Obstetric Nursing Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Obstetric Nursing is designed to equip students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary to provide holistic care to women during pregnancy, labor, childbirth, and the postpartum period. This course covers the physiological, psychological, and social aspects of pregnancy, the assessment and management of normal and high-risk pregnancies, and the principles of fetal monitoring and neonatal care. Emphasis is placed on the nurses role in promoting maternal and fetal health, advocating for safe and evidence-based practices, and supporting families through their reproductive experiences. Through classroom instruction and clinical practice, students prepare to deliver compassionate, patient-centered obstetric care in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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37 Chapters
1131 Verified Questions
1131 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/167 Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2112
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a parenting class to new parents. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session about the characteristics of a healthy family?
A) Adults agree on the majority of basic parenting principles.
B) The parents and children have rigid assignments for all the family tasks.
C) Young families assume total responsibility for the parenting tasks, refusing any assistance.
D) The family is overwhelmed by the significant changes that occur as a result of childbirth.
Answer: A
Q2) Which situation is most representative of an extended family?
A) It includes adoptive children.
B) It is headed by a single parent.
C) It contains children from previous marriages.
D) It is composed of children, parents, and grandparents living in the same house.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is writing an expected outcome for the nursing diagnosis-acute pain related to trauma of tissue, secondary to vaginal birth, as evidenced by client stating pain of 8 on a scale of 10. Which is a correctly stated expected outcome for this problem?
A) Client will state that pain is a 2 on a scale of 10.
B) Client will have a reduction in pain after administration of the prescribed analgesic.
C) Client will state an absence of pain 1 hour after administration of the prescribed analgesic.
D) Client will state that pain is a 2 on a scale of 10, 1 hour after the administration of the prescribed analgesic.
Answer: D
Q2) Which most therapeutic response to the client's statement, "I'm afraid to have a cesarean birth" should be made by the nurse?
A) "Everything will be OK."
B) "Don't worry about it. It will be over soon."
C) "What concerns you most about a cesarean birth?"
D) "The physician will be in later and you can talk to him."
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing care to a patient who was just admitted to the labor and birth unit in active labor at term. The patient informed the nurse that she has not received any prenatal care because "I cannot afford to go to the doctor. And, this is my third baby, so I know what to expect." What is the nurse's primary concern when developing the patient's plan of care?
A) Low birth weight
B) Oligohydramnios
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Gestational hypertension
Answer: A
Q2) At the present time, surrogate parenting is governed by which of the following?
A) State law
B) Federal law
C) Individual court decision
D) Protective child services
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school nurse is conducting health education classes for a group of adolescent girls. Which are the actions of the estrogen hormone on the female body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Stimulates contractions during birth
B) Relaxes pelvic ligaments during pregnancy
C) Stimulates the endometrium before ovulation
D) Stimulates growth of uterus during pregnancy
E) Stimulates the let-down reflex during breastfeeding
Q2) Which hormone is responsible for milk production after the birth of the placenta?
A) Pitocin
B) Prolactin
C) Estrogen
D) Progesterone
Q3) Which hormonal effect is noted during the menstrual cycle?
A) LH and FSH secretion rise during the ovulatory phase.
B) A negative feedback mechanism is exhibited by the anterior pituitary gland and ovaries.
C) The posterior pituitary gland secretes LH.
D) Estrogen secretion enhances FSH secretion.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is working with a client to obtain information needed for genetic counseling. Which tool will be used to obtain this information?
A) Braden scale
B) Genogram
C) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
D) Serum protein electrophoresis
Q2) The clinic nurse is reviewing charts on prenatal clients. Which client histories should the nurse understand that a referral to a genetic counselor is warranted? (Select all that apply.)
A) A father who is aged 35
B) A client having a first baby at age 30
C) A family history of unexplained stillbirths
D) A client with a family history of birth defects
E) A client who is a carrier of an X-linked disorder
Q3) Which statement is true of multifactorial disorders?
A) They may not be evident until later in life.
B) They are usually present and detectable at birth.
C) The disorders are characterized by multiple defects.
D) Secondary defects are rarely associated with them.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after birth. After assigning the first Apgar score of 9, the nurse notes two vessels in its umbilical cord. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.
B) Note the assessment finding in the infant's chart.
C) Notify the health care provider of the assessment finding.
D) Call for the neonatal resuscitation team to attend the infant immediately.
Q2) The nurse is explaining the process of cell division during the preembryonic period to a group of nursing students. Which describes the morula?
