Nutrition for Health Professions Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Nutrition for Health Professions provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental principles of nutrition and their application within various health care settings. The course covers essential nutrients, dietary guidelines, metabolism, and the role of nutrition in disease prevention and management. Students will learn to assess nutritional status, design appropriate dietary plans, and understand the nutritional needs of diverse populations across the lifespan. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practice, cultural competence, and integration of nutrition knowledge into clinical decision-making to optimize patient outcomes and promote overall public health.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Nutrition 14th Edition by Eleanor Noss Whitney
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Overview of Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before publication in a reputable journal, the findings of a research study must undergo scrutiny by experts in the field in a process known as ____.
A)peer review
B)cohort review
C)research intervention
D)double-blind examination
E)peer replication
Answer: A
Q2) The overall objective of the Healthy People program is to ____.
A)establish the DRI
B)identify national trends in food consumption
C)identify leading causes of death in the United States
D)set goals for the nation's health over the next 10 years
E)decrease health care costs
Answer: D
Q3) Foods that provide health benefits beyond their nutrient contributions are called ____________________ foods.
Answer: functional
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3
Chapter 2: Planning a Healthy Diet
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Q1) Applying the principle of variety in food planning helps ensure the benefits of ____.
A)moderation
B)vegetarianism
C)nutrient density
D)dilution of harmful substances
E)abundance
Answer: D
Q2) In vegetarians, the RDA is higher for ____.
A)iron
B)folate
C)calcium
D)vitamin A
E)protein
Answer: A
Q3) ____________________ refers to a measure of the nutrients a food provides relative to the energy it provides.
Answer: Nutrient density
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Chapter 3: Digestion, Absorption, and Transport
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Q1) What is the name given to partially digested food in the stomach?
A)Chyme
B)Liquid food
C)Gastric mucus
D)Semiliquid mass
E)Bolus
Answer: A
Q2) ____________________ refers to the maintenance of constant internal conditions (such as blood chemistry, temperature, and blood pressure) by the body's control systems.
Answer: Homeostasis
Q3) Which nutrient is most associated with increased production of intestinal gas?
A)Iron
B)Fats
C)Proteins
D)Carbohydrates
E)Fat-soluble vitamins
Answer: D
Q4) One of the major causes of ulcers is infection with ____________________.
Answer: Helicobacter pylori or H. pylori
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Chapter 4: The Carbohydrates: Sugars, Starches, and Fibers
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the RDA for carbohydrate?
A)10 g
B)45 g
C)130 g
D)250 g
E)400 g
Q2) Which statement is true of hypoglycemia?
A)It is treated with insulin injections.
B)It is aggravated by high-fiber foods.
C)It is classified as a pre-diabetic condition.
D)It rarely occurs in otherwise healthy people.
E)It is quite common in teenagers but less so in adults and older adults.
Q3) What is the predominant grain product in much of South and Central America?
A)rice
B)corn
C)millet
D)wheat
E)quinoa
Q4) Discuss the concepts of sugar cravings and addictions.
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Q5) Describe the benefits and adverse effects of the common alternative sweeteners.
Chapter 5: The Lipids: Triglycerides, Phospholipids, and
Sterols
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Q1) What methods are used by the food industry to inhibit rancidity of the unsaturated lipids in foods?
Q2) Which statement describes a feature of trans-fatty acids?
A)In nature, most double bonds are trans.
B)Hydrogenation converts trans-fatty acids to cis-fatty acids.
C)The conversion of cis-fatty acids to trans-fatty acids is inhibited by the presence of antioxidants.
D)In the body, trans-fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats.
E)The hydrogen atoms are located on the same side of a double bond.
Q3) Cholesterol from outside the body is called ____________________ cholesterol.
Q4) What are the substances resistin and adiponectin?
A)Glycolipids that regulate synthesis of lipoproteins
B)Intestinal cell hormones that regulate secretion of bile
C)Intestinal cell hormones that trigger secretion of pancreatic juice
D)Proteins secreted from fat cells that help regulate energy balance
E)Substances that dampen inflammation and decrease insulin resistance
Q5) Discuss the roles of hormone-sensitive lipase and lipoprotein lipase in the metabolism of fats.
