Obstetric Nursing
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Obstetric Nursing focuses on the specialized care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as the care of newborns. The course covers the physiological and psychological changes that occur throughout the childbearing process, prenatal assessment, labor and delivery management, postpartum care, and common complications affecting mothers and infants. Emphasis is placed on promoting maternal and fetal health, patient education, cultural competence, and the development of clinical skills essential for safe and effective obstetric nursing practice. The course also explores legal and ethical considerations, family dynamics, and the integration of evidence-based practice in perinatal care.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse educator is teaching a group of nursing students about the history of family-centered maternity care. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A)The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 promoted family-centered care.
B)Changes in pharmacologic management of labor prompted family-centered care.
C)Demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth increased the practice of family-centered care.
D)Parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery initiated the practice of family-centered care.
Answer: D
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse identify as a priority for a patient in active labor?
A) Risk for anxiety related to upcoming birth
B) Risk for imbalanced nutrition related to NPO status
C) Risk for altered family processes related to new addition to the family
D) Risk for injury (maternal) related to altered sensations and positional or physical changes
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which actions by the nurse indicate compliance with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)? (Select all that apply.)
A) The nurse posts an update about a patient on Facebook.
B) The nurse gives the report to the oncoming nurse in a private area.
C) The nurse gives information about the patient's status over the phone to the patient's friend.
D) The nurse logs off any computer screen showing patient data before leaving the computer unattended.
E) The nurse puts any documentation with the patient's information in the shred bin at the hospital before leaving for the day.
Answer: B, D, E
Q2) Which step of the nursing process is being used when the nurse decides whether an ethical dilemma exists?
A) Analysis
B) Planning
C) Evaluation
D) Assessment
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The middle school nurse is reviewing the phases of the endometrial cycle with a group of female students. Which statement by a student will the nurse need to correct?
A) "The proliferative phase occurs when the ovum is maturing."
B) "The expulsion phase occurs when the ovum is discharged from the ovary."
C) "The secretory phase occurs during the second half of the menstrual cycle."
D) "The menstrual phase occurs after the levels of estrogen and progesterone fall."
Answer: B
Q2) A patient states, "My breasts are so small. I don't think I will be able to breastfeed my baby." Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "It may be difficult but you should try anyway."
B) "You can always supplement with formula."
C) "All women have about the same amount of glandular tissue necessary to secrete milk."
D) "The ability to produce breast milk depends on increased levels of estrogen and progesterone."
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) While obtaining a genetic history from a female patient, you note that there is a family history of a genetic disease on the maternal side; however, no evidence of symptomatology in the patient or the patient's children, two girls. Which observation can you make related to genetic expression?
A) Autosomal dominant expression is observed.
B) X-linked dominant trait is observed.
C) More information is needed to determine the answer.
D) Autosomal recessive expression is observed and both the children will be carriers of the disease process.
Q2) The parents of a child with a karyotype of 47,XY,+21 ask the nurse what this means. Which is the most accurate response by the nurse?
A) This karyotype is for a normal male.
B) This karyotype is for a normal female.
C) This karyotype is for a male with Down syndrome.
D) This karyotype is for a female with Turner's syndrome.
Q3) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%
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Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) An expectant mother, diagnosed with oligohydramnios, asks the nurse what this condition means for the baby. Which statement should the nurse provide for the patient?
A) Oligohydramnios can cause poor fetal lung development.
B) Oligohydramnios means that the fetus is excreting excessive urine.
C) Oligohydramnios could mean that the fetus has a gastrointestinal blockage.
D) Oligohydramnios is associated with fetal central nervous system abnormalities.
Q2) The nurse is conducting a staff in-service on multifetal pregnancy. Which statement regarding dizygotic twin development should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A) Dizygotic twins arise from two fertilized ova and are the same sex.
B) Dizygotic twins arise from a single fertilized ovum and are always of the same sex.
C) Dizygotic twins arise from two fertilized ova and may be the same sex or different sexes.
D) Dizygotic twins arise from a single fertilized ovum and may be the same sex or different sexes.
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Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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32 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An expectant patient in her third trimester reports that she developed a strong tie to her baby from the beginning and now is really in tune to her baby's temperament. The nurse interprets this as the development of which maternal task of pregnancy?
A) Learning to give of herself
B) Developing attachment with the baby
C) Securing acceptance of the baby by others
D) Seeking safe passage for herself and her baby
Q2) Physiologic anemia often occurs during pregnancy due to A) inadequate intake of iron.
