Nutrition for Health Professionals Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Nutrition for Health Professionals provides students with a comprehensive understanding of the fundamental principles of nutrition and their application to health and disease prevention. The course covers essential topics such as macronutrients and micronutrients, dietary guidelines, nutrient metabolism, lifecycle nutrition, and the role of nutrition in chronic disease management. Emphasis is placed on interpreting scientific evidence, understanding cultural and environmental influences on dietary habits, and developing practical skills for assessing nutritional status and counseling diverse populations. This course equips future health professionals with the knowledge needed to effectively promote health and wellness through sound nutritional practices.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 9th Edition by Linda
Kelly DeBruyne
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Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Q1) To ensure that the vitamin and mineral recommendations meet the needs of as many people as possible, the recommendations are set near the top end of the range of the population's estimated average requirements.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) In order to comply with recommendations of the 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans regarding vegetable intake, Americans should eat more _____.
A) spinach
B) summer squash
C) corn
D) potatoes
E) mushrooms
Answer: A
Q3) Minerals and water are organic molecules that yield energy in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Carbohydrates
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Q1) Soluble fiber can help reduce blood cholesterol levels by _____
A) converting cholesterol into vitamin D
B) binding cholesterol and carrying it out of the body with the feces
C) blocking the absorption of bile
D) preventing the production of bile
E) blocking the production of insulin
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following does not come exclusively from plants?
A) glucose
B) maltose
C) fructose
D) galactose
E) sucrose
Answer: D
Q3) There are no health consequences associated with consuming excess fiber.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) An extra five grams of fat are added to a salad per tablespoon of ____.
A) mayonnaise
B) salad dressing
C) bacon bits
D) sour cream
E) croutons
Answer: B
Q2) Many vegetable oils contain large amounts of ____.
A) short-chain fatty acids
B) saturated fatty acids
C) omega-6 polyunsaturated fatty acids
D) medium-chain fatty acids
E) omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids
Answer: C
Q3) Foods that are thought of as protein-rich, such as meat, may actually contain more fat energy than protein energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it important to keep the proper acid-base balance in the body?
A) highly acidic conditions cause vital proteins to denature
B) highly acidic conditions cause the destruction of fatty acids
C) acid-base imbalances contribute to the destruction of hormones
D) acid-base imbalances compromise growth in children
E) acid-base imbalances cause edema
Q2) Not all amino acids have to be supplied by food. This is true because ____.
A) not all necessary amino acids are found in food
B) hormones furnish the missing amino acids
C) the liver is able to manufacture some amino acids from others
D) the liver is able to manufacture some amino acids from fatty acids
E) the liver is able to manufacture some amino acids from carbohydrates
Q3) In order to estimate an individual's protein requirements, his or her ____ must be considered.
A) age
B) height
C) weight
D) gender
E) race
Q4) Differentiate between the symptoms of kwashiorkor and marasmus.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Digestion and Absorption
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Q1) Which food would be digested the slowest?
A) a piece of toast with strawberry jam
B) a grilled steak
C) a green salad with low-fat salad dressing
D) a cup of green beans
E) a cup of yams
Q2) Two organs that secrete digestive juices into the small intestine are the ____ and the ____.
A) gallbladder; pancreas
B) pancreas; liver
C) gallbladder; liver
D) duodenum; pancreas
E) appendix; prostate
Q3) After absorption, the water-soluble nutrients are released directly into the ____.
A) bloodstream
B) kidneys
C) liver
D) lymph
E) nephrons
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Metabolism Energy Balance and Body
Composition
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Q1) Which individual would be at lowest risk for the accumulation of abdominal fat?
A) a smoker
B) a postmenopausal woman
C) a middle-aged man
D) a premenopausal woman
E) a post-pubescent male
Q2) Which activity requires the most energy in terms of kcalories per pound per minute?
A) playing basketball vigorously
B) dancing vigorously
C) rowing vigorously
D) bicycling at 25 mph
E) playing handball
Q3) Describe how fat can be made from an excess of each of the energy nutrients-carbohydrate, protein, or fat.
Q4) Define the thermic effect of food and explain its effect on energy expenditure.
Q5) Explain the difference between anaerobic and aerobic metabolism.
Q6) Explain why excessive abdominal fat appears to increase the risk of chronic disease.
Q7) Explain how the body maintains its constant normal temperature of 98.6° F.
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Chapter 7: Weight Management Overweight and Underweight
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Q1) Donna would like to lose weight. How many kcalories should she consume daily in order to lose weight while also meeting her nutritional needs?
A) 1200-1500
B) 1600-1800
C) 1500-1800
D) 1800-2000
E) 2000-2200
Q2) On a sensible weight-control program, meals and snacks should include whole-grain foods and fiber-rich vegetables.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One benefit of physical activity is that it _____.