Q6) Explain the possible links between dietary fat intake and cancer. Page 7
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Chapter 6: Protein: Amino Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Provide examples of how the dietary habits of grandparents can influence the body's metabolism and susceptibility to disease in future generations.
Q2) What amino acid supplement has been advertised in the popular media for treating herpes infections?
A)Lysine
B)Arginine
C)Tryptophan
D)Phenylalanine
E)Methionine
Q3) Which of the following food proteins has the best assortment of essential amino acids for the human body?
A)Egg
B)Rice
C)Corn
D)Gelatin
E)Soy
Q4) Compare and contrast the quality of protein foods derived from animals versus plants.
Q5) Define protein denaturation and provide an example of a denatured protein.
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Chapter 7: Energy Metabolism
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Q1) If a person consumes 100 kcalories in excess of energy needs from olive oil, approximately what percentage of the kcalories are stored in the body?
A)55%
B)65%
C)75%
D)85%
E)95%
Q2) What is a possible metabolic reaction in the cell?
A)Pyruvate to urea
B)Lactate to pyruvate
C)Acetyl CoA to pyruvate
D)Carbon dioxide to glycerol
E)Fatty acids to glucose
Q3) The metabolism of alcohol begins in the ____.
A)liver
B)brain
C)stomach
D)intestines
E)mouth
Q4) List six common myths concerning alcohol use and discuss ways to dispel them.
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Energy Balance and Body Composition
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Q1) Why does use of the BMI overestimate the prevalence of obesity in the African-American population?
A)Blacks have a higher average height than whites.
B)Blacks have denser bones and higher body protein concentrations than whites.
C)Blacks tend to have different proportions of brown and white adipose tissue than whites.
D)The fat pads in blacks are situated primarily around the hips, whereas in whites the pads are primarily abdominal.
E)Blacks have both lower average height and higher average weight than whites.
Q2) When an adult gains an extra 10 pounds of body weight, approximately how much of this weight is fat?
A)1 lb
B)2.5 lbs
C)5 lbs
D)7.5 lbs
E)9 lbs
Q3) Explain the adverse effects of excess body fat deposited around the abdominal region.
Q4) An individual with a BMI of ____________________ or more is said to be obese.
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Chapter 9: Weight Management: Overweight, Obesity, and Underweight
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Q1) Describe the approaches for weight loss by surgery. What are the benefits and what are the adverse side effects of these procedures?
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of meal eating?
A)Taking large bites helps to reduce food intake.
B)Faster eating correlates with higher body weight.
C)Total kcal intake in higher when meals are eaten more slowly.
D)Satiety hormones are blunted when meals are eaten more slowly.
E)Eating on a smaller plate increases food intake.
Q3) What is Prader-Willi syndrome?
A)Altered receptor activity for leptin
B)A genetic disorder resulting in obesity
C)Fat accumulation in the liver of gastric bypass patients
D)A failure to adapt to alternating periods of excess and inadequate energy intake
E)A genetic disorder triggered by environmental toxins that results in obesity
Q4) Explain the set point theory of weight change.
Q5) Explain the role of lipoprotein lipase enzyme in fat cell metabolism.
Q6) An estimated ____________________ percent of U.S. children and adolescents aged 2 to 19 years are either overweight or obese.
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Chapter 10: The Water-Soluble Vitamins: B Vitamins and Vitamin C
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Q1) Which of the following functions has a requirement for thiamin?
A)Blood coagulation
B)Formation of red blood cells
C)Energy release from energy-yielding nutrients
D)Formation of epithelial cell mucopolysaccharides
E)Production of histamine
Q2) Which of the following is an early sign of vitamin C deficiency?
A)Bleeding gums
B)Pernicious anemia
C)Appearance of a cold
D)Hysteria and depression
E)Oily skin
Q3) Water-soluble vitamins are absorbed directly into ____________________.
Q4) What nutrient is responsible for causing the most accidental ingestion deaths in children?
A)Iron
B)Calcium
C)Vitamin A
D)Vitamin D
E)Magnesium
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Chapter 11: The Fat-Soluble Vitamins: A, D, E, and K
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Q1) Which of the following enables much of the world's population to maintain adequate vitamin D status?