B) the fetus establishing iron stores.
C) dilution of hemoglobin concentration.
D) decreased production of erythrocytes.
Q3) Which findings are presumptive signs of pregnancy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Quickening
B) Amenorrhea
C) Ballottement
D) Goodell's sign
E) Chadwick's sign
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8
Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The labor nurse is reviewing breathing techniques with a primiparous patient admitted for induction of labor. When is the best time to encourage the laboring patient to use slow, deep chest breathing with contractions?
A) During labor, when she can no longer talk through contractions
B) During the first stage of labor, when the contractions are 3 to 4 minutes apart
C) Between contractions, during the transitional phase of the first stage of labor
D) Between her efforts to push to facilitate relaxation between contractions
Q2) The prenatal nurse educator is teaching couples the technique of applying sacral pressure during labor. Which should be included in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) The technique can be combined with heat to the area.
B) A jiggling motion should be used while applying the pressure.
C) Tennis balls may be used to apply the pressure to the sacral area.
D) The pressure against the sacrum should be intermittent during the contraction.
E) The hand may be moved slowly or remain positioned directly over the sacrum.
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Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is meeting with a patient with an elevated BMI regarding an optimal diet for pregnancy. Which major source of nutrients should be a significant component of this patient's diet?
A) Fats
B) Fiber
C) Simple sugars
D) Complex carbohydrates
Q2) A pregnant patient arrives for her first prenatal visit at the clinic. She informs the nurse that she has been taking an additional 400 mcg of folic acid prior to becoming pregnant. Based on the patient's history, she has reached 8 weeks' gestation. Which recommendation would the nurse provide regarding folic acid supplementation?
A) Have the patient continue to take 400 mcg folic acid throughout her pregnancy.
B) Tell the patient that she no longer has to take additional folic acid because it will be included in her prenatal vitamins.
C) Have the patient increase her folic acid intake to 1000 mcg throughout the rest of her pregnancy.
D) Schedule the patient to go for an AFP (alpha-fetoprotein) test.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman is scheduled to undergo chorionic villus sampling (CVS) based on genetic family history. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be administered?
A) Magnesium sulfate
B) Prostaglandin suppository
C) RhoGAM if the patient is Rh-negative
D) Betamethasone
Q2) What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a patient hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Determine if a metabolic disorder exists.
B) Identify the sex of the fetus.
C) Identify abnormal fetal cells.
D) Determine fetal lung maturity.
Q3) The nurse's role in diagnostic testing is to provide which of the following?
A) Advice to the couple
B) Information about the tests
C) Reassurance about fetal safety
D) Assistance with decision making
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Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rate of obesity in the United States has reached epidemic proportions. Morbidity and mortality for both the mother and baby are increased in these circumstances. The nurse caring for the patient with an elevated BMI should be cognizant of these potential complications and plan care accordingly. Significant risks include (Select all that apply.)
A) Breech presentation
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Birth defects
D) Venous thromboembolism
E) Postpartum anemia
Q2) The labor and birth nurse is reviewing the risk factors for placenta previa with a group of nursing students. The nurse determines that the students understood the discussion when they identify which patient being at the highest risk for developing a placenta previa?
A) Female fetus, Mexican-American, primigravida
B) Male fetus, Asian-American, previous preterm birth
C) Male fetus, African-American, previous cesarean birth
D) Female fetus, European-American, previous spontaneous abortion
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which complication of adolescent pregnancy should the nurse plan to monitor?
A) Anemia
B) Placenta previa
C) Abruptio placenta
D) Incompetent cervix
Q2) Which congenital defects in a newborn are associated with long-term parenting problems? (Select all that apply.)
A) Polydactyl
B) Cleft lip and palate
C) Ventral septal defect
D) Ambiguous genitalia
Q3) Which action is the most appropriate nursing measure when a baby has an unexpected defect at birth?
A) Remove the baby from the delivery area immediately.
B) Inform the parents immediately that something is wrong.
C) Tell the parents that the baby has to go to the nursery immediately.
D) Explain the defect and show the baby to the parents as soon as possible.
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13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a notation on the patient's health record states that the fetal position is LSP, this indicates that the
A) head is in the right posterior quadrant of the pelvis.
B) head is in the left anterior quadrant of the pelvis.
