Obstetric Nursing Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Obstetric Nursing focuses on the specialized care provided to women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period. This course covers the physiological and psychological changes that occur throughout the childbearing process, assessment and management of normal and high-risk pregnancies, labor and delivery support, and care of the newborn. Students will learn about prenatal education, family involvement, complications of pregnancy and delivery, and evidence-based practices to promote maternal and neonatal health. Emphasis is placed on developing skills in patient assessment, communication, and collaboration within the multidisciplinary healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/168 Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2149
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse states to the newly pregnant patient, "Tell me how you feel about being pregnant." Which communication technique is the nurse using with this patient?
A) Clarifying
B) Paraphrasing
C) Reflection
D) Structuring
Answer: A
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse identify as a priority for a patient in active labor?
A) Risk for anxiety related to upcoming birth
B) Risk for imbalanced nutrition related to NPO status
C) Risk for altered family processes related to new addition to the family
D) Risk for injury (maternal) related to altered sensations and positional or physical changes
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2150
Sample Questions
Q1) Which step of the nursing process is being used when the nurse decides whether an ethical dilemma exists?
A) Analysis
B) Planning
C) Evaluation
D) Assessment
Answer: A
Q2) A nurse working in a labor and birth unit is asked to take care of two high-risk patients in the labor and birth suite: a 34 weeks' gestation 28-year-old gravida 3, para 2 in preterm labor and a 40-year-old gravida 1, para 0 who is severely preeclamptic. The nurse refuses this assignment telling the charge nurse that based on individual patient acuity, each patient should have one-on-one care. Which ethical principle is the nurse advocating?
A) Accountability
B) Beneficence
C) Justice
D) Fidelity
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2151
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is explaining the function of the male's cremaster muscle to a group of nursing students. Which statement accurately describes the function of the cremaster muscle?
A) Assists with transporting sperm
B) Aids in temperature control of the testicles
C) Aids in voluntary control of excretion of urine
D) Entraps blood in the penis to produce an erection
Answer: B
Q2) Which 16-year-old female patient is most likely to experience secondary amenorrhea?
A) 5 ft 2 in, 130 lb
B) 5 ft 9 in, 180 lb
C) 5 ft 7 in, 96 lb
D) 5 ft 4 in, 125 lb
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2152
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching prenatal patients about avoiding substances or conditions that can harm the fetus. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Elimination of use of alcohol
B) Avoidance of supplemental folic acid replacement
C) Stabilization of blood glucose levels in a diabetic patient with insulin
D) Avoidance of nonurgent radiologic procedures during the pregnancy
E) Avoidance of maternal hyperthermia to temperatures of 37.8°C (100°F) or higher
Q2) Testing for the cause of anomalies in a stillborn infant is underway. The mother angrily asks the nurse how long these tests are going to take. The nurse should understand that this mother is
A) exhibiting normal grief behavior.
B) trying to place blame on someone.
C) being impatient and unreasonable.
D) feeling guilty and blaming herself.
Q3) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%
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Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2153
Sample Questions
Q1) One of the assessments performed in the birth room is checking the umbilical cord for blood vessels. Which finding is considered to be within normal limits?
A) One artery and one vein
B) Two veins and one artery
C) Two arteries and one vein
D) Two arteries and two veins
Q2) The nurse is explaining fetal circulation to a group of nursing students. Which information should be included in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) After birth the ductus venosus remains open, but the other shunts close.
B) The foramen ovale shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium.
C) The ductus venosus shunts blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava.
D) The ductus arteriosus shunts blood from the right ventricle to the left ventricle.
Q3) What is the purpose of the ovum's zona pellucida?
A) Prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the ovum
B) Stimulates the ovum to begin mitotic cell division
C) Allows the 46 chromosomes from each gamete to merge
D) Makes a pathway for more than one sperm to reach the ovum
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Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient in her 37th week of pregnancy for the psychological responses commonly experienced as birth nears. Which psychological responses should the nurse expect to evaluate? (Select all that apply.)
A) The patient is excited to see her baby.
B) The patient has not started to prepare the nursery for the new baby.
C) The patient expresses concern about how to know if labor has started.
D) The patient and her spouse are concerned about getting to the birth center in time.
E) The patient and her spouse have not discussed how they will share household tasks.