A)Outdoor exposure of the skin to sunlight
B)Wide availability of low-cost fish products
C)Wide availability of food assistance programs
D)World Health Organization distribution of vitamin D capsules
E)Genetically modified crops such as Golden Rice
Q2) Discuss the adverse effects of free radicals.
Q3) Which of the following is a property of the fat-soluble vitamins?
A)Most of them are synthesized by intestinal bacteria
B)Intestinal transport occurs by way of the portal circulation
C)Deficiency symptoms may take years to develop on a poor diet
D)Toxicity risk is higher for vitamins E and K than for other fat-soluble vitamins
E)Deficiencies are more common in industrialized nations than in developing nations.
Q4) In ____________________, the bones fail to calcify normally, causing growth retardation and skeletal abnormalities.
Q5) Explain the difficulties in obtaining the recommended amounts of vitamin D from the diet.
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Chapter 12: Water and 123 the Major Minerals
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Q1) What is the calcium UL (mg/day) for college-aged adults?
A)1,500
B)2,500
C)3,000
D)5,000
E)7,500
Q2) Which of the following is the primary function of potassium?
A)Participates in wound healing
B)Helps maintain gastric acidity
C)Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte
D)Protects bone structures against degeneration
E)Acts as a neurotransmitter
Q3) Ions that carry a positive charge are called A)anions.
B)cations.
C)mineralytes.
D)valence ions.
E)proions.
Q4) Explain the functions of parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin D in the regulation of calcium metabolism.
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Chapter 13: The Trace Minerals
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency and behavior?
A)Erythrocyte iron levels fall before mental alertness is affected
B)Moderate iron deficiency promotes constipation
C)Mild iron deficiency impairs energy metabolism and neurotransmitter synthesis
D)Iron deficiency increases risk for infections that promote dysfunctional behavior
E)Severe iron deficiency is associated with paradoxical hyperactivity.
Q2) When iron concentrations become abnormally high, the liver produces a storage protein called ____________________ .
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of the mineral molybdenum?
A)The activity of insulin is enhanced.
B)Deficiency symptoms in people are unknown.
C)Unusually poor food sources are legumes and cereal grains.
D)Toxicity symptoms in human beings include damage to red blood cells.
E)Excess intake can result in reproductive abnormalities.
Q4) Discuss the essential nature of selenium. Where and why are deficiencies observed in the world?
Q5) Discuss factors that influence the bioavailability of dietary iron.
Q6) What are the benefits of zinc supplementation in developing countries?
Q7) Discuss the essential nature of molybdenum, including food sources.
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Chapter 14: Fitness: Physical Activity, Nutrients, and Body Adaptations
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Q1) Define the progressive overload principle as it applies to physical fitness.
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of creatine supplementation in athletes?
A)It may enhance performance of endurance athletes.
B)Long-term use adversely affects liver and kidney function.
C)It may enhance performance of weight lifters and sprinters.
D)It induces short-term weight loss consisting primarily of lean tissue.
E)It is especially useful for distance swimmers.
Q3) Which of the following is a feature of enhanced waters for physical activity?
A)The oxygenated types are beneficial in endurance events.
B)They provide a source of lactate to stimulate the Cori cycle.
C)One serving provides about a third of the RDA for most vitamins and calcium.
D)They usually contain less carbohydrate and electrolytes than typical sports drinks.
E)They are generally more useful than sports drinks.
Q4) In the endurance athlete, the first priority of nutrient repletion should be A)fluids.
B)protein.
C)glycogen.
D)electrolytes.
E)key vitamins.
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Chapter 15: Life Cycle Nutrition: Pregnancy and Lactation
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic associated with adolescent pregnancy?
A)The recommended weight gain is approximately 35 lbs.
B)The incidence of stillbirths and preterm births is 5-10% lower compared with adult women.
C)The incidence of pregnancy-induced hypertension is 5-10% lower compared with older women.
D)The time in labor is usually shorter than for older women because there are fewer overweight teenagers.
E)Maternal death rates are 5 to 7 times greater among adolescent mothers in the developed world.
Q2) Discuss important concerns for vegetarian diets during pregnancy or lactation.
Q3) Describe the condition known as preeclampsia. What are its risk factors and what is known about its prevention?
Q4) A newborn infant at full gestational age has an average length of
A)15 inches.
B)17 inches.
C)20 inches.
