Obstetric Nursing Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Obstetric Nursing is a specialized field of nursing focused on providing care to women during pregnancy, labor, childbirth, and the postpartum period. This course equips students with comprehensive knowledge and practical skills essential for supporting maternal and fetal health, monitoring the progression of labor, assisting with deliveries, and addressing complications that may arise. Emphasizing patient-centered care, the course covers prenatal assessments, birthing techniques, family education, and the management of high-risk pregnancies, ensuring that future nurses can deliver safe, compassionate, and evidence-based care throughout the childbirth continuum.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal and Child Nursing Care 5th Edition by Marcia L London
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57 Chapters
1275 Verified Questions
1275 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Contemporary Maternal, Newborn, and Child Health Nursing
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19 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of the certified nurse-midwife (CNM)? Select all that apply.
A) Give primary care for healthy newborns.
B) Be educated in two disciplines of nursing.
C) Give primary care for high-risk clients who are in hospital settings.
D) Obtain a physician consultation for all technical procedures at delivery.
E) Be prepared to manage independently the care of women at low risk for complications during pregnancy and birth.
Answer: A,B,E
Q2) A child is not enrolled in the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP). What should the nurse do to encourage the family to consider enrolling the child in this program?
A) Assessment of the details of the family's income and expenditures
B) Case management to limit costly, unnecessary duplication of services
C) Advocacy for the child by encouraging the family to investigate its CHIP eligibility
D) Education of the family about the need for keeping regular well-child visit appointments
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Culture and the Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant client is interested in using herbs during her pregnancy. How should the nurse counsel this client? Select all that apply.
A) Do not take any herbs with other medication.
B) Refer to the list to learn which herbs to avoid during pregnancy.
C) Most herbs are harmless and can be safely taken while pregnant.
D) Refer to the list to learn which herbs to avoid during breastfeeding.
E) Consult with your healthcare provider before taking any herbs, even as teas.
Answer: A,B,D,E
Q2) During an assessment, the nurse notices that an African American baby has a darker, slightly bluish patch about 5 by 7 cm on the buttocks and lower back. What should the nurse do?
A) Record the presence of a Mongolian spot.
B) Ask the mother about the cause of the bruise.
C) Confer with the physician about the possibility of a bleeding tendency.
D) Call the Department of Social Services (DSS) to report this sign of abuse.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Genetic and Genomic Influences in Maternal, Newborn, and Child Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient learns that Huntington disease has occurred in some family members. Which type of genetic anomaly should the nurse explain as causing this disorder?
A) Somatic mutation
B) Germline mutation
C) Single gene mutation
D) Trinucleotide repeat expansion
Answer: A
Q2) A family is scheduled for a genetic consultation. What should the nurse explain to the family about this appointment? Select all that apply.
A) A diagnosis will be made.
B) Photographs may be taken.
C) An interview will be conducted.
D) A geneticist will examine the child.
E) The appointment can last several hours.
Answer: B,C,D,E
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has been unable to complete a full-term pregnancy because the fertilized ovum failed to implant in the uterus. Which hormone is most likely causing this client's issues with pregnancy?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) LH (luteinizing hormone)
D) FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)
Q2) The nurse is preparing a presentation on the menstrual cycle for a group of high school students. Which statement should the nurse include in this presentation?
A) "One hormone controls the phases of the menstrual cycle."
B) "The secretory phase occurs when a woman is most fertile."
C) "Menstrual cycle phases vary in order from one woman to another."
D) "The menstrual cycle has five distinct phases that occur during the month."
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Chapter 5: Health Promotion for Women
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Q1) A client asks, "Is it okay for me to use a vaginal douche each day when I'm on my period?" How should the nurse respond?
A) "Douching should be avoided when you're on your period."
B) "Regular douching is necessary in order to promote good hygiene."
C) "Using a douche each day will help prevent vaginal infections from occurring."
D) "During your period, douching will help promote the flow of menstrual secretions."
Q2) A 16-year-old girl asks, "Do I need to have a Pap smear just because I'm sexually active?" What is the nurse's correct response?
A) "No, you do not need to be screened for cervical cancer until you are 21 years old."
B) "Yes, all sexually active females should be screened for both cervical cancer and human papilloma virus (HPV)."
C) "Yes, all women under the age of 29 should be screened for both cervical cancer and human papilloma virus (HPV)."
D) "No, but you will need to begin your screenings for both cervical cancer and human papilloma virus (HPV) when you are 18 years old."
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Chapter 6: Common Gynecologic Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing an education session for women on prevention of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which statement should be included?
A) Lower urinary tract infections rarely occur in women.
B) Back pain often develops with a lower urinary tract infection.
C) The most common causative organism of cystitis is Escherichia coli.
D) Wiping from back to front after a bowel movement will help prevent a UTI.
Q2) The nurse is explaining a client's abnormal Pap smear results. Which statement should the nurse include?
A) "Your cervix needs to be treated with cryotherapy."
B) "The Pap smear is used to diagnose cervical cancer."
C) "Colposcopy to further examine your cervix is the next step."
D) "A loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP) is needed."
Q3) The physician has prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl) for a woman diagnosed with trichomoniasis. What should the nurse include when teaching about this medication?
A) "It will turn your urine orange."
B) "This medication could produce drowsiness."
C) "Both partners must be treated with the medication."
D) "Alcohol does not need to be avoided while taking this medication."
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Chapter 7: Conception and Fetal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) At her first prenatal visit, the patient states, "I'm 5 weeks' pregnant now and I would like to hear my baby's heartbeat today." How should the nurse respond?
A) Anticipate that the patient will be scheduled for Doppler ultrasound.
B) Prepare to assist with auscultation of the fetal heartbeat using a fetoscope.
C) Explain to the patient that the fetal heartbeat is not yet detectable at 5 weeks' gestation.