Q2) While providing education to a primiparous patient regarding the normal changes of pregnancy, what is an important information for the nurse to share regarding Braxton Hicks contractions?
A) These contractions may indicate preterm labor.
B) These are contractions that never cause any discomfort.
C) Braxton Hicks contractions only start during the third trimester.
D) These occur throughout pregnancy, but you may not feel them until the third trimester.
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8
Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2155
Sample Questions
Q1) When a pregnant woman develops ptyalism, which guidance should the nurse provide?
A) Chew gum or suck on lozenges between meals.
B) Eat nutritious meals that provide adequate amounts of essential vitamins and minerals.
C) Take short walks to stimulate circulation in the legs and elevate the legs periodically.
D) Use pillows to support the abdomen and back during sleep.
Q2) A gravida 1 patient at 32 weeks of gestation reports that she has severe lower back pain. What should the nurse's assessment include?
A) Palpation of the lumbar spine
B) Exercise pattern and duration
C) Observation of posture and body mechanics
D) Ability to sleep for at least 6 hours uninterrupted
Q3) What does a birth plan help the parents accomplish?
A) Avoidance of an episiotomy
B) Determining the outcome of the birth
C) Assuming complete control of the situation
D) Taking an active part in planning the birth experience
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9
Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2156
Sample Questions
Q1) When planning a healthy diet with a pregnant patient, what should the nurse's first action be?
A) Teach the patient about MyPlate.
B) Review the patient's current dietary intake.
C) Instruct the patient to limit the intake of fatty foods.
D) Caution the patient to avoid large doses of vitamins, especially those that are fat-soluble.
Q2) A pregnant patient arrives for her first prenatal visit at the clinic. She informs the nurse that she has been taking an additional 400 mcg of folic acid prior to becoming pregnant. Based on the patient's history, she has reached 8 weeks' gestation. Which recommendation would the nurse provide regarding folic acid supplementation?
A) Have the patient continue to take 400 mcg folic acid throughout her pregnancy.
B) Tell the patient that she no longer has to take additional folic acid because it will be included in her prenatal vitamins.
C) Have the patient increase her folic acid intake to 1000 mcg throughout the rest of her pregnancy.
D) Schedule the patient to go for an AFP (alpha-fetoprotein) test.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2157
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient has received the results of her triple-screen testing and it is positive. She provides you with a copy of the test results that she obtained from the lab. What would the nurse anticipate as being implemented in the patient's plan of care?
A) No further testing is indicated at this time because results are normal.
B) Refer to the physician for additional testing.
C) Validate the results with the lab facility.
D) Repeat the test in 2 weeks and have the patient return for her regularly scheduled prenatal visit.
Q2) Which aspect of fetal diagnostic testing is most important to expectant parents?
A) Safety of the fetus
B) Duration of the test
C) Cost of the procedure
D) Physical discomfort caused by the procedure
Q3) Which factors should be considered a contraindication for transcervical chorionic villus sampling?
A) Rh-negative mother
B) Gestation less than 15 weeks
C) Maternal age younger than 35 years
D) Positive for group B Streptococcus
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
A) direct Coombs test of twin A.
B) direct Coombs test of twin B.
C) indirect Coombs test of the mother.
D) transcutaneous bilirubin level for both twins.
Q2) A blood-soaked peripad weighs 900g. The nurse would document a blood loss of _____ mL.
A) 1800
B) 450
C) 900
D) 90
Q3) Which finding would indicate concealed hemorrhage in abruptio placentae?
A) Bradycardia
B) Hard boardlike abdomen
C) Decrease in fundal height
D) Decrease in abdominal pain
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12
Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2159
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of healthy grieving?
A) The mother exhibits an absence of crying or expression of feelings.
B) The parents do not mention the baby in conversation with family members.
C) The mother asks that the baby be taken away from the delivery area quickly.
D) While holding the baby, the mother says to her husband, "He has your eyes and nose."
Q2) Which action is the most appropriate nursing measure when a baby has an unexpected defect at birth?
A) Remove the baby from the delivery area immediately.
B) Inform the parents immediately that something is wrong.
C) Tell the parents that the baby has to go to the nursery immediately.
D) Explain the defect and show the baby to the parents as soon as possible.