D)22 inches.
E)2 feet.
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Chapter 16: Life Cycle Nutrition: Infancy, Childhood, and Adolescence
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Q1) According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, what is the recommended maximum number of hours/day of television viewing for a child under 2 years of age?
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3
E)5
Q2) Discuss the effects of obesity in childhood. What steps can be taken to prevent and to treat this condition?
Q3) Which of the following is a feature of nutrition in childhood?
A)Very few children take nutrient supplements of any kind.
B)Total energy requirements are higher for a typical 3 year old than a 12 year old.
C)Iron-deficiency anemia in children is prevalent in Canada but not the United States due to fortification.
D)Children who fail to consume vitamin D-fortified foods should receive a daily supplement of 10 micrograms.
E)Vegetarian and vegan diets are unsafe for children.
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Chapter 17: Life Cycle Nutrition: Adulthood and the Later Years
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Q1) Which of the following foods seems to relieve rheumatoid arthritis in some people?
A)Milk
B)Olive oil
C)Iodized salt
D)Refined cereals
E)Beef and pork
Q2) ____________________ is a person's perceived physical and mental well-being.
Q3) List six major lifestyle behaviors thought to promote long-term health.
Q4) Which of the following is a feature of food choices and eating habits of older people?
A)The quality of life among older people has not improved since 1995.
B)Older people spend less money on foods to eat at home than younger people.
C)People over 65 are less likely to diet to lose weight than are younger people.
D)Most older people think of themselves as generally unhappy and in poor health.
E)Older people tend to be adventuresome eaters who enjoy breaking away from traditional foods.
Q5) How do the elderly respond to strength training?
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Q6) Any threat to a person's well-being or a demand placed on the body to adapt is referred to as ____________________.
Chapter 18: Diet and Health
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Q1) The excessive thirst common in diabetes is known as A)hydration.
B)polyuresis.
C)polydipsia.
D)hyperhydration.
E)paradoxical thirst.
Q2) ____________________ are special proteins that direct immune and inflammatory responses.
Q3) High levels of ____________________ have proved to more accurately predict future heart attack than high LDL cholesterol.
Q4) The most common form of cardiovascular disease is A)stroke.
B)atheromatous disease.
C)coronary heart disease.
D)hypertensive aneurysm.
E)congestive heart failure.
Q5) ____________________ are large phagocytic cells that serve as scavengers of the blood, clearing it of old or abnormal cells, cellular debris, and antigens.
Q6) Pain and pressure in the area around the heart is called
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Chapter 19: Consumer Concerns About Foods and Water
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Q1) ____________________ refers to the accumulation of contaminants in the flesh of animals high on the food chain.
Q2) What defines the FDA's de minimis rule?
A)A requirement that the least toxic food additive be used on foods
B)The minimum amount of a food particle that can be detected
C)The minimum amount of nitrite that can be added to foods to prevent spoilage over a certain time frame
D)The amount of a food additive that causes no more than a one-in-a-million lifetime risk of cancer to human beings
E)The amount of a food additive that causes no more than a one-in-a-million risk of birth defects in human beings
Q3) The FDA has found that the vast majority of apple juice tested contains trace amounts of ___________________.
Q4) Describe the use of alternatives to conventional chemical application for the control of agricultural pests.
Q5) What steps can consumers take to minimize nutrient losses during food preparation?
Q6) Identify and describe the major categories of food additives.
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Chapter 20: Hunger and the Global Environment
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Q1) What is meant by a person's "food footprint," and how is it determined?
Q2) Compare and contrast the features of kwashiorkor and marasmus.
Q3) On average, how many miles is a food item transported before a consumer eats it?
A)25
B)100
C)750
D)1500
E)3000
Q4) You are reading a case study from a researcher at World University. The researcher has traveled to the largest city in India and is reporting on an illness present in a 15-month-old boy. The researcher describes the child as extremely thin and bony, with wrinkled skin and enlarged fatty liver. For the past year, this child has subsisted almost entirely on diluted cereal drink. Your first thought is that most of these observations are characteristic of marasmus, but then you realize that ____ is more consistent with kawashikor.
A)wrinkled skin
B)food intake pattern
C)enlarged fatty liver
D)extremely thin
E)bony appearance
Page 23
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