Nutrition and Diet Therapy
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive overview of the principles of nutrition and their application to health promotion and disease prevention. Students will explore the role of essential nutrients, digestion, absorption, and metabolism as well as the nutritional requirements throughout the life cycle. Emphasis is placed on the use of diet therapy in the management of various health conditions, developing individualized dietary plans, and interpreting dietary guidelines. Through case studies and practical assignments, students will gain hands-on experience in assessing nutritional status and modifying dietary intake to meet therapeutic and wellness goals.
Recommended Textbook
Williams Essentials of Nutrition and Diet Therapy 11th Edition by Eleanor Schlenker
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1210 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the most recent edition of Choose Your Foods: Exchange List for Diabetes, the three groups into which foods are arranged are:
A) fruits and vegetables, breads, and meats.
B) fats, starches and sugars, and meat and milk.
C) fruits and vegetables, meat and milk, and starches.
D) carbohydrates, meat and meat substitutes, and fats.
Answer: D
Q2) For a healthy person, the percentage of daily kcalories supplied by protein should be:
A) 5% to 10%.
B) 10% to 35%.
C) more than 25%.
D) more than 35%.
Answer: B
Q3) MyPlate food guidance is based on:
A) percentage of kcalories from each macronutrient.
B) Exchange Lists for Meal Planning.
C) appropriate amounts of food from each food group.
D) amounts of macronutrients and micronutrients.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Digestion, Absorption, and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The substance that acts as an emulsifier and helps absorb digested fat is:
A) bile.
B) trypsin.
C) lipase.
D) cholecystokinin (CCK).
Answer: A
Q2) A major function of glucose is to:
A) produce energy.
B) transport oxygen to cells.
C) convert fat to glycogen.
D) maintain body weight.
Answer: A
Q3) After absorption, the end products of carbohydrate and protein digestion enter the: A) enterohepatic circulation.
B) gastrointestinal circulation.
C) common bile duct.
D) portal blood system.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with lactose intolerance should be most careful to limit his or her intake of:
A) milk.
B) yogurt.
C) cheese.
D) corn syrup.
Answer: A
Q2) Dextrins are:
A) polysaccharides.
B) end products of starch digestion.
C) formed in the liver.
D) rapidly excreted.
Answer: A
Q3) In the colon, resistant starch is digested by:
A) bacterial fermentation.
B) pancreatic amylase.
C) hydrochloric acid.
D) villi and microvilli.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range for fat recommends that the percentage of total kcalories from fat should fall between:
A) 10% and 20%.
B) 20% and 25%
C) 20% and 35%.
D) 30% and 45%.
Q2) The form of fatty acids in naturally occurring fats is generally:
A) trans.
B) polyunsaturated.
C) cis.
D) saturated.
Q3) A chemical feature that distinguishes a saturated fatty acid from an unsaturated fatty acid is the:
A) arrangement of carbon molecules.
B) number of oxygen molecules.
C) food source.
D) number of double bonds.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive intakes of dietary protein can:
A) cause vitamin deficiencies.
B) impair kidney function.
C) increase weight loss.
D) decrease production of indispensable amino acids.
Q2) Aminopeptidase and dipeptidase are secreted by the:
A) liver.
B) stomach.
C) small intestine.
D) pancreas.
Q3) The primary function of protein in the diet is to:
A) supply energy.
B) synthesize vitamins.
C) build and repair tissue.
D) store glycogen.
Q4) Negative nitrogen balance occurs in a(n):
A) adult who participates in a weight-training program.
B) woman who is pregnant or lactating.
C) child who is growing.
D) older adult with anorexia.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vitamin that is used to form acetyl coenzyme A is:
A) pantothenic acid.
B) biotin.
C) niacin.
D) riboflavin.
Q2) Newborn babies treated with phototherapy for elevated bilirubin levels may develop a deficiency of: A) riboflavin.
B) niacin.
C) vitamin C.
D) vitamin A.
Q3) A factor that affects a person's requirement for vitamin E is:
A) calcium intake.
B) amount of aerobic exercise.
C) intake of saturated fatty acids.
D) intake of polyunsaturated fatty acids.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Minerals and Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) Minerals in extracellular fluid that regulate water balance are:
A) calcium and potassium.
B) sodium and chloride.
C) phosphorus and magnesium.
D) iron and zinc.
Q2) Distribution of water content in a person's body is related to the amount of:
A) body fat.
B) bone density.
C) muscle mass.
D) circulating blood.
Q3) The term used to denote concentration of electrolytes in a given volume of fluid is: A) valence.
B) milliequivalent.
C) gram molecular weight.
D) pH.
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9
Chapter 8: Energy Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Someone who is trying to gain weight should eat:
A) only when hungry.
B) commercial liquid nutritional supplements.
C) three large meals each day.
D) several small meals each day.
