ mSv.
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 5
D) 50
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Chapter 19: Quality Improvement in Radiation Oncology
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Q1) The ASRT have developed practice standards for radiation therapists.They are divided into what three sections?
A) cognitive,affective,and psychomotor standards
B) clinical,quality,and professional performance standards
C) education,professional self-assessment,and ethical behavior standards
D) patient care,treatment delivery,and TQM standards
Q2) TJC QA focuses on performance measurement,which is based on the comparison of processes with:
A) outcomes to quality indicators
B) peer review to data
C) aspects of care to survey results
D) care environment to outcomes
Q3) A QI plan has a(n)_____________ that verifies that all aspects of the radiation oncology process meet national,state,institutional,and/or departmental quality standards and an mechanism to institute change if necessary:
A) audit mechanism
B) oversight committee
C) action plan
D) support staff
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Chapter 20: Surface and Sectional Anatomy
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Q1) There are three pairs of floating ribs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The location of any organ in the abdomen and pelvis can vary with respiration,anatomic position,and level of fullness.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For which of the following are the clavicles useful as an anatomic landmark?
A) outlining the SCF field for treatment of the "lower neck" in head and neck tumors
B) treating the upper chest lymphatics
C) estimating the location of the brachial plexus
D) all of the above
Q4) Sentinel node biopsies can reduce the risk of lymphedema because more lymph nodes are removed,which enhances the flow of lymph through tissues.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Simulator Design
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Q1) To reduce magnification during fluoroscopy,the image intensifier should be:
A) moved as close to the patient as possible
B) moved as far as possible from the patient
C) rotated in the direction of the central ray
D) centered
Q2) One 50-keV photon at the input screen can be converted into
light photons at the output screen.
A) 10,000
B) 20,000
C) 100,000
D) 200,000
Q3) The matrix size is determined by the number of:
A) voxels
B) Hounsfield units
C) detectors on the scanner
D) pixels
Q4) CT numbers are also known as:
A) Hounsfield units
B) Godfrey units
C) attenuation coefficient units
Page 23
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Q1) Foaming agents,such as __________________________,have become widely used as an immobilization device.
A) Vac-Lok
B) thermoplastic molds
C) Alpha Cradles
D) bite blocks
Q2) One of the weakest links in treatment planning is ____________________.
A) patient positioning
B) computer speed
C) the therapist's attitude
D) radiographic documentation
Q3) Optical components of the simulator may include: I.the laser system
II.optical distance indicator (ODI)
III.field light indicator
IV.collimator movements
A) I and II
B) II and IV
C) III and IV
D) I,II,and III
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Chapter 23: Computed Tomography Simulation
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Q1) What is a maximum intensity projection,or MIP?
A) measurement of table translation
B) result of noise on an image
C) relationship between the matrix size and the pixel size on an image
D) fused scan that shows the maximum amount of tumor movement during the respiratory cycle
Q2) Prior to the use of computed tomography (CT)in the simulation process,contouring was performed by use of solder wire or plaster.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first CT system used what type of machine movement to obtain image information?
A) translation
B) helical
C) spiral
D) fixed
Q4) Window level is the range of numbers displayed or the contrast on a CT image.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Photon Dosimetry Concepts and Calculations
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Q1) Calculate the PDD of depth (d)if the dose at Dmax is 180 cGy and the dose at d is 127 cGy.
A) 47%
B) 70.6%
C) 56%
D) 75%
Q2) What is the depth from the PA if the SAD is 100 cm and the SSD is 89 cm?
A) 8 cm
B) 9 cm
C) 10 cm
D) 11 cm
Q3) The intensity of a radiation beam is measured at 10.0 mR/hr at a distance of 20 cm.What will be the intensity of this beam at 30.0 cm?
A) 22.5 mR/hr
B) 4.44 mR/hr
C) 6.67 mR/hr
D) 15.0 mR/hr
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Chapter 25: Photon Dose Distributions
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Q1) Which type of IMRT treatment delivery has the gantry in a fixed position with an initial MLC pattern?
