Occupational Therapy Test Questions
Course Introduction
Occupational Therapy is a healthcare course focused on enabling individuals to participate in meaningful activities and daily living tasks despite physical, mental, or developmental challenges. The course explores client-centered assessments, intervention planning, and therapeutic techniques aimed at enhancing independence, health, and well-being across the lifespan. Students learn the theory and practical skills necessary to address a wide range of occupational issues, including mobility, self-care, work, and social participation, preparing them for roles in hospitals, schools, community centers, and rehabilitation settings.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy 4th Edition by Michael McKinley Dr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A First Look at Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows an anterior view of a human in the anatomic position.What region does number 1 indicate?
A)Crural
B)Femoral
C)Brachial
D)Sural
E)Tarsal
Answer: A
Q2) The scientific discipline that studies the function of body structures is A)anatomy.
B)physiology. C)astronomy.
D)anthropology.
E)archeology.
Answer: B
Q3) A sagittal plane is a vertical line that divides the body into right and left parts. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Cell: Basic Unit of Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metastasis is
A)the abnormal development of a tissue.
B)the movement or spread of malignant cells.
C)an obvious loss of cellular or structural differentiation in the orientation of cells to each other.
D)a generalized increase in the size of a part of an organ.
E)an increase in the normal number of cells within a tissue or organ.
Answer: B
Q2) All resting nucleated human cells contain A)melanin.
B)chromosomes.
C)chromatin.
D)insulin.
E)glycogen.
Answer: C
Q3) Among the many functions of the liver's cells is the storage of carbohydrates as glycogen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Embryology
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure depicts cleavage.Number 2 indicates a pre-embryo in the _________ stage of development.
A)2-cell
B)4-cell
C)8-cell
D)morula
E)blastocyst
Answer: E
Q2) The embryonic period occurs during the
A)first three weeks of development.
B)third through the eighth week of development.
C)eighth through the twenty-fourth week of development.
D)last eight weeks of development.
E)full term of pregnancy.
Answer: B
Q3) Reduction division occurs during A)mitosis.
B)meiosis.
C)both mitosis and meiosis.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Tissue Level of Organization
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Q1) What unit of bone consists of a central canal (containing blood vessels,nerves,and lymph vessels)surrounded by concentric rings of calcified matrix?
A)Canaliculus
B)Lamella
C)Osteon
D)Osteocyte
E)Trabeculum
Q2) With age,connective tissues
A)become more flexible.
B)become thinner.
C)lose their blood supply.
D)lose their pliability and resiliency.
E)increase in mass.
Q3) The two types of cells that make up the nervous system are
A)macrophages and mast cells.
B)neurons and chondrocytes.
C)mast cells and fibrocytes.
D)neurons and mast cells.
E)neurons and glial cells.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Integumentary System
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Q1) The epidermal dendritic cells are able to play an important immune response role by their phagocytic activity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Generally,people have ________ number of melanocytes ______________.
A)about the same;no matter where they live
B)a highly variable;irrespective of where they live
C)a lower;if they live in colder climates of the northern hemisphere
D)a higher;if they live in the warmer climates near the equator
E)a higher;if they live in the southern hemisphere
Q3) The epidermal ridges and dermal ________ increase the area of contact between the epidermis and dermis to help connect these layers.
Q4) The stratum basale attaches to an underlying _______ membrane that separates the epidermis from the adjacent dermis.
Q5) ________ glands are modified sweat glands located only in the external ear canal.
Q6) The cells that contract and squeeze sweat glands causing them to discharge their accumulated secretions are called __________ cells.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cartilage and Bone
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure illustrates the cell types found in bone.Which type of cell secretes osteoid?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) Each of the depressions on the maxillae and mandible that holds a tooth is called a(n)
A)fossa.
B)sulcus.
C)sinus.
D)alveolus.
E)foramen.
Q3) Once we reach adulthood and our bones are fully formed and hardened,they cannot be remodeled.