A) allows you to eat fattier foods without gaining weight
B) reminds you to eat less at every meal
C) reduces abdominal obesity
D) may help to increase enzyme levels in your blood
E) lowers basal metabolism
Q4) Discuss the role of environmental stimuli in the development of obesity.
Q5) Why are fad diets appealing to a lot of people?
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Q1) Which group of people needs an intake of vitamin C in excess of the RDA?
A) smokers
B) professional athletes
C) the elderly
D) growing children
E) newborns
Q2) Which group of people is most at risk for a primary deficiency of vitamin B ?
A) the elderly
B) infants
C) athletes
D) vegans
E) pregnant women
Q3) Overconsumption of the water-soluble vitamins will likely result in _____.
A) a reserve supply, which will aid in the prevention of colds and infections
B) no apparent change, because they are stored in the adipose tissues
C) no apparent change, because they are excreted
D) toxic accumulation in the liver
E) kidney stones
Q4) Identify three ways vitamin D helps to maintain blood concentrations of calcium and phosphorus.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Q1) Describe the body's mechanism for regulating water excretion.
Q2) Which substance enhances calcium absorption from the GI tract?
A) vitamin D
B) vitamin C
C) protein
D) linoleic acid
E) vitamin A
Q3) Most of the body's calcium is stored in the _____.
A) bones
B) liver
C) kidneys
D) blood
E) brain
Q4) Magnesium deficiency may occur as a result of _____.
A) too much crying
B) drinking too little orange juice
C) diarrhea
D) consuming too little dairy
E) constipation
Q5) Discuss the functions of copper in the body.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Fitness and Nutrition
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Q1) Only about _____ percent of adults in the U.S. meet physical activity guidelines set by the Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010.
A) 20
B) 25
C) 30
D) 35
E) 40
Q2) The best fluid to support physical activity for endurance athletes is _____.
A) plain, cool water
B) saltwater mixtures
C) sports drinks
D) lukewarm water
E) caffeinated liquids
Q3) Diets lacking in carbohydrate _____.
A) necessitate the conversion of amino acids to glucose
B) cause amino acids to be converted to fatty acids
C) require more fluid intake
D) necessitate the conversion of glucose to amino acids
E) require less fluid intake
Q4) Discuss how exercise intensity affects your body's use of glycogen as a fuel.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span Pregnancy and Lactation
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Q1) Describe the functions of the placenta in supporting fetal growth.
Q2) Alcohol easily enters breast milk and can adversely affect the _____ of breast milk.
A) production, volume, composition, and ejection
B) production, ejection, and quality
C) production, volume, and contraindication
D) production, quality, and quantity
E) production, elimination, and expression
Q3) How long should the infant be encouraged to nurse on each breast?
A) two to four minutes
B) four to eight minutes
C) until the infant has obtained half of the appropriate amount of milk
D) as long as the infant wishes
E) until the breast is depleted of milk
Q4) A man's nutrition usually does not affect his fertility or the genetic contributions he makes to his children.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the nutrient needs of a breastfeeding woman.
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Q6) What can maternity facilities do to encourage women to breastfeed their infants?
Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span Infancy
Childhood and Adolescence
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Q1) wean
A)the chief protein in human breast milk
B)a milk-like secretion from the breasts that is rich in protective factors
C)a protein in breast milk that binds iron and keeps it from supporting the growth of the infant's intestinal bacteria
D)factors in colostrum and breast milk that favor the growth of the "friendly" bacterium
Lactobacillus bifidus in the infant's intestinal tract
E)a protein in breast milk that attacks diarrhea-causing viruses
F)to gradually replace breast milk with infant formulas or other foods appropriate to an infant's diet
G)together with another protective factor, kills bacteria
H)a life-threatening whole-body allergic reaction to an offending substance
I)one of the stress hormones secreted whenever emergency action is needed; prescribed therapeutically to relax the bronchioles during allergy or asthma attacks
J)the period of growth from the beginning of puberty until full maturity
Q2) What is the role of the "gatekeeper," as applied to nutrition?
Q3) How might a pregnant woman's diet and health routine affect the health of her unborn fetus?
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Through the Life Span Later Adulthood
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Q1) Older adults are predisposed to fluid imbalances because _____.
A) they pay too close attention to their thirst
B) they find it too easy to obtain fluids and so become complacent
C) fluids they ingest are more rapidly processed by the kidneys
D) they may have reduced thirst
E) they may have an increase in total body water as they age
Q2) The protein needs of older adults appear to be about the same as those of younger people.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Since 1950, the population older than age 65 has almost _____.