A) "Step-and-shoot"
B) dynamic MLC
C) "tomotherapy"
D) robotic IMRT
Q2) During IMRT treatments,how is the intensity of the beam altered?
A) insertions of a wedge
B) movement of the collimators
C) movement of the MLCs
D) fluctuations in beam energy
Q3) The 3DCRT method uses conventional inverse planning.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Effective SSD and TAR methods of correcting for tissue heterogeneities result in accurate isodose distributions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Electron Beams in Radiation Therapy
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Q1) What is the depth of the 80% isodose line of a 15-MeV electron beam?
A) 3 cm
B) 3.75 cm
C) 5 cm
D) 7.5 cm
Q2) When created using a linear accelerator,electrons strike a target to produce a uniform beam before exiting the machine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A partial bolus should never be used with electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the danger to tissue in front of an internal shield when used with electron beams therapy?
A) photon contamination
B) underdosing
C) electron backscatter
D) infection
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Chapter 27: Electronic Charting,and Image Management
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Q1) ______ is the principal agency that the U.S.government uses to protect the health of all Americans and provide essential human services
A) Department of Health and Human Services
B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
C) Food and Drug Administration
Q2) HIPAA provides guidelines and regulations for:
A) computerizing medical records
B) patients' right and responsibilities
C) standards of care
D) use and disclosure of patient information
Q3) What communication standards are shaped by a joint committee of the National Electronic Manufacturers Association (NEMA)and the American College of Radiology (ACR)?
A) data entry
B) HIPAA
C) DICOM
D) HL7
Q4) Errors and poor documentation are potential sources of harm for patients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Bone,Cartilage and Soft Tissue Sarcomas
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Q1) All of the following are examples of primary bone tumors except:
A) malignant histiocytoma
B) rhabdomyosarcoma
C) osteosarcoma
D) multiple myeloma
Q2) In which anatomical location are metastatic bone lesions most common?
A) spine
B) upper extremity
C) lower extremity
D) trunk
Q3) The incidence of primary bone tumors is low.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Primary treatment for osteogenic sarcoma involves: I.radiation therapy
II.surgery
III.chemotherapy
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I,II,and III
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Chapter 29: Lymphoreticular System Tumors
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Q1) In what general anatomical location is Waldeyer ring located?
A) mouth
B) anus
C) small intestine
D) axilla
Q2) The abdominal para-aortic treatment portal includes what organ(s)?
A) kidneys
B) spleen
C) pancreas
D) liver
Q3) Which treatment field for HD includes the retroperitoneal lymph node chain?
A) mantle
B) inverted-Y (Abdominal portion)
C) inverted-Y (Pelvic portion)
D) all of the above
Q4) A mantle field is used to treat which type of cancer?
A) mycosis fungoides
B) multiple myeloma
C) non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)
D) Hodgkin disease (HD)
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Leukemia
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Q1) TBI can used as part of the treatment of patients with leukemia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Leukemia is the most common pediatric cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which FAB stage are most pediatric ALLs?
A) L1
B) L2
C) L3
D) L4
Q4) Children are most likely to develop which type of leukemia?
A) ALL
B) AML
C) CLL
D) CML
Q5) Patients needing TBI can be treated with either an AP/PA or opposed lateral treatment arrangement.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Endocrine System Tumors
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Q1) Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the pituitary?
A) ADH
B) TSH
C) FSH
D) PTH
Q2) In which gland is luteinizing hormone (LH)produced?
A) pancreas
B) pituitary
C) thyroid
D) adrenal
Q3) Parafollicular cells is another term used to describe the parathyroid glands.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In which gland is epinephrine produced?
A) parathyroid
B) pituitary
C) thyroid
D) adrenal
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Chapter 32: Respiratory System Tumors
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Q1) At what anatomical location does the trachea bifurcate into the right and left main stem bronchi?
A) pleura
B) primary bronchi
C) carina
D) alveoli
Q2) What is the most commonly used diagnostic imaging tool used to detect lung cancers?