D) Explain to the patient that the fetal heart does not begin to beat until approximately 7 weeks' gestation.
Q2) After teaching a class about the female reproductive system, the nurse asks the attendees to describe the process of meiosis. Which student response suggests successful comprehension of the material?
A) "At the time of ovulation, the first meiotic division begins."
B) "At the time of puberty, the second meiotic division begins."
C) "Completion of the first meiotic division produces three polar bodies and one primary oocyte."
D) "Completion of the second meiotic division results in formation of three polar bodies and one ovum."
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Chapter 8: Physical and Psychologic Changes of Pregnancy
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Q1) The mother of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant is uncertain about how to be a good grandmother to this baby due to working full time and being so busy. How should the nurse respond in this situation?
A) "How do you envision your role as grandmother?"
B) "Don't worry. You'll be a wonderful grandmother. It will all work out fine."
C) "As long as there is another grandmother available, you do not have to worry."
D) "Grandmothers are supposed to be available. You should retire from your job."
Q2) The partner of a pregnant client at 16 weeks' gestation accompanies her to the clinic. The partner tells you that the baby just does not seem real to him, and he is having a hard time relating to his partner's fatigue and food aversions. Which statement would be best for the nurse to make?
A) "Many men feel this way. Feeling the baby move will help make it real."
B) "My husband had no problem with this. What was your childhood like?"
C) "You might need professional psychologic counseling. Ask your physician."
D) "If you would concentrate harder, you would be aware of the reality of this pregnancy."
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Chapter 9: Antepartum Nursing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prenatal clinic nurse is designing a new prenatal intake information form for pregnant clients. Which question is the most important to include on this form?
A) What is the name of the baby's father?
B) Where was the father of the baby born?
C) Are you married to the father of the baby?
D) Do genetic diseases run in the family of the baby's father?
Q2) The nurse is completing an assessment for a prenatal visit. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is necessary?
A) "Now that I've felt fetal movement, I should feel movement regularly."
B) "Because I'm in my third trimester, I should return to the clinic in a month."
C) "Alcohol is possibly harmful to my baby, even at the end of my pregnancy."
D) "Before I take any over-the-counter medications, I should contact my doctor."
Q3) The client has delivered her first child at 39 weeks. How should the nurse document this type of delivery?
A) Preterm
B) Postterm
C) Full Term
D) Near term
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Chapter 10: The Expectant Family: Needs and Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) An expectant couple is determining their compatibility with a healthcare provider. Which question should the nurse encourage the couple to ask first?
A) "Can my children attend the birth?"
B) "What is your philosophy of birth?"
C) "If I have a cesarean birth, can my husband attend?"
D) "What percentage of your clients have episiotomies?"
Q2) A client in the first trimester of pregnancy is experiencing nausea. What should the nurse suggest the client do to relieve the nausea?
A) Eat spicy foods.
B) Eat small, frequent meals.
C) Avoid carbonated beverages.
D) Wait to eat for 2 hours in the morning.
Q3) The nurse is teaching an early pregnancy class for clients in the first trimester of pregnancy. Which statement requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
A) "When my nausea is bad, I will drink some ginger tea."
B) "It is normal for my vaginal discharge to get green colored."
C) "I will urinate less often during the middle of my pregnancy."
D) "The fatigue I am experiencing will improve in the second trimester."
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Chapter 11: Maternal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a pregnant teen. What should the nurse do to accurately assess the teen's nutritional intake?
A) Assess laboratory values.
B) Ask about cooking facilities.
C) Observe for clinical signs of malnutrition.
D) Ask to complete a dietary recall to identify eating patterns.
Q2) The nurse is conducting a postpartum visit to a client who is formula-feeding her infant. Which client statement indicates that teaching about weight maintenance has been effective?
A) "I have increased my caloric intake by 600 calories per day."
B) "My dietician has set my weight loss goal at 1 to 2 pounds per week."
C) "Instead of making another doctor's appointment, I started a diet that my best friend recommended."
D) "My daily regimen includes taking extra vitamin A, vitamin C, and thiamine in order to meet my body's increased need for nutrients after pregnancy."
Q3) A newly pregnant client weighs 75.0 kg and has a body mass index of 28.5. What is the maximum amount of weight in pounds that this client should weigh during the pregnancy?
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Pregnancy in Selected Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 38-year-old client is thrilled to learn of being pregnant with her first child. What should the nurse identify as advantages for the client having a child at this age? Select all that apply.
A) Most likely well-educated.
B) Ready to make a life change.
C) Decision was made deliberately.
D) Child care will be easier at this age.
E) Able to take on the responsibilities of a child.
Q2) A 38-year-old pregnant client is reluctant to attend prenatal classes because the other participants will be much younger. What should the nurse do to encourage this client's attendance at classes? Select all that apply.
A) Support the client's strengths.
B) Find a class with participants that are older.
C) Encourage the client to read prenatal training material online.
D) Nothing, since the client most likely has already researched the birthing process.
E) Prepare a list of reasons for the late pregnancy to use as responses when others ask.
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Chapter 13: Assessment of Fetal Well-Being
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing amniocentesis with a pregnant client. In which order should the nurse explain the steps that will occur during this procedure?
A) Conduct an ultrasound
B) Fetal heart rate assessed
C) Local anesthetic provided
D) Skin cleansed with antiseptic solution
E) Insertion site observed for fluid streaming
F) 22-gauge needle inserted to withdraw amniotic fluid
Q2) The nurse is reviewing nursing documentation related to the care of a client who had an amniocentesis. Which nursing note reflects appropriate client care?
A) Prior to discharge, the client demonstrated vaginal spotting.
B) An Rh-positive client received RhoGAM after the amniocentesis.
C) The client was monitored for 30 minutes after completion of the test.
D) The client reported that she takes insulin before each meal and at bedtime.