A)True B)False
Q4) The shaft of a long bone is called the diaphysis;the ends are called the _________.
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Chapter 7: Axial Skeleton
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Q1) Of the four largest types of sutures in the skull,which are paired?
A)Lambdoid and sagittal
B)Lambdoid and squamous
C)Squamous only
D)Lambdoid only
E)Coronal and squamous
Q2) The _________ process of the mandible articulates with the temporal bone.
A)alveolar
B)condylar
C)mastoid
D)temporal
E)coronoid
Q3) Which of these skull bones cannot be palpated?
A)Frontal
B)Temporal
C)Occipital
D)Parietal
E)Ethmoid
Q4) The auditory ossicles are the malleus,the incus,and the _________.
Q5) The roof of the cranium is called the _________,or skullcap.
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Chapter 8: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows the scapula.The feature indicated by number 9 is the
A)subscapular fossa.
B)glenoid cavity.
C)supraspinous fossa.
D)glenoid fossa.
E)infraspinous fossa.
Q2) The ___________ neck of the humerus marks the position of the former epiphyseal plate.
Q3) This figure shows the femur.Which number indicates the gluteal tuberosity?
A)2
B)7
C)8
D)9
E)10
Q4) The radius and ulna exhibit ______________ borders that are connected to each other by dense regular connective tissue.
Q5) The flattened triangular area on the distal posterior surface of the femur is called the __________ surface.
Q6) The longest,heaviest bone in the body is the ____________.
Q7) The palm of the hand is formed by the _________ bones.
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which joints are responsible for flexion and extension at the elbow?
A)Glenohumeral and humeroulnar
B)Humeroulnar and humeroradial
C)Humeroulnar,humeroradial,and radioulnar
D)Humeroradial,radioulnar,and radiocarpal
E)Humeroradial and radioulnar
Q2) Movement of a body part toward the main axis of the body is called A)abduction.
B)flexion.
C)inversion.
D)retraction.
E)adduction.
Q3) An articular capsule is present in A)fibrous joints.
B)fibrous joints and cartilaginous joints.
C)synovial joints.
D)fibrous joints and synovial joints.
E)all joints.
Q4) In an older adult,the tissue in a suture may become completely ossified,fusing the skull bones together.This type of suture is called a _____________.
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue and Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the ______________.
Q2) Which letter is associated with the line that is a thin protein structure in the center of a band and serves as an attachment site for thin filament ends?
A)I
B)A
C)Z
D)M
E)H
Q3) The resistance to fatigue of fast fibers is ______ when compared to that of slow or intermediate fibers.
A)low
B)high
C)identical
Q4) The majority of skeletal muscle fibers in the body are _____ fibers.
A)slow
B)fast
C)intermediate
Q5) The functional contractile unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is called a _______________.
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Chapter 11: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows the muscles that move the tongue.What muscle does number 1 indicate?
A)Palatoglossus
B)Styloglossus
C)Stylohyoid
D)Hyoglossus
E)Genioglossus
Q2) The most medial of the abdominal muscles are the _________ muscles.
A)rectus abdominis
B)transversus abdominis
C)internal oblique
D)external oblique
E)tendinous intersections
Q3) This figure shows the muscles of respiration.What muscle does number 2 indicate?
A)External intercostal
B)Internal intercostal
C)Scalene
D)Diaphragm
E)Transversus thoracis
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Chapter 12: Appendicular Muscles
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Q1) These figures show the intrinsic muscles of the right foot.What muscle or group does number 1 indicate?
A)Flexor digitorum brevis
B)Abductor digiti minimi
C)Abductor hallucis
D)Lumbricals
E)Interossei
Q2) Which muscle does not adduct the thigh?
A)Adductor longus
B)Adductor brevis
C)Gracilis
D)Pectineus
E)Tensor fasciae latae
Q3) This figure shows superficial and deep arm muscles.What muscle does number 2 indicate?