Q3) Which characteristics of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) should the nurse expect to assess in affected neonates? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hydrocephaly
B) Low activity
C) Epicanthal folds
D) Short palpebral fissures
E) Flat midface, with a low nasal bridge
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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2160
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient just delivered her baby via the vaginal route. The patient asks the nurse why the baby's head is not round, but oval. Which explanation should the nurse provide the patient?
A) This results from molding.
B) This results from lightening.
C) This results from the fetal lie.
D) This results from the fetal presentation.
Q2) Which clinical finding should the nurse expect to assess in the third stage of labor that indicates the placenta has separated from the uterine wall? (Select all that apply.)
A) A gush of blood appears.
B) The uterus rises upward in the abdomen.
C) The fundus descends below the umbilicus.
D) The cord descends further from the vagina.
E) The uterus becomes boggy and soft, with an elongated shape.
Q3) Uncontrolled maternal hyperventilation during labor results in
A) metabolic acidosis.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) respiratory alkalosis.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2161
Sample Questions
Q1) A major advantage of nonpharmacologic pain management is A) a more rapid labor is likely.
B) more complete pain relief is possible.
C) the woman remains fully alert at all times.
D) there are no side effects or risks to the fetus.
Q2) Which of the following factors would affect pain perception or tolerance for the laboring patient?
A) Right occiput posterior fetal position during labor
B) Bishop score of 10 prior to the induction of labor
C) Gynecoid pelvis
D) Absence of Ferguson's reflex
Q3) Which statement is true with regard to the type of pain associated with childbirth experience?
A) Pain is constant throughout the labor experience.
B) Labor pain during childbirth is considered to be an abnormal response.
C) Pain associated with childbirth is self-limiting.
D) Pain associated with childbirth does not allow for adequate preparation.
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15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2162
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most likely cause for this fetal heart rate pattern?
A) Administration of an epidural for pain relief during labor
B) Cord compression
C) Breech position of fetus
D) Administration of meperidine (Demerol) for pain relief during labor
Q2) When evaluating the patient's progress, the nurse knows that four of the five fetal factors that interact to regulate the heart rate are (Select all that apply.)
A) baroreceptors.
B) adrenal glands.
C) chemoreceptors.
D) uterine activity.
E) autonomic nervous system.
Q3) Which nursing action is correct when initiating electronic fetal monitoring?
A) Lubricate the tocotransducer with an ultrasound gel.
B) Securely apply the tocotransducer with a strap or belt.
C) Inform the patient that she should remain in the semi-Fowler position.
D) Determine the position of the fetus before attaching the electrode to the maternal abdomen.
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Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2163
Sample Questions
Q1) A laboring patient is 10 cm dilated; however, she does not feel the urge to push. The nurse understands that according to laboring down, the advantages of waiting until an urge to push are which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Less maternal fatigue
B) Less birth canal injuries
C) Decreased pushing time
D) Faster descent of the fetus
E) An increase in frequency of contractions
Q2) For which patient should the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion be discontinued immediately?
A) A patient in transition with contractions every 2 minutes lasting 90 seconds each
B) A patient in early labor with contractions every 5 minutes lasting 40 seconds each
C) A patient in active labor with contractions every 3 minutes lasting 60 seconds each
D) A patient in active labor with contractions every 2 to 3 minutes lasting 70 to 80 seconds each
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Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2164
Sample Questions
Q1) After a birth complicated by a shoulder dystocia, the infant's Apgar scores were 7 at 1 minute and 9 at 5 minutes. The infant is now crying vigorously. The nurse in the birthing room should
A) palpate the infant's clavicles.
B) encourage the parents to hold the infant.
C) perform a complete newborn assessment.
D) give supplemental oxygen with a small face mask.
Q2) A dose of dexamethasone 12 mg was administered to a patient in preterm labor at 0830 hours on March 12. The nurse knows that the next dose must be scheduled for
A) 1430 hours on March 12th.
B) 2030 hours on March 12th.
C) 0830 hours on March 13th.
D) 1430 hours on March 13th.
Q3) Which assessment finding indicates a complication in the patient attempting a vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC)?