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Chapter 14: Pregnancy at Risk: Pregestational Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse suspects that a pregnant client is a substance user. Which approach should the nurse take during the health history?
A) Explaining how harmful drugs can be for her baby.
B) Asking the woman directly, "Do you use any street drugs?"
C) Asking the woman if she would like to talk to a counselor.
D) Asking some questions about over-the-counter medications and avoiding the mention of illicit drugs.
Q2) A pregnant client who uses cocaine and ecstasy on a regular basis asks why ecstasy should not be used during pregnancy. What should the nurse explain about this drug?
A) "It produces intrauterine growth restriction and meconium aspiration."
B) "It leads to deficiencies of thiamine and folic acid, which help the baby develop."
C) "It produces babies with small heads and short bodies with brain function alterations."
D) "It can cause a high fever in you if high doses are taken and therefore cause the baby harm."
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Chapter 15: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Onset
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is suspected of having a hydatidiform mole. What should the nurse expect to assess in this client? Select all that apply.
A) Elevated blood pressure
B) Absence of fetal heart tones
C) Frequent urination and thirst
D) Dark brown vaginal drainage
E) Larger than gestational age fundal height
Q2) A pregnant woman is being excavated from the back seat of a motor vehicle after a crash. In which order should this victim receive emergency care?
A) Apply oxygen.
B) Establish an airway.
C) Monitor fetal activity.
D) Position on the left side.
E) Administer intravenous fluids.
Q3) Which maternal-child client should the nurse see first?
A) Blood type B, Rh-positive
B) Blood type O, Rh-negative
C) Direct Coombs test positive
D) Indirect Coombs test negative
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Chapter 16: Processes and Stages of Labor and Birth
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Q1) A client whose cervix is dilated 8 cm is restless and frequently changing position in an attempt to get comfortable. Which nursing action is most important?
A) Leave the client alone so she can rest.
B) Ask the family to take a coffee and snack break.
C) Reassure the client that she will not be left alone.
D) Encourage the client to have an epidural for pain.
Q2) The primiparous client has asked the nurse why her cervix has only changed from 1 to 2 cm in 3 hours of contractions occurring every 5 minutes. How should the nurse respond to this client?
A) "What did you expect? You have only had contractions for a few hours. Labor takes time."
B) "When your perineal body thins out, your cervix will begin to dilate much faster than it is now."
C) "The hormones that cause labor to begin are just getting to be at levels that will change your cervix."
D) "Your cervix has also effaced, or thinned out, and that change in the cervix is also labor progress."
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Intrapartum Nursing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to assess the fetus of a laboring client. Which should the nurse perform first?
A) Place the client into a left lateral position.
B) Perform the Leopold maneuver to determine fetal position.
C) Dry the maternal abdomen before using the Doppler.
D) Count the fetal heart rate for 30 seconds and multiply by 2.
Q2) The nurse is observing a student provide care to a client who is in early labor. Which student actions should be corrected?
A) Applying a fetal heart monitor followed by an explanation of the reason for its use
B) Upon entering the room, speaking with the client prior to looking at the fetal heart monitor
C) Using layman's terms to provide the client with an explanation of the reason for electronic fetal monitoring
D) Incorporating cues that arise from intuition or from observations of the client and family as opposed to focusing on the fetal heart monitor
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Chapter 18: The Family in Childbirth: Needs and Care
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Q1) Upon delivery of the newborn, which action most promotes parental attachment?
A) Placing the newborn under the radiant warmer
B) Placing the newborn on the maternal abdomen
C) Taking the newborn to the nursery for the initial assessment
D) Allowing the mother a chance to rest immediately after delivery
Q2) What is the purpose for the client in labor to utilize different breathing techniques? Select all that apply.
A) Reduces pain
B) A source of relaxation
C) A source of distraction
D) Speeds up the delivery process
E) An increased ability to cope with contractions
Q3) The nurse is caring for a client in the second stage of labor. What assessment findings indicate that birth is imminent? Select all that apply.
A) Drop in blood pressure
B) Increased bloody show
C) Bulging of the perineum
D) Subjective feeling of faintness
E) Uncontrollable urge to bear down
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Pharmacologic Pain Management
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Q1) A postpartum client who received spinal anesthesia for the delivery has not voided for 5 hours and is concerned about nerve damage. How should the nurse respond about this concern?
A) "Spinal anesthesia can sometimes cause nerve damage."
B) "You are probably dehydrated. Please increase your water intake."
C) "It may be several hours before you're able to control your urination."
D) "You should be able to control your bladder by now. I'll ask the anesthesia provider to visit with you."
Q2) The charge nurse is reviewing the plans of care for four clients in labor. Which care plan requires additional information before implementing?
A) Administration of a spinal anesthetic to a client who is scheduled for a vaginal delivery
B) Administration of a spinal anesthetic to a client with a history of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
C) Administration of epidural anesthesia to a client who is in the first stage of labor and has a shellfish allergy
D) Administration of epidural anesthesia to a client with a history of vomiting secondary to hyperemesis gravidarum
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Chapter 20: Childbirth at Risk: Prelabor and Intrapartum
Complications
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Q1) When caring for a client with oligohydramnios, on what should the nurse focus? Select all that apply.
A) Induction is typically scheduled.
B) Early decelerations are more likely.
C) Fetal pulmonary hypoplasia can develop.
D) There is an increased risk of cord compression.
E) Labor progress is often more rapid than average.
Q2) A client who weighed 60 kg before becoming pregnant with twins is having a routine prenatal examination at gestational week 24. What should be this client's weight in kilograms at this time? (Round to the nearest whole number.)
Q3) A multigravida client with suspected abruptio placentae is admitted in active labor. Which nursing diagnoses should the nurse identify as appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.
