Nutrition for Health Professionals
Question Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental principles of nutrition as they apply to health promotion, disease prevention, and clinical practice. Students will learn about macronutrients and micronutrients, dietary guidelines, nutritional assessment, and the role of diet in chronic disease management. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based approaches to nutrition counseling, cultural considerations, and the interpretation of current research in the field. The course equips future health professionals with the knowledge and skills necessary to support individuals and communities in making informed nutritional choices for optimal health.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition An Applied Approach 5th Edition by Janice J. Thompson
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30 Chapters
1904 Verified Questions
1904 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Nutrition: Linking Food and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrigenomics is an ancient specialty area of nutritional research.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which statement is FALSE concerning the field of nutrition?
A) Nutrition is the study of how food nourishes the body.
B) Nutrition encompasses how we consume, digest, absorb, and store food.
C) Nutrition is an ancient science that dates back to the fourteenth century.
D) Nutrition involves studying the factors that influence eating patterns.
Answer: C
Q3) Jane consumed a breakfast that contained 85 grams of carbohydrate,20 grams of protein,and 18 grams of fat.How many kilocalories did Jane eat at breakfast?
A) 123 kilocalories
B) 152 kilocalories
C) 582 kilocalories
D) 1,007 kilocalories
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Designing a Healthful Diet
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following foods is exempt from standard food labeling regulations?
A) cereal
B) bread
C) meat
D) yogurt
Answer: C
Q2) Braeden tends to eat whenever he feels bored.His boredom is an example of a(n)
A) emotional cue.
B) cultural cue.
C) biological hunger cue.
D) sensory cue.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is an ounce-equivalent serving of grains from the USDA Food Patterns?
A) 1 cup of cooked brown rice
B) 2 slices of bread
C) 1 cup of soymilk
D) two small pancakes
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the digestive system,bicarbonate
A) activates enzymes that begin lipid digestion.
B) neutralizes acids.
C) regulates digestive activity and increases peristalsis.
D) emulsifies fats.
Answer: B
Q2) During the ten days that Shuji was taking a broad-spectrum antibiotic,the yeasts populating his large intestine probably increased.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which hormones are responsible for maintaining blood glucose levels?
A) testosterone and estrogen
B) leptin and ghrelin
C) glucagon and insulin
D) epinephrine and CCK
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Carbohydrates: Plant-Derived Energy Nutrients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ana takes her grandparents out to eat every Sunday at their favorite buffet-style restaurant,which offers only a limited selection of vegetables.Which of the following would be the most fiber-rich vegetable option for the diners?
A) 1 cup of cooked broccoli
B) 2 cups of iceberg lettuce
C) 6 spears of steamed asparagus
D) 1/2 cup of creamed corn
Q2) Individuals with the disease phenylketonuria (PKU)should NOT consume the alternative sweetener aspartame.Why?
A) People with PKU are highly prone to development of diabetes.
B) People with PKU are allergic to the sweetener.
C) People with PKU experience severe headaches when they consume aspartame.
D) People with PKU cannot metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine.
Q3) On food labels,the term wheat flour actually refers to refined white flour.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Diets high in added sugars are associated with tooth decay and gum disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Fats: Essential Energy-Supplying Nutrients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research has found that replacing your saturated fat intake with added sugars increases your risk for
A) unintended weight loss.
B) insomnia.
C) cardiovascular disease.
D) type 1 diabetes.
Q2) What role do polyunsaturated fatty acids play in the brain and spinal cord?
A) They regulate calcium levels within normal ranges.
B) They help transmit information between cells.
C) They act as carriers, enabling active transport of nutrients into cells.
D) They block the production of vessel-clogging cholesterol.
Q3) Which of the following are NOT major classes of dietary lipids?
A) glycogens
B) triglycerides
C) sterols
D) phospholipids
Q4) Body fat is metabolically inactive.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Proteins: Crucial Components of All Body
Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which cells use genes to make proteins is called A) translation.
B) gene expression.
C) DNA sequencing.
D) protein turnover.
Q2) The USDA Food Patterns counts 1/3 cup of nuts as equivalent to
A) one serving of meat.
B) one ounce of meat.
C) one pound of meat.
D) one day's recommended protein intake for an average adult.
Q3) Because of their increased protein needs,it is unhealthful for athletes to choose to become vegetarians.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An acid-base imbalance can result in
A) a blood pH of about 7.4.