A) Fertilized ovum before mitosis begins
B) Double layer of cells that becomes the placenta
C) Flattened, disk-shaped layer of cells within a fluid-filled sphere
D) Solid ball composed of the first cells formed after fertilization
Q3) An expectant father asks the nurse, "Which part of the mature sperm contains the male chromosomes?" What is the best response by the nurse?
A) X-bearing sperm
B) The tail of the sperm
C) The head of the sperm
D) The middle portion of the sperm
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the pregnant woman develops changes caused by pregnancy, the nurse recognizes that the darkly pigmented vertical midabdominal line is the:
A) epulis.
B) linea nigra.
C) melasma.
D) striae gravidarum.
Q2) A client notices that the health care provider writes "positive Chadwick's sign" on her chart. She asks the nurse what this means. Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "It means the cervix is softening."
B) "That refers to a positive sign of pregnancy."
C) "It refers to the bluish color of the cervix in pregnancy."
D) "The doctor was able to flex the uterus against the cervix."
Q3) A gravida client at 32 weeks of gestation reports that she has severe lower back pain. What should the nurse's assessment include?
A) Palpation of the lumbar spine
B) Exercise pattern and duration
C) Observation of posture and body mechanics
D) Ability to sleep for at least 6 hours uninterrupted
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Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which comment made by a new mother to her own mother is most likely to encourage the grandmother's participation in the infant's care?
A) "Could you help me with the housework today?"
B) "The baby is spitting up a lot. What should I do?"
C) "I know you are busy, so I'll get John's mother to help me."
D) "The baby has a stomachache. I'll call the nurse to find out what to do."
Q2) Which client may require more help and understanding when integrating the newborn into the family?
A) A primipara from an upper income family
B) A primipara who comes from a large family
C) A multipara (gravida 2) who has a supportive husband and mother
D) A multipara (gravida 6) who has two children younger than 3 years
Q3) Which comment made by a client in her first trimester indicates ambivalent feelings?
A) "My body is changing so quickly."
B) "I haven't felt well since this pregnancy began."
C) "I'm concerned about the amount of weight I've gained."
D) "I wanted to become pregnant, but I'm scared about being a mother."
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Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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53 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The health care provider has recommended an iron supplement for the patient who is 20 weeks pregnant. The nurse is reviewing the recommendation with the patient. What fluid is best for the nurse to recommend when taking an iron supplement?
A) 8 ounces of milk
B) 8 ounces of water
C) 4 ounces of orange juice
D) 4 ounces of apple juice
Q2) The nurse is teaching a pregnant client about food safety during pregnancy and lactation. Which statements by the client indicate she understood the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
A) "I will limit my intake of shrimp to 12 oz a week."
B) "I will avoid the soft cheeses made with unpasteurized milk."
C) "I plan to continue to pack my bologna sandwich for lunch."
D) "I am glad I can still go to the sushi bar during my pregnancy."
E) "I will not eat any swordfish or shark while I am pregnant or nursing."
Q3) Magnesium
A)Important in cell growth and neuromuscular function
B)Important in thyroid function
C)Important in DNA and RNA synthesis
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?
A) Biophysical profile
B) Multiple-marker screening
C) Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
D) Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum
Q2) What does nursing care after amniocentesis include?
A) Forcing fluids by mouth
B) Monitoring uterine activity
C) Placing the client in a supine position for 2 hours
D) Applying a pressure dressing to the puncture site
Q3) Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
A)A test for estimating fetal lung maturity
B)A test to assess blood flow to identify abnormalities
C)A test to diagnose fetal chromosomal, metabolic, or DNA abnormalities
Q4) What does a score of 9 on a biophysical profile signify?
A) Normal
B) Abnormal
C) Equivocal
D) Nonreactive
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The labor nurse is reviewing breathing techniques with a primipara admitted for induction of labor. When is the best time to encourage the laboring patient to use slow, deep chest breathing with contractions?
A) During labor, when she can no longer talk through contractions
B) During the first stage of labor, when the contractions are 3 to 4 minutes apart
C) Between contractions, during the transitional phase of the first stage of labor
D) Between her efforts to push to facilitate relaxation between contractions
Q2) Which client is most likely to experience pain during labor?
A) Gravida 1 whose fetus is in a breech presentation
B) Gravida 3 who is using Lamaze breathing techniques
C) Gravida 2 who is anxious because her last labor was difficult
D) Gravida 2 who has not attended childbirth preparation classes
Q3) Which phrase best describes neuromuscular dissociation?