A) quintupled
B) halved
C) quadrupled
D) doubled
E) tripled
Q4) As people grow older, the use of medicines becomes commonplace, thus increasing the potential for diet-medication interactions.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Illness and Nutrition Care
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Q1) In order to minimize fecal volume, a patient may be placed on a ____ diet prior to surgery.
A) low fiber
B) fat-restricted
C) low sodium
D) high-kcalorie, high-protein
E) high-protein diet
Q2) One disadvantage of using a food record is the ____.
A) time involved in keeping one
B) increased awareness of one's food choices
C) lack of reliance on a person's memory
D) harm that may result from too much information
E) lack of detailed information
Q3) Which method of documenting nutrition care most closely reflects the steps of the nutrition care process?
A) ADIME
B) SOAP
C) NCP
D) PES
E) BMR
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Chapter 15: Medications - Diet Drug Interactions - and Herbal Supplements
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Q1) OTC drugs _____.
A) require medical supervision
B) include herbal supplements
C) include antibiotics
D) are used to treat self-diagnosed illnesses
E) are not regulated by the FDA
Q2) Which side effects might be expected from long-term use of corticosteroids?
A) weight gain, muscle wasting, bone loss, hyperglycemia
B) weight loss, hypertension, bone loss, hypoglycemia
C) weight gain, high cholesterol, bone loss, hypoglycemia
D) weight loss, muscle wasting, kidney failure, hyperglycemia
E) weight loss, kidney failure, excessive bone growth
Q3) Which medical abbreviation or term is prohibited on clinical documentation?
A) q.i.d.
B) mcg
C) IU
D) mg
E) 0.1 mg
Q4) Describe how you would counsel a patient who is taking herbal supplements to treat a medical condition.
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Chapter 16: Specialized Nutrition Support - Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Q1) Which feeding tube placement site would be most appropriate for a patient who is expected to be on a tube feeding for less than four weeks?
A) gastrostomy
B) jejunostomy
C) nasogastric
D) duodenostomy
E) nasoduodenal
Q2) Types of formulas that contain intact proteins are called _____.
A) disease-specific formulas
B) hydrolyzed formulas
C) standard formulas
D) modular formulas
E) supplemental formulas
Q3) TPN is indicated for each scenario except _____.
A) patients who cannot be fed through the GI tract
B) situations where long-term parenteral nutrition will be required
C) situations where nutrient requirements are high
D) patients who are moderately malnourished
E) patients on fluid restrictions
Q4) What is refeeding syndrome, and how can it be prevented?
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Chapter 17: Foods and Food Consistency for Upper Gi Disorders
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Q1) What types of medications might Kelly's doctor prescribe and why?
Q2) The protein recommendation for bariatric surgery patients is _____ g per kg of body weight per day.
A) 0.8 to 1.0
B) 1.0 to 1.5
C) 1.2 to 1.8
D) 1.5 to 2.0
E) 2.0 to 2.5
Q3) In order to achieve and maintain weight loss after surgery, Ms. Wilson should be encouraged to _____.
A) avoid drinking high-calorie beverages
B) eat at least one cup of food at each meal
C) limit her physical activity
D) snack between meals to avoid feelings of hunger
E) drink plenty of liquids between meals
Q4) Use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may promote gastritis and peptic ulcer disease by damaging the gastric mucosal lining.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Fiber-Modified Diets for Lower Gastrointestinal
Tract Disorders
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Q1) Which substance would not be included in a homemade oral rehydration solution?
A) table salt
B) sugar
C) baking soda
D) cornstarch
E) potassium chloride
Q2) Diverticulitis is an inflammatory bowel disease that occurs in the small intestine and affects the entire intestinal wall.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Constipation is associated with a lack of physical activity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which food may help to alleviate diarrhea?
A) applesauce
B) pear juice
C) milk
D) sugar-free candies
E) coffee
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Q5) Describe important components of nutrition management for people with ostomies.
Chapter 19: Carbohydrate - and Fat Modified Diets for
Malabsorption Disorders
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Q1) Patients with celiac disease must avoid foods that contain _____.
A) iron
B) protein
C) gluten
D) sugar
E) fats
Q2) The type of anemia associated with vitamin B and folate deficiency is called _____.
A) hemolytic anemia.
B) macrocytic anemia.
C) macrocytic anemia
D) anemia of chronic disease
E) pernicious anemia
Q3) Describe dietary concerns for someone who is lactose intolerant.
Q4) Explain the cause of Julia's impaired nutrition status.
Q5) Celiac disease is characterized by an abnormal immune response to certain amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the process of intestinal adaptation.
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Chapter 20: Nutrition Therapy for Liver and Gallbladder Diseases
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Q1) The dietitian assesses Mr. Jamison's protein needs, and based on his weight, estimates that he requires approximately _____ grams of protein per day for proper nitrogen balance.