A)Biceps brachii
B)Brachialis
C)Coracobrachialis
D)Brachioradialis
E)Triceps brachii
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Chapter 13: Surface Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The common name for the MP joints is "knuckles."
A)True
B)False
Q2) To examine by ______________ means to tap firmly on a specific body site to detect resonating vibrations.
Q3) The anterior triangle of the neck is subdivided into ______ (number)smaller triangles.
Q4) Inguinal hernias are associated with a weakness in the A)linea alba.
B)umbilicus.
C)pubic tubercle.
D)superficial inguinal ring.
E)axillary border.
Q5) In the center of the occipital region is the A)superficial temporal artery.
B)superior palpebral fissure.
C)mentum.
D)sternal notch.
E)external occipital protuberance.
Q6) Inferior to the medial malleolus is the _______ _______ arch of the foot.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the answer that correctly lists,in chronological order,the events involved in synaptic transmission.
A: A nerve impulse reaches the synaptic knob
B: Neurotransmitter molecules diffuse across the synaptic cleft
C: A nerve impulse begins in the postsynaptic cell
D: Neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors in the postsynaptic cell
E: A voltage change occurs in the postsynaptic cell
A)a,c,b,d,e
B)a,b,e,d,c
C)c,b,d,e,a
D)a,b,d,e,c
E)c,a,b,d,e
Q2) A secondary tumor is one that originates in one site but subsequently spreads to another site.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As the distance between a damaged axon and its receptor organ increases,the possibility of repair increases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient visits her doctor and explains that since being hit on the cheek with a hockey puck she has been suffering from dry eyes and a dry mouth.It's apparent to the doctor that,since both lacrimal secretion and salivary secretion are affected,there may be damage to the ____________ nerve.
A)trigeminal
B)hypoglossal
C)glossopharyngeal
D)abducens
E)facial
Q2) Excess CSF is removed from the subarachnoid space by
A)the median aperture.
B)microglia.
C)astrocytes.
D)arachnoid villi.
E)the choroid plexus.
Q3) The superior cerebellar peduncles connect the pons to the cerebellum.
A)True
B)False
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17
Chapter 16: Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct order for the events that occur during a reflex?
A: Impulse travels through sensory neuron to the CNS
B: A stimulus activates a receptor
C: Information is processed by interneurons
D: Motor neuron transmits impulse to effector
E: Effector responds
A)a,b,c,d,e
B)b,a,c,d,e
C)c,b,a,e,d
D)c,a,b,d,e
E)b,d,c,a,e
Q2) The spinal cord allows for two-way communication between the brain and body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The plexuses that lie on either side of the neck are the _____ plexuses.
A)cervical
B)coccygeal
C)lumbar
D)radial
E)mandibular
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Chapter 17: Pathways and Integrative Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A brain lesion in the __________ may cause personality abnormalities.
A)occipital lobe
B)frontal lobe
C)temporal lobe
D)insula
E)parietal lobe
Q2) Motor pathways are formed from a series of connections.Which is not part of the series?
A)Cerebellum
B)Cerebral nuclei
C)Hypothalamus
D)Descending projection tracts
E)Motor neurons
Q3) This figure shows regions of the brain that participate in the control of somatic motor activities.What feature does number 4 indicate?
A)Primary motor cortex
B)Motor association areas
C)Pontine nuclei of the indirect system
D)Pyramidal system
E)Lower motor neurons
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Chapter 18: Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) The abdominal _______ plexus consists of the celiac plexus,superior mesenteric plexus,and inferior mesenteric plexus.
Q2) The preganglionic sympathetic neuron cell bodies are housed in the
A)anterior columns of the spinal cord.
B)posterior columns of the spinal cord.
C)sympathetic trunk.
D)lateral horns of the T1-L2 segments of the spinal cord.
E)paravertebral ganglia.