A) Complaint of pain between the scapulae
B) Change in fetal baseline from 128 to 132 bpm
C) Contractions every 3 minutes lasting 70 seconds
D) Pain level of 6 on scale of 0 to 10 during acme of contraction
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2165
Sample Questions
Q1) Which should the nurse do to provide support to a patient who must return to full-time employment 6 weeks after a vaginal birth?
A) Discuss child care arrangements with her.
B) Allow her to solve the problem on her own.
C) Reassure her that she'll get used to leaving her baby.
D) Allow her to express her positive and negative feelings freely.
Q2) If the rubella vaccine is indicated for a postpartum patient, which instructions should be provided?
A) No specific instructions
B) Drinking plenty of fluids to prevent fever
C) Recommendation to stop breastfeeding for 24 hours after the injection
D) Explanation of the risks of becoming pregnant within 28 days following injection
Q3) To assess fundal contraction 6 hours after cesarean birth, which technique should the nurse utilize?
A) Assess lochial flow rather than palpating the fundus.
B) Palpate forcefully through the abdominal dressing.
C) Place hands on both sides of the abdomen and press downward.
D) Gently palpate, applying the same technique used for vaginal deliveries.
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2166
Sample Questions
Q1) A postpartum patient would be at increased risk for postpartum hemorrhage if she delivered a(n)
A) 5-lb, 2-oz infant with outlet forceps.
B) 6.5-lb infant after a 2-hour labor.
C) 7-lb infant after an 8-hour labor.
D) 8-lb infant after a 12-hour labor.
Q2) Which temperature indicates the presence of postpartum infection?
A) 37.5°C (99.6°F) in the first 48 hours
B) 37.7°C (100°F) for 2 days postpartum
C) 38°C (100.4°F) in the first 24 hours
D) 38.2°C (100.8°F) on the second and third postpartum days
Q3) Which patient data received during report should the nurse recognize as being at risk for postpartum complications?
A) Gravida 5, para 5
B) Labor duration of 4 hours
C) Infant weight greater than 3800 g
D) Epidural anesthesia for labor and birth
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A multiparous patient arrives to the labor unit and urgently states, "The baby is coming RIGHT NOW!" The nurse assists the patient into a comfortable position and delivers the infant. To prevent infant heat loss from conduction, what is the priority nursing action?
A) Dry the baby off.
B) Turn up the temperature in the patient's room.
C) Pour warmed water over the baby immediately after birth.
D) Place the baby on the patient's abdomen after the cord is cut.
Q2) Which method of heat loss may occur if a newborn is placed on a cold scale or touched with cold hands?
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Evaporation
Q3) The infant's heat loss immediately at birth is predominantly from
A) radiation.
B) conduction.
C) convection.
D) evaporation.
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2168
Sample Questions
Q1) The hips of a newborn are examined for developmental dysplasia. Which clinical finding indicates an incomplete development of the acetabulum?
A) Negative Barlow test
B) Equal knee heights
C) Negative Ortolani sign
D) Thigh and gluteal creases are asymmetric.
Q2) The nurse is performing a gestational age assessment on a newborn. Which characteristics indicate a preterm newborn? (Select all that apply.)
A) Translucent skin
B) Extended limp arms and legs
C) The ear springs back when folded
D) Square window angle of 45 degrees or less
E) Large clitoris and labia minora in the female newborn
Q3) Which assessment finding of a newborn requires prompt action by the nurse?
A) Respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute
B) Cyanosis of the extremities
C) Pause in breathing lasting 20 seconds
D) Pause in breathing for 15 seconds followed by rapid respirations
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22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A yellow crust has formed over the circumcision site. The mother calls the hotline at the local hospital 5 days after her son was circumcised. She is very concerned. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) The yellow crust should not be removed.
B) This yellow crust is an early sign of infection.
C) Discontinue the use of petroleum jelly to the tip of the penis.
D) After circumcision, the diaper should be changed frequently and fastened snugly.
Q2) The nurse is teaching new parents how to avoid and treat newborn diaper rash. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Keep the diaper area clean and dry.
B) Do not use talc-based powders in the diaper area.
C) Cleanse the diaper area with a scrubbing motion.
D) Apply a thick layer of zinc oxide to prevent further outbreaks.
E) Remove the diaper and expose the perineum to warm air if a rash develops.
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2170
Sample Questions
Q1) In which condition is breastfeeding contraindicated?