A) 25-30
B) 50-60
C) 65-100
D) 100-150
E) 125-175
Q2) Strict dietary sodium restriction is part of the treatment for ascites.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Collaterals are _____.
A) small blood vessels in the intestines
B) blood vessels that enlarge in order to allow an alternate path for blood flow
C) induced by fatty liver disease
D) hemorrhages in the esophagus
E) an abnormal growth of blood vessels in response to disease
Q4) What are Marcia's risk factors for cholelithiasis?
Page 22
Q5) What are the treatment options for cholelithiasis? Explain each.
Q6) What is the cause of the pain associated with cholelithiasis?
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Chapter 21: Carbohydrate Controlled Diets for Diabetes
Mellitus
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Q1) Acetone breath is characteristic of hypoglycemia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) hypoglycemia
A)a group of metabolic disorders characterized by hyperglycemia and disordered insulin metabolism
B)elevated blood glucose concentrations
C)the condition in which blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be diagnosed as diabetes
D)a distinctive fruity odor on the breath of a person with ketosis
E)the presence of albumin in the urine; a sign of diabetic nephropathy
F)a coma that occurs in uncontrolled diabetes; may be due to diabetic ketoacidosis, the hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, or severe hypoglycemia
G)extreme hyperglycemia that is associated with hyperosmolar blood, dehydration, and altered mental status
H)abnormally low concentrations of blood glucose
I)delayed stomach emptying
J)pain in the legs while walking; usually due to an inadequate supply of blood to the muscles
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Chapter 22: Fat Controlled - Mineral Modified Diets for
Cardiovascular Diseases
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Q1) Research has shown that a daily intake of _____ grams of EPA and DHA fish oil supplements can lower triglyceride levels.
A) 1 to 2
B) 3 to 4
C) 4 to 6
D) 5 to 10
E) 10 to 12
Q2) Health authorities recommend that individuals with hypertension increase their intake of _____.
A) sodium, chloride, and potassium
B) calcium, phosphorus, and zinc
C) potassium, calcium, and magnesium
D) folate, vitamin B , and calcium
E) vitamins A, C and D
Q3) What is the most common type of stroke?
Q4) What lifestyle changes can Mr. Daniels make to reduce his risk of another, possibly more severe stroke?
Q5) Describe how atherosclerosis develops.
Q7) Name and describe three different types of stroke. Page 25
Q6) Explain the medical nutrition therapy for hypertriglyceridemia.
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Chapter 23: Protein - Mineral - and Fluid Modified Diets for Kidney Diseases
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Q1) diuresis
A)the solution used in dialysis to draw wastes and fluids from the blood
B)abrupt decline in kidney function over a period of hours or days
C)blood in the urine
D)elevated serum potassium levels
E)elevated serum phosphate levels
F)elevated urinary oxalate levels
G)increased urine production
H)low serum potassium levels
I)elevated serum calcium levels
J)elevated urinary calcium levels
Q2) Calcium oxalate stones usually result from _____.
A) hypercalciuria
B) hyperkalemia
C) hyperphosphatemia
D) hypercholesterolemia
E) hypocalciuria
Q3) Suggest appropriate amounts of protein, sodium, potassium, and fluids for a patient on hemodialysis.
Q4) Why is the renal diet difficult to adhere to?
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Chapter 24: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Q1) All of these factors are classic signs of inflammation except _____.
A) hyperglycemia
B) swelling
C) redness
D) heat
E) pain
Q2) Which sign of respiratory failure appears as a bluish cast in the skin on the lips, cheeks and nail beds?
A) acidosis
B) hypercapnia
C) hypoxia
D) hypoxemia
E) cyanosis
Q3) Which action is not attributed to cortisol?
A) muscle degradation
B) raising blood levels of amino acids
C) raising blood levels of glucose
D) breakdown of triglycerides
E) decreased urine output
Q4) What kind of medications might be prescribed for Caroline? Why?
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Chapter 25: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Cancer and HIV Infection
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Q1) All of these nutrition-related factors may increase the risk of developing cancer except _____.
A) obesity
B) red meat intake
C) intake of salt-preserved foods
D) consumption of citrus fruits
E) foods grilled and charred
Q2) Describe HIV-lipodystrophy syndrome and discuss current treatment strategies.
Q3) The structure of methotrexate, a drug used to treat cancer, resembles that of _____.
A) vitamin C
B) vitamin E
C) folate
D) pyridoxine
E) adenine
Q4) What factors contribute to the development of cancer cachexia?
Q5) Describe the metabolic changes associated with cancer that contribute to weight loss and nutrient depletion.
Q7) Explain reasons why HIV patients have reduced food intake. Page 29
Q6) Why should AIDS patients be concerned about food-borne illnesses?
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