A) Loosening taut muscles when touched by another person
B) Contracting and consciously releasing different muscle groups
C) Relaxing while someone is applying pressure against a tendon or large muscle
D) Relaxing the rest of the body while one group of muscles is strongly contracted
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A laboring patient states to the nurse, "I have to push!" What is the next nursing action?
A) Contact the health care provider.
B) Examine the patient's cervix for dilation.
C) Review with her how to bear down with contractions.
D) Ask her partner to support her head with each push.
Q2) A client asks the nurse how she can tell if labor is real? What should the nurse give as an explanation? (Select all that apply.)
A) In true labor, the cervix begins to dilate.
B) In true labor, the contractions are felt in the abdomen and groin.
C) In true labor, contractions often resemble menstrual cramps during early labor.
D) In true labor, contractions are inconsistent in frequency, duration, and intensity in the early stages.
E) In true labor your contractions tend to increase in frequency, duration, and intensity with walking.
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14
Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a low-risk client in the active phase of labor. At which interval should the nurse assess the fetal heart rate?
A) Every 15 minutes
B) Every 30 minutes
C) Every 45 minutes
D) Every 1 hour
Q2) At 5 minutes after birth, the nurse assesses that the neonate's heart rate is 96 bpm, respirations are spontaneous, with a strong cry, body posture is flexed with vigorous movement, reflexes are brisk, and there is cyanosis of the hands and feet. What Apgar score will the nurse assign?
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
Q3) Which comfort measure should a nurse use to assist a laboring woman to relax?
A) Recommend frequent position changes.
B) Palpate her filling bladder every 15 minutes.
C) Offer warm wet cloths to use on the client's face and neck.
D) Keep the room lights lit so the client and her coach can see everything.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following therapeutic applications provides the most accurate information related to uterine contraction strength?
A) External fetal monitoring (EFM)
B) Internal fetal monitoring
C) Intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC)
D) Maternal comments based on perception
Q2) Which is the most appropriate method of intrapartum fetal monitoring when a woman has a history of hypertension during pregnancy?
A) Continuous auscultation with a fetoscope
B) Continuous electronic fetal monitoring
C) Intermittent assessment with a Doppler transducer
D) Intermittent electronic fetal monitoring for 15 minutes each hour
Q3) The fetal heart rate baseline increases 20 bpm after vibroacoustic stimulation. The best interpretation of this is that the fetus is showing:
A) a worsening hypoxia.
B) progressive acidosis.
C) a reassuring response.
D) parasympathetic stimulation.
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Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a childbirth education class. Which information about excessive pain in labor should the nurse include in the session?
A) It usually results in a more rapid labor.
B) It has no effect on the outcome of labor.
C) It is considered to be a normal occurrence.
D) It may result in decreased placental perfusion.
Q2) The nurse is preparing a client for a cesarean section scheduled to be done under general anesthesia. Which should the nurse plan to administer, if ordered by the health care provider, to prevent aspiration of gastric contents? (Select all that apply.)
A) Citric acid (Bicitra)
B) Ranitidine (Zantac)
C) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
D) Glycopyrrolate (Robinul)
E) Promethazine (Phenergan)
Q3) Childbirth pain is different from other types of pain in that it is:
A) less intense.
B) associated with a physiologic process.
C) more responsive to pharmacologic management.
D) designed to make one withdraw from the stimulus.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The priority nursing care associated with an oxytocin infusion is:
A) measuring urinary output.
B) evaluating cervical dilation.
C) monitoring uterine response.
D) increasing infusion rate every 30 minutes.
Q2) Which assessment would be important for a 6-hour-old infant who has bruising over the cheeks from a forceps birth?
A) Presence of newborn reflexes
B) Symmetry of facial movements
C) Caput and molding of the head
D) Anterior and posterior fontanels
Q3) Before the health care provider performs an external version, the nurse should expect an order for a:
A) Foley catheter.
B) tocolytic drug.
C) local anesthetic.
D) contraction stress test (CST).
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rho(D) immune globulin will be ordered postpartum if which situation occurs?
A) Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-positive
B) Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-negative
C) Mother Rh-positive, baby Rh-positive
D) Mother Rh-positive, baby Rh-negative
Q2) A postpartum client overhears the nurse tell the health care provider that she has a positive Homans sign and asks what it means. Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "You have pitting edema in your ankles."
B) "You have deep tendon reflexes rated 2+."
C) "You have calf pain when the nurse flexes your foot."