C) buttocks are in the left posterior quadrant of the pelvis.
D) buttocks are in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.
Q2) After birth of the placenta the patient states, "All of a sudden I feel very cold." What is the most appropriate nursing action at this time?
A) Place a warm blanket over the patient.
B) Place the baby on the patient's abdomen.
C) Tell the patient that chills are expected after birth.
D) "What do you mean by your words 'very cold'?"
Q3) The laboring patient asks the nurse how the labor contractions cause the cervix to dilate. The nurse responds that labor contractions facilitate cervical dilation by A) promoting blood flow to the cervix.
B) contracting the lower uterine segment.
C) enlarging the internal size of the uterus.
D) pulling the cervix over the fetus and amniotic sac.
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Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true with regard to the type of pain associated with childbirth experience?
A) Pain is constant throughout the labor experience.
B) Labor pain during childbirth is considered to be an abnormal response.
C) Pain associated with childbirth is self-limiting.
D) Pain associated with childbirth does not allow for adequate preparation.
Q2) A patient in active labor requests an epidural for pain management. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention at this juncture?
A) Assess the fetal heart rate pattern over the next 30 minutes.
B) Take the patient's blood pressure every 5 minutes for 15 minutes.
C) Determine the patient's contraction pattern for the next 30 minutes.
D) Initiate an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's solution at 2000 mL/hour over 30 minutes.
Q3) The health care provider's prescription reads diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 25 mg IV stat. The medication vial reads diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 50 mg/mL. The nurse should prepare how many milliliters to administer the correct dose? Record your answer to one decimal point. _____ mL
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing supplies for an amnioinfusion on a patient with intact membranes. Which supplies should the nurse gather? (Select all that apply.)
A) Extra underpads
B) Solution of 3% normal saline
C) Amniotic hook to perform an amniotomy
D) Solid intrauterine pressure catheter with a pressure transducer on its tip
Q2) The nurse admits a laboring patient at term. On review of the prenatal record, the patient's pregnancy has been unremarkable and she is considered low risk. In planning the patient's care, at what interval will the nurse intermittently auscultate (IA) the fetal heart rate during the first stage of labor?
A) Every 10 minutes
B) Every 15 minutes
C) Every 30 minutes
D) Every 60 minutes
Q3) What is the most likely cause for this fetal heart rate pattern?
A) Administration of an epidural for pain relief during labor
B) Cord compression
C) Breech position of fetus
D) Administration of meperidine (Demerol) for pain relief during labor
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient at term should proceed to the hospital or birth center the immediately after labor begins?
A) Gravida 2, para 1, who lives 10 minutes away
B) Gravida 1, para 0, who lives 40 minutes away
C) Gravida 2, para 1, whose first labor lasted 16 hours
D) Gravida 3, para 2, whose longest previous labor was 4 hours
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient in the fourth stage of labor. Which assessment findings should the nurse identify as a potential complication? (Select all that apply.)
A) Soft boggy uterus
B) Maternal temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
C) High uterine fundus displaced to the right
D) Intense vaginal pain unrelieved by analgesics
E) Half of a lochia pad saturated in the first hour after birth
Q3) A nursing priority during admission of a laboring patient who has not had prenatal care is
A) obtaining admission labs.
B) identifying labor risk factors.
C) discussing her birth plan choices.
D) explaining importance of prenatal care.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which technique is least effective for the patient with persistent occiput posterior position?
A) Squatting
B) Lying supine and relaxing
C) Sitting or kneeling, leaning forward with support
D) Rocking the pelvis back and forth while on hands and knees
Q2) Which presentation is least likely to occur with a hypotonic labor pattern?
A) Prolonged labor duration
B) Fetal distress
C) Maternal comfort during labor
D) Irregular labor contraction pattern
Q3) Which patient is most at risk for a uterine rupture?
A) A gravida 4 who had a classic cesarean incision
B) A gravida 5 who had two vaginal births and one cesarean birth
C) A gravida 3 who has had two low-segment transverse cesarean births
D) A gravida 2 who had a low-segment vertical incision for birth of a 10-lb infant
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18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following behaviors would be applicable to a nursing diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Parenting?
A) En face behavior is observed between father and infant.
B) Mother relates that she feels exhilarated postbirth.
C) Mother states that she feels excessive fatigue as a result of the childbirth experience.
D) Father displays finger tipping behavior toward infant.