A) Anxiety related to concern for own safety
B) Ineffective Coping related to premature birth
C) Fluid Volume, Risk for Deficit, related to hypovolemia
D) Tissue Perfusion, Risk for Altered, related to blood loss
E) Knowledge Deficit related to lack of information about inherited genetic defects
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Chapter 21: Childbirth at Risk: Labor-Related Complications
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Q1) After a lengthy labor and delivery, a client suddenly complains of chest pain and dyspnea. The client is cyanotic, has tachycardia and blood pressure decreased to 78/36 mmHg. Based on these assessment findings, which health problem is the client experiencing?
A) Infection
B) Placenta accreta
C) Hypertensive crisis
D) Amniotic fluid embolus
Q2) The membranes of a client in labor have spontaneously ruptured and the fluid is meconium stained. The fetal heart tones are 100 to 105) Which nursing action is most important?
A) Notify the surgical team of an impending cesarean.
B) Change the client's position from Fowler to left lateral.
C) Insert a Foley catheter with the assistance of another nurse.
D) Decrease the IV of lactated Ringer solution to 50 mL/hour.
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Chapter 22: Birth-Related Procedures
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Q1) A client experiencing a difficult labor has a vacuum extraction birth. What is expected with this type of delivery?
A) The head is delivered after eight pulls during contractions.
B) The location of the vacuum is apparent on the fetal scalp after birth.
C) A bruise is present on the occiput that does not cross the suture line.
D) Positive pressure is applied by the vacuum extraction during contractions.
Q2) The nurse is scheduling a client for an external cephalic version (ECV). Which finding in the client's chart requires immediate intervention?
A) "Multipara, transverse lie."
B) "Primipara failed ECV last week."
C) "Primipara, frank breech ballotable."
D) "Multipara, 32 weeks, complete breech."
Q3) A client who received a mediolateral episiotomy to facilitate vacuum extraction birth asks what kind of episiotomy was performed. How should the nurse explain the location of the episiotomy?
A) "It goes straight back toward your rectum."
B) "It is from your vagina toward the urethra."
C) "It is cut diagonally away from your vagina."
D) "It extends from your vagina into your rectum."
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Physiologic Responses of the Newborn to Birth
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Q1) The home care nurse notes jaundice on the skin over the sternum of a 3-day-old infant. What should the nurse explain to the parents about this finding?
A) "The liver of an infant is not fully mature and does not conjugate the bilirubin for excretion."
B) "The yellow color of your baby's skin indicates that you are breastfeeding too often."
C) "This is an abnormal finding related to your baby's bowels not excreting bilirubin as they should."
D) "The infant received too many red blood cells after delivery because the cord was not clamped immediately."
Q2) The nurse is instructing the parents of a newborn about the number of wet diapers to expect each day. Which statement by the parents indicates that further education is necessary?
A) "Our baby was born with kidneys that are too small."
B) "Feeding our baby frequently will help the kidneys function."
C) "Kidney function in an infant is very different from in an adult."
D) "A baby's kidneys do not concentrate urine well for several months."
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Chapter 24: Nursing Assessment of the Newborn
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Q1) The nurse assesses the newborn's ears to be parallel to the outer and inner canthus of the eye. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A) Prematurity
B) Facial paralysis
C) A normal position
D) A possible chromosomal abnormality
Q2) The nurse is assessing a newborn's musculoskeletal status. How should the nurse assess for clubfoot?
A) Stimulate the sole of the foot
B) Adduct the foot and listen for a click
C) Extend the foot and observe for pain
D) Move the foot to midline and determine resistance
Q3) The nurse notes the presence of a cephalohematoma on the head of a newborn. What did the nurse use to make this clinical determination? Select all that apply.
A) The head appears asymmetric.
B) The mass overrides the suture line.
C) The mass appears only on one side of the head.
D) The mass appeared on the second day after birth.
E) The mass appears larger when the newborn cries.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The Normal Newborn: Needs, Care, and Feeding
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Q1) The nurse is discussing parent-infant attachment with a prenatal class. Which statement indicates that teaching was successful?
A) "Giving the baby his first bath can really give me a chance to get to know him."
B) "Newborns cannot focus their eyes, so it does not matter how I hold my new baby."
C) "My baby will be very sleepy immediately after birth, so he can go to the nursery."
D) "I should avoid looking directly into the baby's eyes to prevent frightening the baby."
Q2) The nurse is assisting a mother to bottle-feed her newborn, who has been crying. What should the nurse instruct the client to do before feeding the infant?
A) Offer a pacifier.
B) Burp the newborn.
C) Unwrap the newborn.
D) Stroke the newborn's spine and feet.
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Chapter 26: The Newborn at Risk: Conditions Present at Birth
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Q1) The newborn of a mother with type 2 diabetes mellitus is experiencing tremors. What nursing action has the highest priority?
A) Obtain a bilirubin level.
B) Obtain a blood calcium level.
C) Measure the newborn's temperature.
D) Place a pulse oximeter on the newborn.
Q2) A 38-week newborn is small for gestational age (SGA). Which nursing intervention should be included in the care of this newborn?
A) Assess for facial paralysis
B) Maintain a warm environment
C) Monitor for feeding difficulties
D) Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia
Q3) A small-for-gestational-age (SGA) newborn weighing 2000 g is prescribed to receive 130 kcal/kg/day of oral feeding to achieve a daily weight gain of 30 g.What should this newborn weigh after 2 weeks of receiving these feedings? (Calculate to the nearest whole number.)
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Chapter 27: The Newborn at Risk: Birth-Related Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) At birth, an infant newborn has a heart rate of 100, is not breathing, and is limp and bluish in color. What nursing action is best?
A) Assess blood pressure.
B) Deep suction the airways.
C) Begin chest compressions.
D) Begin bag-and-mask ventilation.
Q2) A student nurse is caring for a neonate undergoing intensive phototherapy. Which action indicates that the student understands how to provide care for an infant undergoing intensive phototherapy?