B) an increased rate of HCL production in the stomach.
C) coma and death.
D) widespread release of antibodies into the bloodstream.
Q5) Compare and contrast marasmus and kwashiorkor.
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Chapter 7: Nutrients Involved in Fluid and Electrolyte
Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe four primary roles that water plays in the proper functioning of the body.
Q2) Diets rich in which of the following nutrients are associated with maintaining healthy blood pressure levels?
A) sodium
B) chloride
C) potassium
D) phosphorus
Q3) Most Americans exceed the dietary recommendations for sodium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lean individuals have a higher percentage of body water than obese individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Phosphorus is a negatively charged electrolyte.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Quenching thirst assures adequate fluid intake.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Nutrients Essential to Key Body Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin A deficiency is a severe public health concern in developing nations,often resulting in blindness and death due to infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The primary sources of folate in the American diet are
A) milk and dairy products.
B) fresh fruits and vegetables.
C) meat, fish, and poultry.
D) enriched ready-to-eat cereals, bread, and grain products.
Q3) A person suffering from fatigue,muscle wasting,reduced cognitive function,and paralysis is most likely to have which of the following conditions?
A) niacin toxicity
B) beriberi
C) pellagra
D) ariboflavinosis
Q4) Explain how vitamin A affects growth,reproduction,and cell differentiation.
Q5) Acne is a symptom of a vitamin A deficiency.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Nutrients Essential to Healthy Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of calcium?
A) transmission of nerve impulses
B) muscle contraction
C) maintenance of blood pressure
D) stimulating osteoclasts to break down bone
Q2) When blood calcium levels fall,which of the following does NOT occur?
A) Increased secretion of PTH activates vitamin D.
B) PTH and vitamin D stimulate the kidneys to reabsorb calcium from the blood.
C) PTH and vitamin D stimulate osteoblasts to break down bone.
D) Vitamin D increases the absorption of calcium from the intestines.
Q3) Prothrombin and other proteins critical in the coagulation of blood are synthesized with the assistance of the coenzyme
A) thiamin.
B) iron.
C) vitamin K.
D) collagen.
Q4) Even people who get plenty of sun exposure year-round need to consume vitamin D in foods or supplements.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Achieving and Maintaining a Healthful Body Weight
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Sample Questions
Q1) In theory,what would be the approximate weight gain of a person who consumes an excess of 500 kcal every day for four weeks (e.g.,about 28 days)?
A) 0.5 lbs
B) 2 lbs
C) 3 lbs
D) 4 lbs
Q2) Which of the following would be good advice for someone who is trying to gain weight?
A) Aim to eat an additional 500 to 1,000 kcal a day.
B) Do not exercise.
C) Avoid snacking.
D) Don't worry about it, because underweight is even more healthful than normal weight.
Q3) Describe four methods that are commonly used to determine body composition.What are the strengths and limitations of each?
Q4) Serotonin and cholecystokinin increase satiety in humans.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Are you happy with your body weight? Is it healthful? Why or why not?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nutrition and Physical Activity: Keys to Good Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of lactic acid?
A) It is a potentially toxic by-product of high-intensity exercise.
B) It is converted to pyruvic acid through glycolysis.
C) It plays a critical role in supplying fuel to the working muscles, heart, and resting tissues.
D) It aids the aerobic production of ATP.
Q2) Fatty-acids provide MOST of the energy for
A) high-intensity, short-term activity.
B) long-term activity such as hiking.
C) participation in a marathon.
D) sprinting in a 1500-meter race.
Q3) Any leisure-time physical activity that is purposeful,planned,and structured is considered
A) aerobic.
B) anaerobic.
C) hypertrophy.
D) exercise.
Q4) The currency of energy for most cells in the body is ATP.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) A particularly dangerous antibiotic-resistant strain of bacteria linked to the routine use of antibiotics in animals is known as
A) MRSA.
B) botulism.
C) Salmonella.
D) E. coli.
Q2) Biopesticides leave residues on food that can cause liver damage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following falls within the "danger zone" of foodborne illnesses?
A) chicken thawing inside a properly functioning refrigerator
B) a frozen turkey thawing at room temperature
C) meat cooking on a hot outdoor grill
D) soup simmering in a slow cooker set at low (200°F)
Q4) The two primary types of toxins associated with foodborne illness affect the
A) nervous system and gastrointestinal system.