Q2) A postpartum patient calls the clinic and reports to the nurse feelings of fatigue, tearfulness, and anxiety. What is the nurse's most appropriate response at this time?
A) "When did these symptoms begin?"
B) "Sounds like normal postpartum depression."
C) "Are you having trouble getting enough sleep?"
D) "Are you able to get out of bed and provide care for your baby?"
Q3) Which anticipatory guidance action by the nurse makes role transition to parenthood easier?
A) Helps the new parents identify resources.
B) Recommends employing babysitters frequently.
C) Tells the parents about the realities of parenthood.
D) Offers a home phone number and tells parents to call if they have a question.
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes that the fundus of a postpartum patient is boggy, shifted to the left of the midline, and 2 cm above the umbilicus. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Massage the fundus of the uterus.
B) Assist the patient out of bed to void.
C) Increase the infusion of oxytocin (Pitocin).
D) Ask another nurse to bring in a straight catheter tray.
Q2) Nursing measures that help prevent postpartum urinary tract infection include
A) forcing fluids to at least 3000 mL/day.
B) promoting bed rest for 12 hours after birth.
C) encouraging the intake of grapefruit juice and carbonated beverages.
D) discouraging voiding until the sensation of a full bladder is present.
Q3) The nurse observes the patient as she ambulates to the bathroom. Which clinical finding might indicate development of a DVT (deep vein thrombosis)?
A) Slow gait
B) Shuffling gait
C) Stiffness of right leg
D) Leans on husband for support
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn is admitted to the special care nursery with hypothermia. Which complication should the nurse monitor for closely?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels
Q2) A nursing student is helping the mother-baby nurse with morning vital signs. A baby born 10 hours ago via cesarean birth is found to have moist lung sounds. Which is the best interpretation of this information?
A) This is an emergency situation.
B) The neonate must have aspirated surfactant.
C) If this baby was born vaginally, it could indicate a pneumothorax.
D) The lungs of a baby delivered by cesarean birth may sound moist for 24 hours after birth.
Q3) How can nurses prevent evaporative heat loss in the newborn?
A) Placing the baby away from the outside wall and the windows
B) Keeping the baby out of drafts and away from air conditioners
C) Drying the baby after birth and wrapping the baby in a dry blanket
D) Warming the stethoscope and nurse's hands before touching the baby
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new patient asks, "Why are you doing a gestational age assessment on my baby?"
The nurse's best response is
A) "It was ordered by your physician."
B) "This must be done to meet insurance requirements."
C) "It helps us identify infants who are at risk for any problems."
D) "The gestational age determines how long the infant will be hospitalized."
Q2) The nurse is assessing a newborn delivered 24 hours ago for jaundice. What is the best way to evaluate for this finding?
A) Depress the tip of the nose.
B) Stroke the outer aspect of the foot.
C) Place a finger in the palm of the hand.
D) Rotate the hips in an upward and outward direction.
Q3) The nurse is conducting a body system assessment of the newborn. Which are abnormal findings that the nurse should report? (Select all that apply.)
A) Low-set ears
B) Yellow sclera
C) A doll's eye sign
D) Edema of the eyelids
E) Absence of the grasp reflex
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which intervention will be most helpful to parents in identifying problems with an infant car seat?
A) Questioning the parents about the instructions
B) Providing the parents with current laws on infant and child safety
C) Asking the parents to demonstrate how to secure the infant in the car seat
D) Allowing the parents to ask questions and express feelings about infant restraint
Q2) In providing and teaching cord care, which guidance is most appropriate?
A) Cord care is done only to control bleeding.
B) Alcohol is the only agent used for cord care.
C) It takes a minimum of 24 days for the cord to separate.
D) Keeping the cord dry will decrease bacterial growth.
Q3) An infant who eats very rapidly may experience problems with swallowing excessive air. What should the mother be instructed to do?
A) Use a nipple with a smaller hole.
B) Place the infant on the abdomen after feeding.
C) Provide the infant with water between feedings.
D) Begin the feeding before the infant becomes too hungry.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother is breastfeeding her newborn son and is experiencing signs of her breasts feeling tender and full in between infant feedings. She asks if there are any suggestions that you can provide to help alleviate this physical complaint. The ideal nursing response would be to
A) tell the patient to wear a bra at all times to provide more support to breast tissue.
B) have the patient put the infant to her breast more frequently.
C) place ice packs on breast tissue after infant feeding.