A) Assesses temperature every 6 hours
B) Assesses urine specific gravity with each voiding
C) Removes eye coverings to help keep the baby calm
D) Removes the infant from the Isolette for diaper changes
Q3) An infant weighing 1500 g is prescribed intravenous normal saline 10 mL/kg. How many milliliters of fluid should the nurse expect to provide this infant? (Calculate to the nearest whole number.)
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Chapter 28: Postpartum Adaptation and Nursing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client weighing 80 kg lost 5 kg of body weight immediately after delivery. In 2 days, another 3 kg has been lost. During a 6-week postpartum examination the client was pleased to learn of returning to her prepregnancy weight of 143 lb. How many kilograms of weight did the client lose during the 6 weeks postpartum? (Calculate to the nearest whole number.)
Q2) Every time the nurse enters the client's room, the client, who delivered 3 hours ago, asks the nurse something else about the birth experience. What action should the nurse take?
A) Answer questions quickly and try to divert attention to other subjects.
B) Review documentation of the birth experience and discuss it with the client.
C) Contact the healthcare provider because of changes in the client's memory.
D) Submit a referral to Social Services because of concerns about obsessive behavior.
Q3) What should the nurse assess to determine healing of the uterus at the placental site?
A) Laboratory values
B) Uterine size
C) Blood pressure
D) Type, amount, and consistency of lochia
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Chapter 29: The Postpartum Family: Early Care Needs and Home Care
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse completes a postpartum assessment on a client who gave birth to her first child 12 hours ago. Assessment findings include: the client nauseated, but has not vomited in the last 2 hours; fundus was boggy but firmed with massage to 1 FB the uterus; client is experiencing moderately heavy lochia rubra and the perineum ecchymotic and edematous. The client's pain rating is 6 on scale of 1 to 10) Her partner is present and supportive. Breastfeeding has been successful 3 times. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this client?
A) Acute Pain related to perineal trauma
B) Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to uterine bleeding and nausea
C) Readiness for Enhanced Family Coping related to vaginal childbirth experience
D) Knowledge Deficit related to newborn care
Q2) A new mother is concerned about spoiling her newborn. Which statement should the home care nurse include in this teaching session with the new mother?
A) "Spoiling occurs when an infant is rocked to sleep every night."
B) "Newborns can be manipulative, so caution is advised."
C) "Crying is good for an infant, and letting them cry it out is advised."
D) "It is important to meet your infant's needs to develop a trusting relationship."
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Page 31
Chapter 30: The Postpartum Family at Risk
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Sample Questions
Q1) The charge nurse is reviewing the plan of care for maternal clients currently admitted for postpartum care. During the course of the medical record review, which intervention requires immediate consideration for revision?
A) Daily prothrombin time (PT) measurements for coagulation assessment in a client receiving heparin for treatment of thrombophlebitis.
B) Use of the REEDA (redness, edema, ecchymosis, discharge, approximation) scale for assessment every 8 hours in the care of a client diagnosed with puerperal infection.
C) Misoprostol (Cytotec) administration to a client who demonstrates uterine atony and bleeding after receiving oxytocic medications.
D) Inserting a straight catheter to drain the overdistended bladder of a client during the early postpartum period of her care.
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Chapter 31: Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant during a scheduled well-baby check-up. Which are expected findings for this infant? Select all that apply.
A) No head lag when pulled for sitting
B) Ability to turn from back to abdomen
C) Manipulates objects
D) Transfers objects from one hand to the other
E) A pincer grasp is noted.
Q2) The nurse is conducting a physical assessment for a pediatric client. Which part of Bronfenbrenner's ecologic theory of development is the nurse assessing when discussing the parents' work environment in relation to the client?
A) Chronosystem
B) Mesosystem
C) Macrosystem
D) Exosystem
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33
Chapter 32: Infant, Child, and Adolescent Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing care to a toddler-age client who is diagnosed with celiac disease. Which interventions will the nurse include in the toddler's plan of care? Select all that apply.
A) Temporary removal of wheat products from the diet
B) Permanent removal of oat products from the diet
C) Fat-soluble vitamin supplements
D) Avoidance of processed foods
E) Obtaining a dietary prescription
Q2) During a 4-month-old infant's well-child checkup, the nurse discusses introduction of solid foods into the infant's diet. Although the nurse recommends delaying the introduction of many foods into the diet, which food(s) will the nurse discuss delaying because they increase the risk for food allergy?
A) Honey
B) Carrots, beets, and spinach
C) Pork
D) Cow's milk, eggs, and peanuts
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Chapter 33: Pediatric Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the newborn examination, the nurse assesses for signs of developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which finding would strongly suggest this disorder?
A) Asymmetric thigh and gluteal folds
B) A positive Babinski reflex
C) A negative Moro reflex
D) Flat soles with prominent fat pads
Q2) The nurse prepares to conduct a quick evaluation of a 1-month-old infant's hearing. Which action will provide the best information?
A) Examining the child's ear canal with an otoscope
B) Using a vibrating tuning fork placed against the child's skull
C) Using tympanometry to assess the child's hearing
D) Using a noisemaker to evaluate the child's response
Q3) Which is the correct order for the nurse to conduct a physical assessment for a toddler-age client? Place in order from first assessment to last assessment.
A) Auscultation of chest
B) Examination of eyes, ears, and throat
C) Palpation of abdomen
D) General appearance
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35
Chapter 34: Health Promotion and Maintenance: General
Concepts, the Newborn, and the Infant
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is educating the parents of a 2-month-old infant when to contact the healthcare provider. Which statements by the parents indicate the need for further instruction? Select all that apply.
A) "We will contact the doctor if our baby does not have a bowel movement each day."
B) "We will contact the doctor if our baby is vomiting."