Q3) "Rest and digest," as well as the maintenance of homeostasis,is associated with the action of the _________ division of the ANS.
Q4) The superior mesenteric ganglion receives preganglionic sympathetic neurons from the _______ segments of the spinal cord.
A)T1-T4
B)T2-T6
C)T5-T9
D)T7-T9
E)T10-T12
Q5) Neuronal __________ occurs when axons from numerous preganglionic cells synapse on a single ganglionic cell.
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Chapter 19: Senses: General and Special
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Q1) In this diagram of a taste bud,what structure does number 4 indicate?
A)Gustatory microvillus
B)Basal cell
C)Supporting cell
D)Sensory nerve
E)Taste pore
Q2) Where would you find olfactory hairs?
A)Scattered among the lamina propria
B)At the apical surface of olfactory neurons
C)Buried within the olfactory glands
D)At the surface of supporting cells
E)Concentrated along basal cells
Q3) What is the function of the auditory tube?
A)To transmit sound waves to the inner ear
B)To equalize air pressure between the atmosphere and the middle ear
C)To prevent the invasion of microorganisms into the inner ear
D)To provide a passageway for fluid from the middle to the inner ear
E)To provide an airway between the middle and inner ear
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Chapter 20: Endocrine System
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Q1) Where are the target cells for antidiuretic hormone?
A)Adrenal cortex and thyroid gland
B)Kidney tubules and smooth muscle of arteriole walls
C)Ovaries and testes
D)Smooth muscle of urinary bladder
E)Smooth muscle of male reproductive tract
Q2) The disease called ___________ is caused by excessive secretion of glucocorticoids,and is characterized by redistribution of body fat to produce the features known as "moon face" and "buffalo hump".
A)Cushing syndrome
B)Addison disease
C)androgenital syndrome
D)pheochromocytoma
E)Graves disease
Q3) What is the function of the mineralocorticoids secreted by the adrenal gland?
A)Regulate glucose levels in the blood
B)Act as secondary sex hormones
C)Stimulate metabolism of lipids
D)Regulate electrolyte concentration in body fluids
E)Stimulate metabolism of proteins
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Chapter 21: Blood
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Q1) The GM-CSF growth factor accelerates the formation of all granulocytes and monocytes from their progenitor cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which most closely approximates the percentage of water in plasma by weight?
A)1%
B)25%
C)46%
D)92%
E)98%
Q3) The life span of an erythrocyte is about _________ days.
A)10
B)30
C)60
D)120
E)360
Q4) Movement of leukocytes between the endothelial blood vessel cells into the body tissues is called _____________.
Q5) Aged erythrocytes are phagocytized in the liver and spleen by cells called
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Chapter 22: Heart
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Q1) Cardiac muscle fibers
A)contract as a single unit.
B)are only loosely connected by the intercalated discs.
C)have a low oxygen need.
D)utilize hemoglobin as an energy source.
Q2) Though the autonomic innervation by autonomic centers in the brainstem cannot initiate a heartbeat,it can increase or decrease the heart rate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The inferior chambers of the heart are the A)atria.
B)auricles.
C)ventricles.
D)sulci. E)gyri.
Q4) No matter the cause,hypertrophy of the heart causes it to work less efficiently. A)True
B)False
Q5) ________________ innervation increases the rate and the force of heart contraction.
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Chapter 23: Vessels and Circulation
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Q1) The left renal vein,right renal vein,right suprarenal vein,and right gonadal vein merge directly into the
A)superior vena cava.
B)great saphenous vein.
C)inferior vena cava.
D)common iliac vein.
E)obturator vein.
Q2) In general,as an artery's diameter decreases,there is a(n)
A)decrease in the amount of smooth muscle and an increase in the number of elastic fibers.
B)increase in the amount of smooth muscle and a decrease in the number of elastic fibers.
C)increase in both smooth muscle and elastic fibers.
D)decrease in both smooth muscle and elastic fibers.