D) "You have a 'fleshy' odor to your vaginal drainage."
Q3) Which fundal assessment finding at 12 hours after birth requires further assessment?
A) The fundus is palpable at the level of the umbilicus.
B) The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus.
C) The fundus is palpable one fingerbreadth below the umbilicus.
D) The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths below the umbilicus.
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which phase of maternal adjustment will the mother relinquish the baby of her fantasies and accept the real baby?
A) Letting-go
B) Taking-in
C) Taking-on
D) Taking-hold
Q2) The postpartum nurse is reviewing dietary practices for an Asian client. Which should the nurse expect to observe as a dietary practice for this culture?
A) Food brought from home
B) Preference for fresh fruits
C) Preference for "cold" foods
D) Request for ice water instead of hot water
Q3) The postpartum client who continually repeats the story of her labor, birth, and recovery experiences is doing which?
A) Making the birth experience "real"
B) Accepting her response to labor and birth
C) Providing others with her knowledge of events
D) Taking hold of the events leading to her labor and birth
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20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A meconium stool can be differentiated from a transitional stool in the newborn because the meconium stool is:
A) seen at 3 days of age.
B) the residue of a milk curd.
C) passed in the first 24 hours of life.
D) lighter in color and looser in consistency.
Q2) The process in which bilirubin is changed from a fat-soluble product to a water-soluble product is known as:
A) albumin binding.
B) enterohepatic circuit.
C) conjugation of bilirubin.
D) deconjugation of bilirubin.
Q3) Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
A)Only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta
B)First immunoglobulin produced by the newborn when stressed
C)Important in protection of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system
Q4) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
A)Only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta
B)First immunoglobulin produced by the newborn when stressed
C)Important in protection of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant at term was born at 0105, or 1:05 AM. The nurse is developing a plan of care for the newborn. During which time range will the nurse plan on performing the assessment to determine a Ballard score?
A) 0115-0130
B) 0200-0600
C) 1400-1800
D) 2000-2300
Q2) The hips of a newborn are examined for developmental dysplasia. Which sign indicates an incomplete development of the acetabulum?
A) Negative Barlow test
B) Equal knee heights
C) Negative Ortolani sign
D) Thigh and gluteal creases are asymmetric
Q3) The nurse is receiving a shift report in the newborn nursery. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A) 38-weeks' gestation female newborn with a blood sugar level of 60 mg/dL
B) Term male newborn with a noted axillary temperature of 37.2° C (99° F)
C) 40-weeks' gestation female newborn with reported poor feed at last attempt
D) 39-weeks' gestation male newborn who has been crying prior to initial bath
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has just completed discharge teaching to parents on newborn bathing. Which statement made by the parents indicates a further need for teaching? (Select all that apply.)
A) "We will clean the diaper area last."
B) "We will use cotton-tipped swabs to clean the ears."
C) "We will use an antibacterial soap during the sponge bath."
D) "We can submerge the baby in a tub of water after the cord falls off."
E) "We will shampoo the baby's head using a football hold before unwrapping."
Q2) What should the nurse teach to parents about using a bulb syringe?
A) Use it only once a day.
B) Suction the back of the throat vigorously.
C) Insert the syringe into the sides of the mouth.
D) Always suction the mouth before suctioning the nose.
Q3) Which principle is important in providing and teaching cord care?
A) Cord care is done only to control bleeding.
B) Alcohol is the only agent used for cord care.
C) It takes a minimum of 24 days for the cord to separate.
D) Keeping the cord dry will decrease bacterial growth.
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23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client should be taught that when her infant falls asleep after feeding for only a few minutes, she should do which of the following?
A) Unwrap and gently arouse the infant.
B) Wait an hour and attempt to feed again.
C) Try offering a bottle at the next feeding.
D) Put the infant in the crib and try again later.
Q2) What is the most serious consequence of propping an infant's bottle?
A) Colic
B) Aspiration
C) Dental caries
D) Ear infections
Q3) Which is the hormone necessary for milk production?
A) Estrogen
B) Prolactin
C) Progesterone
D) Lactogen
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Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new mother asks, "Why should I bring my baby in for a checkup? He isn't sick." Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "Please ask your pediatrician to explain this to you."
B) "He may have a problem that you haven't identified."
C) "These visits are required by law to identify communicable diseases."
D) "Well-baby visits allow the doctor to determine whether your baby is growing and developing normally."
Q2) Which statement is true about growth and development during the first 6 months?
A) The infant will grow 1 cm in length per month.