A) chest x-ray
B) CT
C) MR
D) PET
Q3) What T stage is a lung cancer measuring 2.5 cm in its greatest dimension?
A) T1
B) T2
C) T3
D) T4
Q4) Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer-related death in women.
A)True
B)False
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Head and Neck Cancers
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29 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which salivary gland do most salivary cancers occur?
A) parotid
B) submandibular
C) sublingual
D) minor
Q2) Most salivary gland cancers are squamous cell carcinomas.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Collectively,head and neck cancers are more common in women than men.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a division of the pharynx?
A) parapharynx
B) nasopharynx
C) oropharynx
D) laryngopharynx
Q5) Chemotherapy is an effective treatment for salivary gland tumors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Central Nervous System Tumors
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metastatic brain lesions are more common in children than are primary brain tumors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS)?
A) spherical tumor
B) 2-cm tumor
C) brain metastases
D) five lesions
Q3) What is the most common CNS tumor in children?
A) medulloblastoma
B) metastatic lesion
C) astrocytoma
D) craniopharyngioma
Q4) Primary brain tumors rarely metastasize.
A)True
B)False
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Digestive System Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the growths that arise from the mucosal lining and protrude into the lumen of the bowel?
A) adenomatous polyps
B) achalasia
C) hematochezia
D) tenesmus
Q2) Pancreatic cancer is highly curable with combined therapies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following cancers has the highest incidence of cancer-related deaths in the United States?
A) esophagus
B) stomach
C) colorectal
D) anal
Q4) The treatment volume for colon cancers typically includes pelvic lymph nodes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Gynecological Tumors
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of cervical cancers are discovered early.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Healthy women who have had a total abdominal hysterectomy still need to have regular Pap testing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Who has the most significant risk of developing ovarian cancer?
A) 35-year-old woman with one child
B) 35-year-old woman with five children
C) 65-year-old woman with one child
D) 65-year-old woman with five children
Q4) What is the most common histologic form of ovarian cancer?
A) squamous cell
B) adenocarcinoma
C) epithelial
D) germ cell
Q5) Cone biopsies are used to detect cancer of the vulva.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Male Reproductive and Genitourinary Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Topical chemotherapy is often used when treating low staged penile cancers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the primary treatment option for kidney cancer?
A) surgery
B) chemotherapy
C) radiation therapy
D) immunotherapy
Q3) The survival data for external beam radiotherapy and brachytherapy are better than surgery for prostate cancer when like groups are compared.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the 5-year survival of all stages of testicular cancer combined?
A) 50%
B) 70%
C) 90%
D) 100%
Q5) Prostate cancer is the most common cancer affecting American men.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Breast Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman's risk of developing breast cancer is 1 in 8.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What stage is a inflammatory breast cancer that has not spread to distant organs but has distant lymph node involvement?
A) stage I
B) stage IIA
C) stage IIIA
D) stage IV
Q3) DCIS is classified as which stage?
A) stage 0
B) stage 1
C) stage 2
D) stage 3
Q4) Breast implants at an early age increase a woman's risk of developing breast cancer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Pediatric Solid Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ewing sarcomas are cancers of which organ?
A) kidney
B) bone
C) skeletal muscle
D) smooth muscle
Q2) To what dose are medulloblastomas traditionally treated?
A) 2600 cGy
B) 3600 cGy
C) 4600 cGy
D) 5600 cGy
E) 6600 cGy
Q3) Which pediatric brain tumor often mimics medulloblastomas?
A) ependymomas
B) low-grade astrocytomas
C) high-grade astrocytomas
D) CNS germ cell tumors
Q4) Retinoblastoma is the most common pediatric cancer,affecting 1100 children annually.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Skin Cancers and Melanoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors contributes to the incidence of skin cancer?
I.geographic location
II.skin type
III.previous skin cancers
IV.gender
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) I,II,and III
D) I,II,III,and IV
Q2) The risk of metastatic involvement increases as the depth of a squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)increases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The incidence of skin cancer has declined over the past two decades.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Smoking is the leading cause of skin cancer.
A)True
B)False
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