C) "We will contact the doctor if our baby has a temperature greater than 99°F."
D) "We will contact the doctor if our baby does finish each bottle."
E) "We will contact the doctor if our baby develops a skin rash."
Q2) A parent says to a nurse, "How do you know when my baby needs these screening tests the doctor just mentioned?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "Screening tests are done in the newborn nursery, and from these results, additional screening tests are ordered throughout the first 2 years of life."
B) "Screening tests are done at each office visit."
C) "Screening tests are most often done when the doctor suspects something is wrong with the child."
D) "Screening tests are administered at the ages when a child is most likely to develop a condition."
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Health Promotion and Maintenance: the
Toddler and the Preschooler
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is conducting a physical assessment for a preschool-age child. When plotting the child's body mass index (BMI) the nurse notes that the child's is at the 90th percentile. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Referring the child to a nutritionist
B) Conducting a developmental assessment
C) Assessing the child's level of activity
D) Checking a blood glucose level
Q2) Which will the nurse assess in the family of a 3-year-old child during a pediatric clinic visit scheduled due to regressive behavior? Select all that apply.
A) Change in parental marital status
B) Level of education for each parent
C) Health of child's siblings
D) Maternal depression
E) Child's exposure to communicable diseases
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Chapter 36: Health Promotion and Maintenance: the
School-Age Child and the Adolescent
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning care for an adolescent whose parents have both recently been laid off from their jobs. Which is the priority diagnosis for the adolescent and family?
A) Disturbed Sleep Pattern
B) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than body requirements
C) Knowledge Deficit
D) Risk for Injury
Q2) A school nurse is performing annual height and weight screening. The nurse notes that three adolescent girls who are close friends each lost 15 pounds over the past year. Which is the priority nursing action?
A) Obtaining a nutritional history for each of these adolescents
B) Referring these adolescents to the school psychologist
C) Calling the respective parents to discuss the eating patterns of each adolescent
D) Speaking with the adolescents in a group to discuss the problems associated with anorexia nervosa
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Chapter 37: Family Assessment and Concepts of Nursing
Care in the Community
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are resources that enable families to develop and adapt to stressors? Select all that apply.
A) Education
B) Communication
C) Prior experiences
D) Problem solving
E) Adequate finances
Q2) In which situation will the school nurse collaborate with the family and other members of the healthcare team in order to develop an individualized health plan (IHP)?
A) For a child who recently developed a penicillin allergy
B) For a child who has been treated for head lice
C) For a child who has missed 2 weeks of school due to mononucleosis
D) For a child who is newly diagnosed with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus.
Q3) Which pediatric client will the community health nurse assess first?
A) A 6-year-old who is wheezing and short of breath.
B) A 2-year-old who has been pulling at his ear.
C) A 2-month-old with a 2-day history of diarrhea.
D) A 10-year-old with a sore throat and low-grade fever.
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Chapter 38: Nursing Considerations for the Child and
Family With a Chronic Condition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing care to several hospitalized pediatric clients. Which child has the greatest risk for a developmental disability?
A) An 18-month-old admitted with a diagnosis of near drowning
B) A school-age child newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus
C) An toddler with sepsis
D) A 2-year-old child with a fractured femur
Q2) The mother of an adolescent with multiple medical and developmental issues says to the nurse: "There are times that I think about just walking out of the house and not coming back." Which would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this mother?
A) Caregiver Role Strain related to providing 24-hour care for a child with medical and developmental issues
B) Risk for Injury (maternal) related to overwhelming demands of the medically fragile child
C) Knowledge Deficit (maternal) related to nursing care of the child
D) Health-seeking Behaviors (maternal) related to interest in learning to care for her child
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40
Chapter 39: Nursing Considerations for the Hospitalized Child
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mother of a child admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) appears very angry and tells the nurse no one is providing information about the child. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Asking the mother to leave if the behavior continues
B) Apologizing for the mother's perception and assure the mother that the staff will keep her informed.
C) Offering to ask the healthcare provider to come and talk with her
D) Telling the mother her behavior will upset the child
Q2) An adolescent tells the nurse that the new diagnosis of diabetes has him "stressed out." Which stress-reduction activities will the nurse recommend to this adolescent?
Select all that apply.
A) Daily exercise, such as walking
B) Learning more about his illness
C) Practicing deep breathing and other relaxation techniques
D) Not thinking about his diagnosis
E) Allowing the parents control of his disease
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Chapter 40: Pain Assessment and Management in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which complementary pain management interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care for a pediatric client who is experiencing chronic pain? Select all that apply.
A) Hypnosis
B) Guided imagery
C) Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)
D) Fentanyl patch
E) EMLA cream
Q2) The healthcare provider prescribes hydromorphine (Dilaudid) intravenously for the postoperative 4-year-old child. The therapeutic range for Dilaudid has been determined to be 0.01 to 0.015 mg/kg/dose every 3 to 4 hours. What is the maximum therapeutic dose of Dilaudid if the child weighs 30 pounds? Round your answer to the nearest hundredth.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a postoperative toddler-age child. Which pain assessment tool should the nurse use to assess this child's pain?
A) Poker Chip Tool
B) Oucher Scale
C) Faces Pain Rating Scale
D) FLACC Behavioral Pain Assessment Scale
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Page 42
Chapter 41: The Child With a Life-Threatening Condition and
End-Of-Life Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is taking care of a child who is showing signs of imminent death. Which manifestations should the nurse expect to assess related to the cardiovascular system?
A) An increase in the volume of Korotkoff sounds
B) Cool and clammy skin, mottling
C) Peripheral pulses will remain when the heart beat is not heard on auscultation.
D) An increase in cardiac output
Q2) A school bus carrying children in grades K-12 crashed into a ravine. The critically injured children are transported by ambulance and admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit (PICU). Which is the most effective nursing intervention to calm the frightened children?