B) The infant will gain about 2 pounds per month.
C) The infant will regain weight lost after birth within 1 week.
D) The infant will have a 1-inch increase in head circumference per month.
Q3) Parents ask the nurse, "How many wet diapers a day should we expect and how will we know the baby's stools are normal?" Which response should the nurse make if the infant is being formula fed? (Select all that apply.)
A) The stools should be watery.
B) The stools should be dry and hard.
C) The infant should have at least one stool a day.
D) The infant should have at least six wet diapers a day.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an appropriate nursing measure when a baby has an unexpected defect?
A) Remove the baby from the delivery area immediately.
B) Inform the parents immediately that something is wrong.
C) Tell the parents that the baby has to go to the nursery immediately.
D) Explain the defect and show the baby to the parents as soon as possible.
Q2) A pregnant client who abuses cocaine admits to exchanging sex for her drug habit. This behavior puts her at a greater risk for:
A) postmature birth.
B) Sexually transmitted diseases.
C) Hypotension and vasodilation.
D) Depression of the central nervous system.
Q3) Which should the nurse do when counseling a teenage client who has decided to relinquish her baby for adoption?
A) Question her about her feelings regarding adoption.
B) Tell her she can always change her mind about adoption.
C) Affirm her decision while acknowledging her maturity in making it.
D) Ask her if anyone is coercing her into the decision to relinquish her baby.
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26
Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) An abortion when the fetus dies but is retained in the uterus is called:
A) inevitable.
B) missed.
C) incomplete.
D) threatened.
Q2) A laboratory finding indicative of DIC is:
A) decreased fibrinogen.
B) increased platelets.
C) increased hematocrit.
D) decreased thromboplastin time.
Q3) The physician suspects that the client may have gestational trophoblastic disease. Which clinical manifestations support this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased levels of beta-hCG in the serum
B) Fundal height correlating with reported gestational age
C) Vaginal bleeding
D) Vomiting
E) Maternal hypotension
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27
Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?
A) Rubella
B) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
C) Syphilis
D) HIV
Q2) Which instructions should the nurse include when teaching a pregnant client with Class II heart disease?
A) Advise her to gain at least 30 pounds.
B) Instruct her to avoid strenuous activity.
C) Inform her of the need to limit fluid intake.
D) Explain the importance of a diet high in calcium.
Q3) Which client teaching instructions are necessary for a pregnant client who is to undergo a glucose challenge test (GCT) as part of a routine pregnancy treatment plan?
A) Consume a low-fat diet for 48 hours prior to testing.
B) Fast for 12 hours prior to testing.
C) There are no dietary restrictions prior to testing.
D) Consume a consistent carbohydrate diet (60 g) prior to testing.
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Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a birth complicated by a shoulder dystocia, the infant's Apgar scores were 7 at 1 minute and 9 at 5 minutes. The infant is now crying vigorously. The nurse in the birthing room should:
A) palpate the infant's clavicles.
B) encourage the parents to hold the infant.
C) perform a complete newborn assessment.
D) give supplemental oxygen with a small face mask.
Q2) Which finding would indicate an adverse response to terbutaline (Brethine)?
A) Fetal heart rate (FHR) of 134 bpm
B) Heart rate of 122 bpm
C) Two episodes of diarrhea
D) Fasting blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL
Q3) When reviewing the prenatal record of a client at 42 weeks' gestation, the nurse recognizes that induction of labor is indicated based on the finding of:
A) reduced amniotic fluid volume.
B) cervix 2 cm at last prenatal visit.
C) fundal height measured at the xyphoid process.
D) 1-pound weight gain at each of the last two weekly visits.
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Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing measure would be appropriate to prevent thrombophlebitis in the recovery period following a cesarean birth?
A) Limit the client's oral intake of fluids for the first 24 hours.
B) Assist the client in performing leg exercises every 2 hours.
C) Ambulate the client as soon as her vital signs are stable.
D) Roll a bath blanket and place it firmly behind the client's knees.
Q2) Which information should the nurse recognize as contributing to mastitis in the breastfeeding mother? (Select all that apply.)
A) Insufficient emptying
B) Feeding every 2 hours
C) Supplementing feedings
D) Blisters on both nipples
E) Alternating breastfeeding positions
Q3) Which data collected during your assessment may indicate a vaginal wall hematoma?
A) Firm uterus at U-1
B) Pulse rate of 110 bpm
C) Moderate lochia
D) Soreness of perineum
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Page 30
Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn assessment finding that would support the nursing diagnosis of postmaturity would be:
A) loose skin.