B) skeletal system and respiratory system.
C) lymph and tendons.
D) skin and joints.
Q5) Discuss the four basic rules of safe food handling.
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Challenge of Good Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the United States,food insecurity is caused by the lack of enough food produced to feed all the people who live in poverty.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a simple food strategy you can follow to help preserve natural resources and reduce greenhouse gas emissions?
A) carbohydrate loading
B) high-protein diet
C) fish Fridays
D) meatless Mondays
Q3) In 2014,approximately what percentage of U.S.households experienced food insecurity?
A) 2%
B) 5%
C) 9%
D) 14.%
Q4) In their video "WFP and Zero Hunger," the World Food Programme states that "Ending hunger is a moral challenge" and "everyone's business." Do you agree? Why or why not?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Nutrition Through the Lifecycle: Pregnancy and the
First Year of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A low-birth-weight infant is one who weighs less than about how many pounds?
A) 4.5
B) 5.5
C) 6.5
D) 7.5
Q2) During pregnancy,what amount of alcohol consumption is considered safe?
A) none
B) one drink a month
C) one drink a week
D) one drink a day
Q3) Which of the following factors helps to explain why infants are at higher risk of dehydration than adults?
A) Neither breast milk nor formula can adequately meet an infant's fluid needs.
B) Infants lose proportionally more fluid via evaporation than adults.
C) Infants have no way of signaling to adults either hunger or thirst.
D) Infant kidneys produce more highly concentrated urine than adult kidneys.
Q4) During pregnancy women should not consume fish or fish products.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify the hormones that regulate lactation and describe their functions.
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Chapter 15: Nutrition Through the Lifecycle: Childhood to Late
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elevated level of blood sodium is called A) hyponatremia.
B) hypernatremia.
C) hypokalemia.
D) hyperkalemia.
Q2) Among adolescents,smoking can
A) reduce the rate of lung growth.
B) greatly increase the risk of being involved in a motor vehicle accident.
C) cause "the munchies" and lead to significant weight gain.
D) facilitate nutrient metabolism.
Q3) A reduced secretion of hydrochloric acid often seen in older adults can result in a(n)
A) reduced absorption of calcium.
B) increased absorption of vitamin C.
C) reduced absorption of potassium.
D) increased absorption of vitamin B .
Q4) Multivitamin/mineral supplements should never be given to toddlers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare the benefits and risks of feeding a vegan diet to a young child.
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Chapter 16: New Frontiers in Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE about a diet high in phytochemicals?
A) It is thought to increase the risk of cancer.
B) It is thought to reduce inflammation linked to the development of cancer.
C) It can prevent some forms of cancer.
D) It can cure some forms of cancer.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a health-promoting function associated with a healthy intake of phytochemicals from foods?
A) reduction in inflammation that is linked to the development of cardiovascular disease
B) slowing of tumor growth in the development of cancer
C) increase in bacterial resistance to antibiotics
D) enhanced immune function to protect against infection
Q3) Which of the following would provide the most effective dose of live and active bacterial cultures?
A) 1 teaspoon of inulin
B) 1 cup of yogurt
C) 1 cup of tofu
D) 1 cup of wine
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Chapter 17: Healthful Eating Patterns
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Q1) The Mediterranean diet is rich in phytochemicals,probiotics,and prebiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to the 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans,a healthful eating pattern can include starchy vegetables such as yams and corn.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements describes the Mediterranean-style diet?
A) Red meat is consumed only monthly.
B) Cheese is consumed only weekly.
C) Beans and other legumes are consumed every 2 to 3 days.
D) The major fat used for cooking and flavor is butter.
Q4) The Mediterranean diet is defined as the diet of Italians and Greeks.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Healthy Eating Plate is vegetarian but not vegan.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Disorders Related to Specific Foods
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Q1) Why does advanced celiac disease lead to malabsorption?
A) The degradation of the villi reduces the absorptive surface area of the intestine.
B) Damaged enterocytes fail to produce sufficient enzymes to digest foods.
C) The gluten crowds out other absorption sites on the enterocytes.
D) Frequent anaphylactic reactions to various allergens constrict the GI tract.
Q2) What is the definitive test for diagnosing celiac disease?
A) antigliadin antibodies test
B) antigluten antibodies test
C) biopsy of the small intestine
D) genetic testing
Q3) Food allergies
A) are more common than food intolerances.