A) Explain that the equipment being used is state-of-the-art.
B) Tell the children that the providers are competent.
C) Call the children's parents to come to the unit.
D) Assure the children that the nurses are caring.
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Chapter 42: Social and Environmental Influences on the Child
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Q1) The nurse is assessing a child and suspects the child's mother is abusing an opiate. Which clinical manifestations exhibited by the child's mother lead the nurse to this conclusion?
A) Constricted pupils
B) Mood swings
C) Impaired memory
D) Tremors
E) Psychosis
Q2) A 7-year-old child is seen in the pediatric clinic 3 times in the last 2 months for complaints of abdominal pain. On each occasion, the physical examination and all ordered laboratory work have been normal. Which is the priority nursing assessment at this time?
A) The child's normal eating habits
B) Recent viral illnesses or other infectious symptoms
C) Review of the child's immunization history
D) Changes in school or home life
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Chapter 43: Immunizations and Communicable Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vaccines should the nurse prepare to administer to an 11-year-old child during a scheduled well-child visit? Select all that apply.
A) DTaP vaccine
B) Hib vaccine
C) HPV4 vaccine
D) MMR vaccine
E) MenACWY-D
Q2) Which recombinant vaccines should the nurse teach to parents as being used to decrease the risk of communicable diseases? Select all that apply.
A) Poliovirus
B) Tetanus
C) Measles
D) Acellular pertussis
E) Hepatitis B
Q3) Which should the nurse use when reconstituting vaccines?
A) The diluents provided
B) Normal saline
C) Any solution available
D) Sterile water
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Chapter 44: The Child With Alterations in Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pediatric client diagnoses necessitate close monitoring for respiratory acidosis? Select all that apply.
A) Aspiration
B) Epiglottitis
C) Sepsis
D) Meningitis
E) Cystic fibrosis
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child on bed rest who has severe edema in a left lower extremity due to blocked lymphatic drainage. Which nursing diagnosis would take priority?
A) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity
B) Risk for Altered Body Image
C) Risk for Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements
D) Risk for Activity Intolerance
Q3) A 6-year-old child is hypokalemic. Which menu choice should the nurse encourage for this child?
A) Pizza with a fruit plate
B) Chicken strips with chips
C) Fajita with rice
D) A hamburger with French fries
46
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Chapter 45: The Child With Alterations in Eye, Ear, Nose, and Throat Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the priority nursing assessment for a pediatric client who is postoperative for tonsillectomy?
A) Arrhythmias
B) Dehydration
C) Increased blood sugar
D) Increased urinary output
Q2) Which parental statement indicates correct understanding of discharge instructions for a pediatric client after a tonsillectomy?
A) "We will call the healthcare provider for any indication of ear pain."
B) "We will be sure to give our child adequate amounts of citrus juices."
C) "We will plan on administering acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain."
D) "We will keep our child on bed rest for 10 days after the surgery."
Q3) Which information should the nurse include in a teaching session regarding treatment for the common cold in the pediatric population?
A) Aspirin should be taken for alleviation of fever if the common cold is contracted.
B) Antibiotics will eliminate the nasopharyngitis virus.
C) Vaccinations can prevent contraction of a nasopharyngitis virus.
D) Proper hand washing can prevent the spread of the common cold.
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Chapter 46: The Child With Alterations in Respiratory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse receives a phone call from the parent of a child who is prescribed rifampin (Rimactane) for treatment of tuberculosis because she saw that the child's urine was orange. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
A) "Encourage your child to drink cranberry juice."
B) "An orange discoloration of urine is expected while your child is on this medication."
C) "Bring your child to the clinic for a urinalysis."
D) "Bring your child to the clinic for a radiograph of the kidneys."
Q2) Which nursing action is appropriate when providing care to a newborn with a respiratory rate of 102 breaths per minute with lungs that are clear to auscultation?
A) Administering the bath to the neonate in the nursery
B) Transferring to the neonatal intensive care unit for further observation
C) Allowing the neonate to room-in to promote bonding
D) Providing the first feeding in the nursery
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Chapter 47: The Child With Alterations in Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which treatment options should the nurse anticipate for a 10-month-old infant admitted to the emergency department with supraventricular tachycardia? Select all that apply.
A) Administering intravenous adenosine (Adenocard)
B) Administering intravenous amiodarone (Cardarone)
C) Preparing for cardioversion
D) Applying ice to the face
E) Having the child perform a Valsalva maneuver
Q2) Which parental statement indicates correct understanding for the reason a cardiac catheterization is needed for a child who is diagnosed with a congenital heart defect?
A) "This procedure will keep the ductus arteriosus open and oxygenated and unoxygenated blood mixed."
B) "This procedure is used to close the ductus arteriosus to prevent mixing of arterial and venous blood."
C) "This procedure will redirect the blood so that blood bypasses the right ventricle."
D) "This procedure connects the ventricle to the atrium."
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49
Chapter 48: The Child With Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care to address nutrition for a child who is diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Select all that apply.
A) Encourage three large meals each day.
B) Eliminate unpleasant odors from the environment during meals.
C) Weigh the child each day, using the same scale.
D) Assess skin turgor every 4 hours.
E) Include favorite foods in the meal plan.
Q2) When teaching a pregnant client about antibodies that are passed from mother to newborn, which antibody should the nurse include?
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgD
D) IgG
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Chapter 49: The Child With Alterations in Hematologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing care to a child diagnosed with hemophilia who states, "I am going to join a bike club at school." Which recommendation should the nurse give to the child?
A) Wear knee pads, elbow pads, and a helmet while bicycling.
B) Consider a swim club instead of the bicycling club.
C) Do not join the club.
D) Participate only in the social activities of the club.
Q2) Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for the child diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?