A) Triplet birth
B) Flat or inverted nipples
C) Human immunodeficiency virus infection
D) Inactive, previously treated tuberculosis
Q2) To prevent breast engorgement, what should the new breastfeeding mother be instructed to do?
A) Feed her infant no more than every 4 hours.
B) Limit her intake of fluids for the first few days.
C) Apply cold packs to the breast prior to feeding.
D) Breast-feed frequently and for adequate lengths of time.
Q3) Which woman is most likely to continue breastfeeding beyond 6 months?
A) A woman who avoids using bottles.
B) A woman who uses formula for every other feeding.
C) A woman who offers water or formula after breastfeeding.
D) A woman whose infant is satisfied for 4 hours after the feeding.
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Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational
Age and Development
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decreased surfactant production in the preterm lung is a problem because
A) surfactant keeps the alveoli open during expiration.
B) surfactant causes increased permeability of the alveoli.
C) surfactant dilates the bronchioles, decreasing airway resistance.
D) surfactant provides transportation for oxygen to enter the blood supply.
Q2) An infant delivered prematurely at 28 weeks' gestation weighs 1200 g. Based on this information the infant is classified as
A) SGA.
B) VLBW.
C) ELBW.
D) low birth weight at term.
Q3) A characteristic of a post-term infant who weighs 7 lb, 12 oz, and who lost weight in utero, is
A) soft and supple skin.
B) a hematocrit level of 55%.
C) lack of subcutaneous fat.
D) an abundance of vernix caseosa.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While in utero, the fetus passes meconium. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis takes priority for the newborn at birth?
A) Risk for infection related to release of meconium
B) Risk for injury related to high-risk birth interventions, such as amino infusion
C) Risk for aspiration related to retained secretions
D) Risk for thermoregulation because of high-risk labor status
Q2) Which of the following lab values indicates that an infant may have polycythemia?
A) Hct 50%
B) Hct 55%
C) Hct 62%
D) Hct 70%
Q3) The nurse should be alert to a blood group incompatibility if
A) both mother and infant are O-positive.
B) mother is A-positive and infant is A-negative.
C) mother is O-positive and infant is B-negative.
D) mother is B-positive and infant is O-negative.
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Chapter 25: Family Planning
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who has a successful career and a busy lifestyle will most likely look for which type of contraceptive?
A) Requires extensive education to use
B) Is the easiest and most convenient to use
C) Costs the least
D) Is permanent
Q2) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of contraception and the occurrence of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
A) As long as the oral contraception method is used correctly, there is no transmission of STDs during sexual activity.
B) Oral contraceptives provide the greatest protection against getting STDs.
C) Barrier methods, if used correctly, are more likely to protect individuals from STDs as compared with other contraceptive methods.
D) It is less likely to see transmission of STDs if patients engage in oral sex as opposed to vaginal penetration.
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Chapter 26: Infertility
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman undergoing evaluation of infertility states, "At least when we're through with all of these tests, we will know what is wrong." The nurse's best response is
A) "I know the test will identify what is wrong."
B) "I'm sure that once you finish these tests, your problem will be resolved."
C) "Even with diagnostic testing, infertility remains unexplained in about 20% of couples."
D) "Once you've identified your problem, you may want to look at the option of adoption."
Q2) A couple who has not achieved a successful pregnancy is scheduled to meet with a fertility specialist. Which simple evaluation is usually the first test to be performed?
A) Semen analysis
B) Testicular biopsy
C) Endometrial biopsy
D) Hysterosalpingography
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Chapter 27: Womens Health
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2175
Sample Questions
Q1) The physician diagnoses a 3-cm cyst in the ovary of a 28-year-old patient. You expect the initial treatment to include
A) initiating hormone therapy.
B) scheduling a laparoscopy to remove the cyst.
C) examining the patient after her next menstrual period.
D) aspirating the cyst and sending the fluid to pathology.
Q2) Which piece of the usual equipment setup for a pelvic examination is omitted with a Pap test?
A) Lubricant
B) Speculum
C) Fixative agent
D) Gloves and eye protectors
Q3) A benign breast condition that includes dilation and inflammation of the collecting ducts is known as
A) fibroadenoma.
B) ductal ectasia.
C) intraductal papilloma.
D) chronic cystic disease.
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