B) cause over 15,000 deaths in the United States each year.
C) always trigger systemic inflammation.
D) can be clinically diagnosed with a skin test or a blood test.
Q4) Many lactose-intolerant people can digest aged cheese and yogurt with live,active cultures without any gastrointestinal distress.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Diabetes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The damage to the walls of large blood vessels caused by untreated diabetes is known as
A) metabolic syndrome.
B) angiopathy.
C) neuropathy.
D) a macrovascular complication.
Q2) Losing as little as 10 to 30 pounds can reduce or eliminate the symptoms of type 2 diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Approximately what percentage of the American population has some form of diabetes?
A) 1-2%
B) 4-5%
C) 9-10%
D) 14-15%
Q4) Moderate weight loss can reduce or eliminate symptoms of type 2 diabetes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Cardiovascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fatty streaks in blood vessels indicate the presence of atherosclerosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hypertension is often a sign of underlying atherosclerosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One out of every ten deaths from coronary heart disease is due to smoking or exposure to secondhand smoke.
A)True
B)False
Q4) High blood levels of HDL-cholesterol increase the risk of cardiovascular disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A desirable total blood cholesterol level,associated with a reduced risk for cardiovascular disease,is less than
A) 40 mg/dL.
B) 100 mg/dL.
C) 200 mg/dL.
D) 300 mg/dL.
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Chapter 21: Vitamins and Minerals: Micronutrients With
Macro Powers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a major mineral?
A) sulfur
B) iodine
C) iron
D) zinc
Q2) The letters used to identify the fat-soluble vitamins indicate the
A) compound from which the vitamins are synthesized.
B) order of importance that the vitamins play in the body.
C) abbreviation of the vitamins' chemical name.
D) chronological order in which the vitamins were discovered.
Q3) Which of the following statements does NOT describe water-soluble vitamins?
A) Water-soluble vitamins are absorbed easily from the intestinal tract into the blood.
B) Water-soluble vitamins are stored in large amounts in the body.
C) Water-soluble vitamins are found in a wide variety of foods.
D) Water-soluble vitamins are rarely toxic.
Q4) Fat-soluble vitamins need to be consumed more frequently than water-soluble vitamins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Alcohol
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a tip for taking control of your alcohol intake?
A) Make sure you have not eaten for at least 3-4 hours before having your first alcoholic drink.
B) Think about why you are planning to drink.
C) Decide in advance what your alcohol intake will be.
D) Dilute hard liquor with large amounts of water, diet soda, or juice.
Q2) As blood alcohol concentration (BAC)increases above 0.15%,the person
A) might begin to feel relaxed.
B) might begin to feel sleepy.
C) could experience a blackout.
D) would almost certain die.
Q3) Alcohol damages the pancreas.One effect of this damage is an increased risk for A) hypoglycemia.
B) hyponatremia.
C) type 1 diabetes.
D) type 2 diabetes.
Q4) In the United States,about 3 million people have an alcohol use disorder.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Cancer
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Q1) Which of the following cancer treatments is a drug therapy?
A) chemotherapy
B) catheterization
C) radiation
D) surgery
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of an effective screening examination for detecting precancerous tissues?
A) mammogram
B) Pap smear
C) colonoscopy
D) skin checks
Q3) Which of the following would NOT help reduce the risk for developing cancer?
A) consuming a variety of colorful fruits and vegetables
B) following cancer screening guidelines
C) avoiding alcohol abuse
D) consuming foods rich in nitrites and nitrates
Q4) The BRC genes cause breast cancer by inducing DNA mutations in breast tissue cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Osteoporosis
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT associated with the female athlete triad?
A) abuse of anabolic steroids
B) low bone density
C) menstrual dysfunction
D) low energy availability
Q2) Research has shown no direct evidence that high-sodium diets cause osteoporosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would be good advice to offer someone who is planning to take a calcium supplement?
A) Select a calcium carbonate supplement as it contains the most calcium per dose.
B) Select a calcium supplement that provides at least 1,000 mg calcium per pill.
C) Look for a calcium supplement that is labeled "natural" and is made from oyster shell or bone meal.
D) Take your calcium supplement on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
Q4) To preserve bone mass,a high protein intake is more important than an adequate intake of calcium or vitamin D.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 25: Obesity
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Q1) Gastric bypass surgery reduces food intake by
A) removing the stomach.