B) ruddy skin color.
C) presence of vernix.
D) absence of lanugo.
Q2) Decreased surfactant production in the preterm lung is a problem because:
A) Surfactant keeps the alveoli open during expiration.
B) Surfactant causes increased permeability of the alveoli.
C) Surfactant dilates the bronchioles, decreasing airway resistance.
D) Surfactant provides transportation for oxygen to enter the blood supply.
Q3) Which nursing diagnosis would be considered a priority for a newborn infant who is receiving phototherapy in an isolette?
A) Hypothermia because of phototherapy treatment
B) Impaired skin integrity related to diarrhea as a result of phototherapy
C) Fluid volume deficit related to phototherapy treatment
D) Knowledge deficit (parents) related to initiation of medical therapy
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Page 31
Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) While caring for a post-term infant, the nurse recognizes that the elevated hematocrit level most likely results from:
A) hypoxia in utero.
B) underproduction of red blood cells.
C) increased breakdown of red blood cells.
D) the normal expected shift from fetal hemoglobin to normal hemoglobin.
Q2) The difference between pathologic jaundice and physiologic jaundice is that pathologic jaundice:
A) usually results in kernicterus.
B) appears during the first 24 hours of life.
C) begins on the head and progresses down the body.
D) results from the breakdown of excessive erythrocytes not needed after birth.
Q3) Four hours after the birth of a healthy neonate of an insulin-dependent (type 1) diabetic mother, the baby appears jittery and irritable and has a high-pitched cry. Which nursing action has top priority?
A) Notify the clinician stat.
B) Test for the blood glucose level.
C) Start an intravenous line with D5W.
D) Document the event in the nurses' notes.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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Sample
Questions
Q1) A client is 27 years old and delivered her first baby yesterday. She and her husband do not want to have another baby for at least 3 to 4 years. The best method of birth control to meet their needs is:
A) withdrawal.
B) fertility awareness method.
C) combination of condoms and foam.
D) vasectomy with a reversal in 3 years.
Q2) The major difference between the diaphragm and the cervical cap is that the diaphragm:
A) is more effective.
B) requires spermicide.
C) applies pressure on the urethra.
D) has no contribution to toxic shock syndrome.
Q3) The role of the nurse in family planning is to:
A) refer the couple to a reliable physician.
B) decide on the best method for the couple.
C) advise couples on which contraceptive to use.
D) educate couples on the various methods of contraception.
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Chapter 32: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors would contribute to abnormalities of the fallopian tube associated with the development of infertility? (Select all that apply.)
A) History of conization of the cervix
B) History of pelvic surgical procedures
C) Incompetent cervix
D) Past treatments of STD with follow-up test of cure
E) Endometriosis
Q2) A couple who has not achieved a successful pregnancy is scheduled to meet with a fertility specialist. Which simple evaluation is usually the first test to be performed?
A) Semen analysis
B) Testicular biopsy
C) Endometrial biopsy
D) Hysterosalpingography
Q3) Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest:
A) inadequate fructose.
B) inflammation of the testes.
C) an infection of the genital tract.
D) an obstruction in the vas deferens.
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Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Q1) While performing a self-breast exam, the client notes an area on the right breast that is nodular, with some associated tenderness. This is a new onset finding because the exams were not problematic in the past,. The left breast examination is unremarkable. The client calls to report her findings to the clinical nurse because this is not her typical result. What action should the nurse take next?
A) Refer the client to an oncologist because the results sound suspicious.
B) Ask the client to come in for an office visit so that the findings can be validated but tell her that this information is within the normal range of presentation.
C) Have the client wear a tight-fitting bra and tell her that the tenderness is associated with ovulation and will pass.
D) Have the client repeat the self-breast exam in 2 weeks and call back with findings to provide a basis for comparison.
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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Q1) Which treatment option minimizes the development of lymphedema in the surgical management of a client with breast cancer?
A) Radical mastectomy procedure
B) Radiation therapy
C) Sentinel lymph node mapping
D) Ultrasound
Q2) A benign breast condition that includes dilation and inflammation of the collecting ducts is:
A) fibroadenoma.
B) ductal ectasia.
C) intraductal papilloma.
D) chronic cystic disease.
Q3) Which client is most at risk for fibroadenoma of the breast?
A) Janice, 38 years old
B) Helen, 50 years old
C) Mary, 16 years old
D) Anna, 27 years old
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