D) explain that this is a normal finding and will resolve as her breast tissue becomes more used to nursing.
Q2) Which is an important consideration regarding the storage of breast milk?
A) Can be thawed and refrozen
B) Can be frozen for up to 6 months
C) Should be stored only in glass bottles
D) Can be kept refrigerated for 72 hours
Q3) What is the most serious consequence of propping an infant's bottle?
A) Colic
B) Aspiration
C) Dental caries
D) Ear infections
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Page 24
Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational
Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) In caring for the post-term infant, thermoregulation can be a concern, especially in an infant who also has a(n)
A) hematocrit level of 58%.
B) RBC count of 5 million/mcL.
C) WBC count of 15,000 cells/mmS1U1P13S1S1P0.
D) blood glucose level of 25 mg/dL.
Q2) In comparison with the term infant, the preterm infant has
A) more subcutaneous fat.
B) well-developed flexor muscles.
C) few blood vessels visible through the skin.
D) greater surface area in proportion to weight.
Q3) Decreased surfactant production in the preterm lung is a problem because
A) surfactant keeps the alveoli open during expiration.
B) surfactant causes increased permeability of the alveoli.
C) surfactant dilates the bronchioles, decreasing airway resistance.
D) surfactant provides transportation for oxygen to enter the blood supply.
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Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diagnostic test is used to help confirmation of hyperbilirubinemia in an infant?
A) Direct Coombs test based on maternal blood sample
B) Indirect Coombs test based on infant cord blood sample
C) Infant bilirubin level
D) Maternal blood type
Q2) The nurse should be alert to a blood group incompatibility if
A) both mother and infant are O-positive.
B) mother is A-positive and infant is A-negative.
C) mother is O-positive and infant is B-negative.
D) mother is B-positive and infant is O-negative.
Q3) The nurse is responsible for monitoring the feedings of the infant with hyperbilirubinemia every 2 to 3 hours around the clock. If breastfeeding must be supplemented, formula should be used instead of water. The purpose of this plan is to A) prevent hyperglycemia.
B) provide fluids and protein.
C) decrease gastrointestinal motility.
D) prevent rapid emptying of the bilirubin from the bowel.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient is a safe candidate for the use of oral contraceptives?
A) 39-year-old with a history of thrombophlebitis.
B) 16-year-old with a benign liver tumor.
C) 20-year-old who suspects she may be pregnant.
D) 43-year-old who does not smoke cigarettes.
Q2) The method of contraception that is considered the safest for women is a(n)
A) IUD.
B) diaphragm.
C) male condom.
D) oral contraceptive.
Q3) When using the basal body temperature method of family planning, the woman should understand that
A) she will remain fertile for 5 days after ovulation.
B) she should take her temperature each night before going to bed.
C) her temperature will increase about 0.2 to 0.4°C (0.4 to 0.8°F) after ovulation.
D) her temperature is normally lower during the second half of her cycle.
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Chapter 26: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
A) Never conceived.
B) Had repeated spontaneous abortions.
C) Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
D) Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.
Q2) The procedure in which ova are removed by laparoscopy, mixed with sperm, and the embryo(s) returned to the woman's uterus is
A) in vitro fertilization (IVF).
B) tubal embryo transfer (TET).
C) therapeutic insemination (IUI).
D) gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT).
Q3) Which factors would contribute to abnormalities of the fallopian tube associated with the development of infertility? (Select all that apply.)
A) History of conization of the cervix
B) History of pelvic surgical procedures
C) Incompetent cervix
D) Past treatments of STD with follow-up test of cure
E) Endometriosis
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Chapter 27: Womens Health
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2175
Sample Questions
Q1) Findings of a Pap smear exam denote atypical cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). The Pap test is repeated at 6 months and the same finding of ASCUS is reported. Which therapeutic treatment option would the nurse expect the practitioner to order?
A) Mammography
B) Bone scan
C) Transvaginal ultrasound
D) Biopsy
Q2) Which treatment option minimizes the development of lymphedema in the surgical management of a patient with breast cancer?
A) Radical mastectomy procedure
B) Radiation therapy
C) Sentinel lymph node mapping
D) Ultrasound
Q3) A 45-year-old patient asks how often she should have a mammogram. The most appropriate answer is
A) whenever she feels a lump.
B) every year beginning at age 40.
C) they are unnecessary until age 50.
D) every year if you have risk factors.
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