B) attaching a reduced stomach pouch to the lower part of the small intestine.
C) causing food to flow from the stomach through a surgically created valve and into a pouch worn on the body exterior.
D) stapling off a large section of the stomach so that food can enter only the smaller segment.
Q2) A BMI greater than or equal to 30 kg/m² adversely affects health.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a reason that bariatric surgery fails to achieve long-term weight loss for most people?
A) chronic diarrhea and vomiting
B) inability to maintain reduced consumption over time
C) gradual enlargement of the stomach pouch
D) loosening of staples or gastric bands
Q4) Self-esteem is thought to influence obesity risk.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Disorders Related to Body Image, Eating, and Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following family characteristics is NOT associated with eating disorders?
A) acceptance of abnormal eating in one or more family members
B) angry and expressive family interactions
C) high levels of anxiety
D) inflexibility and need for order
Q2) More women die from anorexia nervosa than die from bulimia nervosa.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If your sibling has or has had an eating disorder,you have an increased risk of developing an eating disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of bulimia nervosa?
A) frequent episodes of extreme overeating followed by purging
B) frequent and uncompensated episodes of extreme overeating
C) restrictive eating pattern
D) intense fear of weight gain
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Chapter 27: The Safety and Effectiveness of Dietary Supplements
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Q1) A healthcare provider would MOST likely prescribe which of the following supplements for a vegan?
A) vitamins K, D, and E, and iron
B) folic acid, copper, and chromium
C) riboflavin, vitamin B12, vitamin D, calcium, iron, and zinc
D) B vitamins, omega-3 fatty acids, and certain herbs
Q2) Which of the following herbs is associated with the risks of high blood pressure,irregular heartbeat,and heart attack?
A) chamomile
B) ephedra
C) willow bark
D) kava
Q3) Which of the following populations is MOST likely to benefit from taking a vitamin D supplement?
A) women who may become pregnant
B) people with low exposure to sunlight
C) people who do not consume adequate calcium
D) people on a highly restrictive weight-loss diet
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Chapter 28: Malnutrition
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Q1) Studies following children over time have found that a reduction in family income in early childhood
A) increases the child's risk for undernourishment.
B) increases the likelihood that an overweight or obese child will lose weight.
C) increases the child's risk for overweight and obesity.
D) decreases the child's risk for overweight and obesity.
Q2) Which of the following factors BEST characterize a transitioning region in which the nutrition paradox is common?
A) increased availability of and preference for foods high in added sugars
B) decreased reliance on carbohydrates combined with increased reliance on protein
C) increased physical activity combined with decreased availability of staple foods
D) decreased physical activity combined with increased intake of energy-dense food
Q3) Infant mortality rate is a population's rate of
A) death of the fetus before birth.
B) death of newborns between birth and 28 days of age.
C) death of infants between birth and 1 year of age.
D) death of infants between 1 month and 1 year of age.
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Chapter 29: The Fetal Environment
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43076
Sample Questions
Q1) Some of the earliest evidence for the fetal origins theory came from A) France.
B) South Africa.
C) Japan.
D) the Netherlands.
Q2) Which of the following outcomes for offspring has NOT been linked to maternal obesity?
A) increased risk of neural tube defects
B) increased risk of breast cancer
C) increased risk of adult obesity
D) increased risk of cretinism
Q3) Which of the following changes are typical of the fetal physiological response to maternal starvation or malnutrition?
A) The production of hormones shifts to promote energy storage.
B) The activity of certain enzymes important in metabolism ceases.
C) Body cells no longer use DNA to assemble proteins.
D) Nearly all body organs diminish in size.
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31
Chapter 30: Searching for the Fountain of Youth
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43077
Sample Questions
Q1) Antioxidant supplements have not been shown to slow aging and may actually be harmful.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Research suggests that intermittent fasting and alternate-day fasting produce beneficial metabolic changes similar to those of Calorie restriction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC),which of the following health habits does NOT promote increased longevity?
A) never smoking
B) restricting sleep to no more than 7 hours a night
C) engaging in adequate amounts of regular physical activity
D) maintaining a healthful weight and body composition
Q4) Intermittent fasting (IF)involves
A) reducing one's average energy intake.
B) avoiding all empty-Calorie foods every other day.
C) consuming no Calories at least one day of each week.
D) altering one's pattern of food intake.
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