A) Ineffective Breathing Pattern
B) Nausea
C) Fluid Volume Deficit
D) Risk for Injury
Q3) Which symptoms should the nurse include in the teaching plan for the family of a recently child diagnosed with aplastic anemia?
A) Fatigue and fever
B) Runny nose and cough
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Cyanosis and bradycardia
Page 51
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Chapter 50: The Child With Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school-age child, diagnosed with a medulloblastoma, will receive intrathecal chemotherapy injections after surgery. Which rationale for this type of chemotherapy administration should the nurse include in the medication teaching?
A) It reduces side effects.
B) It does not require the child being "stuck."
C) Many chemotherapy drugs do not cross the blood-brain barrier.
D) Intrathecal administration is less expensive than intravenous administration.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed, as needed, antiemetic drug for a child who is diagnosed with cancer. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Administering the drug only if the child is nauseated
B) Administering the drug prophylactically prior to the next dose of chemotherapy
C) Administering the drug after the next dose of chemotherapy
D) Administering the drug only if the child is experiencing diarrhea
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Chapter 51: The Child With Alterations in Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which parental action, observed during a home care visit for an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux, requires intervention by the nurse?
A) The infant's formula has rice cereal added.
B) The mother holds the infant in a high Fowler position while feeding.
C) After feeding, the infant is placed in a car seat.
D) The mother draws up the ranitidine (Zantac) in a syringe for oral administration.
Q2) The nurse is planning care for a school-age client who is postoperative for the surgical removal of the appendix. In addition to pharmacologic pain management, which should the nurse include in the plan of care to address pain?
A) Applying a warm, moist pack every 4 hours
B) Applying EMLA cream to the incision site prior to ambulation
C) Applying a cold, moist pack every 2 hours
D) Applying a pillow against the abdomen to splint the incision site when coughing
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53
Chapter 52: The Child With Alterations in Genitourinary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care for a pediatric client who is receiving peritoneal dialysis in the treatment of chronic renal failure to prevent infection? Select all that apply.
A) Provide small, frequent meals.
B) Avoid battles over nutritional intake.
C) Administer supplements by tube feedings, if needed.
D) Implement hand hygiene frequently.
E) Perform daily catheter site care.
Q2) Which nursing actions are appropriate to assess growth and development for an adolescent client diagnosed with chronic renal failure? Select all that apply.
A) Using the Denver II during a health maintenance visit
B) Educating parents on normal milestones
C) Monitoring for delayed sexual maturation
D) Comparing blood pressure values from previous visit
E) Plotting height and weight measurements
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Chapter 53: The Child With Alterations in Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing care to a newborn who is suspected of having Turner syndrome. Which should the nurse assess the newborn for based on the current diagnosis?
A) Club foot (talipes equinovarus)
B) Congenital heart anomalies
C) Hyperbilirubinemia due to liver abnormalities
D) Diaphragmatic hernia
Q2) Which assessment data for a pediatric client supports the diagnosis of familial or idiopathic central diabetes insipidus (DI)? Select all that apply.
A) Polyuria
B) Polydipsia
C) Nocturia
D) Enuresis
E) Constipation
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Chapter 54: The Child With Alterations in Neurologic Function
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70707
Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing diagnoses should the nurse include in the plan of care for a pediatric client diagnosed with cerebral palsy? Select all that apply.
A) Risk for Constipation
B) Impaired Tissue Integrity
C) Impaired Verbal Communication
D) Acute Pain
E) Risk for Delayed Development
Q2) A 9-month-old infant who is not sitting independently has been diagnosed with ataxic cerebral palsy (CP). Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to see in the baby?
A) Hypotonia and muscle instability
B) Hypertonia and persistence primitive reflexes
C) Tremors and exaggerated posturing
D) Hemiplegia and hypertonia
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Chapter 55: The Child With Alterations in Mental Health and Cognitive Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70708
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child with a possible alteration in mental health. Which findings indicate a need for further investigation? Select all that apply.
A) Fails to make eye contact
B) Flinches when touched on the arm
C) History of limited prenatal care and precipitate delivery
D) Head circumference has not changed in over 1 year
E) Flat facial expressions
Q2) Which nursing action assists in the diagnosis of mental health and cognitive disorders that occur during childhood?
A) Monitoring vital signs
B) Administering prescribed medications
C) Conducting a developmental assessment
D) Documenting an accurate history and physical
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Chapter 56: The Child With Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70709
Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment finding would require an immediate nursing action when providing care to an adolescent who is postoperative for spinal fusion surgery?
A) Sleeps when not bothered but arouses easily with stimuli
B) Impaired color, sensitivity, and movement to lower extremities
C) Nausea relieved by antiemetics
D) Pain relieved by analgesics
Q2) A school nurse suspects that a child who fell at recess has a fractured arm. Which should the nurse consider when applying a splint to transport the child to the hospital?
A) The splint is applied firmly enough to prevent swelling.
B) The arm is fully extended in the splint.
C) The splint is fully padded to prevent skin damage.
D) The joints above and below the suspected fracture are immobilized by the splint.
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Chapter 57: The Child With Alterations in Skin Integrity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70710
Sample Questions
Q1) Which topics should be included in a teaching session with parents of school-age children to prevent frostbite? Select all that apply.
A) Dressing in layers
B) Having extra clothing available
C) Removing wet gloves immediately
D) Applying sunscreen twice per day
E) Wearing sunglasses while outside
Q2) Which is the priority nursing intervention for a 4-year-old client brought to the emergency department (ED) for treatment of frostbite?
A) Administer analgesics.
B) Immerse the hands in extremely warm water (120°F).
C) Do not remove clothing.
D) Place the extremity in a dependent position.
Q3) Which is the priority intervention when planning care for an infant who is diagnosed with eczema?
A) Applying antibiotics to lesions
B) Keeping the baby content
C) Maintaining adequate nutrition
D) Preventing infection of lesions
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