E)no change in the amount of smooth muscle or elastic fibers.
Q3) The lungs are special in that they receive some of their oxygen via diffusion directly from the atmospheric air through the _____________ of the lungs.
Q4) During development,the _____________ system forms most of the veins of the head,neck,and body wall.
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Chapter 24: Lymphatic System
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Q1) With respect to the lymphatic system,what do the letters in the acronym MALT stand for?
A)Membrane-adhering lymphatic T-cells
B)Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue
C)Multiple-antigen lymphocyte target
D)Multiple-antibody lymphocyte test
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) This figure shows a lymph node and its components.What is the enlarged region indicated by number 1?
A)Lymphatic nodule
B)Lymphatic corpuscle
C)Cortical sinus
D)Medullary cord
E)Medullary sinus
Q3) Of the lymphatic trunks,which ones drain lymph from deep thoracic structures?
A)Jugular trunks
B)Subclavian trunks
C)Bronchomediastinal trunks
D)Intestinal trunks
E)Lumbar trunks
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Chapter 25: Respiratory System
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Q1) What is the primary site for conditioning inhaled air?
A)Paranasal sinuses
B)Nasal cavity
C)Pharynx
D)Larynx
E)Trachea
Q2) By following Boyle's law,air flows from a region of lower pressure (the atmosphere)into a region of higher pressure within the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What structures actually produce sound?
A)Vestibular folds
B)Paranasal sinuses
C)Arytenoid cartilages
D)Vestibular ligaments
E)Vocal folds
Q4) Cystic fibrosis is a transmittable disease of the lungs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Digestive System
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Q1) The sinusoids of the liver are lined by phagocytic Kupffer cells,also called ___________ cells.
Q2) Which peritoneal fold supports the large intestine?
A)Greater omentum
B)Lesser omentum
C)Falciform ligament
D)Mesocolon
E)Peritoneal ligament
Q3) This figure shows the stomach.What structure does number 3 indicate?
A)Esophagus
B)Ilium
C)Duodenum
D)Jejunum
E)Descending colon
Q4) A lymphatic capillary within a villus of the small intestine is called a ____________.
Q5) The teniae coli of the large intestine pull the large intestine into many sacs,collectively called _____________.
Q6) The process of swallowing is also called _____________.
28
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Chapter 27: Urinary System
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Q1) Which step(s)in the process of urine formation occur in the renal tubule?
A)Filtration
B)Secretion
C)Reabsorption
D)Filtration,secretion,and reabsorption
E)Secretion and reabsorption
Q2) Urine formed in the pyramids must flow within the kidney to the ureter.Which structure is not part of the transport path within the kidney that carries urine to the ureter?
A)Renal sinus
B)Major calyx
C)Renal pelvis
D)Minor calyx
E)No exceptions;all choices transport urine.
Q3) This figure shows a renal corpuscle.What type of cell does number 2 indicate?
A)Podocyte
B)Pedicel
C)Cuboidal epithelial cell
D)Squamous epithelial cell
E)Columnar epithelial cell
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System
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Q1) What is the correct order for the phases of the uterine cycle,beginning with day 1?
A)Menstrual - proliferative - secretory
B)Proliferative - secretory - menstrual
C)Secretory - proliferative - menstrual
D)Menstrual - secretory - proliferative
E)Proliferative - menstrual - secretory
Q2) What prevents the simultaneous passage of sperm and urine through the male urethra?
A)External urethral sphincter
B)Bulbourethral gland
C)Internal urethral sphincter
D)Perineal raphe
E)Prepuce
Q3) The ______________ is a comma-shaped structure that lies on the surface of the testis,and includes a head,body,and tail.
Q4) Normally,the uterus is angled anterosuperiorly within the body,a position referred to as _________________.
Q5) Before birth,the uterus contains primary germ cells called ________________.
Q6) The _______________ cells support,nourish,and protect developing sperm cells.
Page 30
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