Q2) The minimum percentage of body fat that supports reproduction in women is:
A) 3%.
B) 12%.
C) 20%.
D) 29%.
Q3) A factor that contributes to women having lower basal metabolism requirements than men is:
A) menstruation.
B) body surface area.
C) gender-specific hormones.
D) their smaller proportion of muscle mass to fat.
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Chapter 9: Food Selection and Food Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) A factor that has contributed to the health consciousness of Americans is:
A) less concern about food safety.
B) greater nutritional awareness.
C) greater use of ready-prepared foods.
D) increased use of "diet" foods.
Q2) A type of bacterium found in shellfish from polluted waters and in raw eggs is:
A) Salmonella.
B) Shigella.
C) Staphylococcus.
D) Listeria.
Q3) Farming methods that minimize the use of chemical pesticides and adverse environmental effects are called:
A) integrated pest management.
B) organic farming.
C) sustainable agriculture.
D) Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points.
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Chapter 10: Community Nutrition: Promoting Healthy Eating
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Sample Questions
Q1) One way to make learning effective is to:
A) create a classroom atmosphere to help students take learning seriously.
B) find out what the learner already knows and build on this knowledge.
C) explain the risks of not learning the information.
D) entertain students to keep their attention.
Q2) The USDA food plan used to calculate the dollar value of SNAP benefits an individual or family receives is the:
A) liberal food plan.
B) moderate food plan.
C) low food plan.
D) thrifty food plan.
Q3) The Special Supplemental Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) provides nutritious foods to:
A) all pregnant, postpartum, and breastfeeding women and children under age 5.
B) low-income pregnant, postpartum, and breastfeeding women and children younger than age 5.
C) all families with children younger than age 5 at nutritional risk.
D) low-income women who are pregnant, postpartum, or breastfeeding and their children younger than age 5 who are at nutritional risk.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Nutrition During Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type of diet that would be inappropriate during pregnancy is a:
A) low-fat diet.
B) low-carbohydrate diet.
C) vegetarian diet.
D) high-fiber diet.
Q2) Research suggests that pregnancy-induced hypertension is related to diets that are deficient in protein, kilocalories (kcalories or kcal), and:
A) calcium, magnesium, and potassium.
B) iron, zinc, and folate.
C) vitamin A, vitamin C, and vitamin B .
D) iodine and B vitamins.
Q3) Pregnancy-induced hypertension is most likely to occur in the:
A) first trimester.
B) second trimester.
C) third trimester.
D) second and third trimesters.
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Chapter 12: Nutrition for Normal Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effect of the hormone prolactin is to:
A) stimulate breast development.
B) balance supply and demand of breast milk.
C) stimulate breast milk production.
D) stimulate ejection of milk from the alveoli.
Q2) The greatest proportion of kcalories in growing children is expended toward:
A) tissue growth.
B) physical activities.
C) thermic effect of food.
D) basal metabolic needs.
Q3) The nutrient that provides building material for tissue growth is:
A) carbohydrates.
B) protein.
C) fats.
D) vitamins.
Q4) Growth is usually slow and erratic during:
A) infancy.
B) childhood.
C) adolescence.
D) adulthood.
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Chapter 13: Nutrition for Adults: Early, Middle, and Later Years
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrition screening for older adults includes questions to identify risk factors, such as: A) poverty.
B) dieting.
C) poor oral hygiene.
D) smoking.
Q2) Warning signs of malnutrition among older adults include:
A) recent unintended weight loss.
B) poor vision.
C) depression and loneliness.
D) use of vitamin supplements.
Q3) Older adults should make sure that their diets include sufficient: A) sodium.
B) magnesium.
C) calcium.
D) iron.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Nutrition and Physical Fitness
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type of exercise that is considered to be aerobic for amateur athletes is:
A) gardening.
B) golf.
C) tennis.
D) bicycling.
Q2) The ideal pregame meal should contain about:
A) 50 to 100 g carbohydrate.
B) 100 to 200 g carbohydrate.
C) 200 to 300 g carbohydrate.
D) 400 to 500 g carbohydrate.
Q3) With prolonged exercise, two nutrients that can become depleted are:
A) calcium and phosphorus.
B) glucose and glycogen.
C) protein and potassium.
D) vitamins A and D.
Q4) Fatty acids are mobilized for energy by:
A) growth hormone.
B) hormone-sensitive lipase.
C) insulin.
D) gastric lipase.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Complexity of Obesity: Beyond Energy Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The public health strategies that may help reverse the current obesity epidemic are:
A) diet, exercise, and behavior modification.
B) drugs, supplements, and surgery.
C) education, regulation, and modification of the food supply.
D) portion control, low-fat diet, and low-sugar diet.
Q2) One reason that obesity is increasing in children is because many of them:
A) drink beverages sweetened with aspartame.
B) have easy access to nutrient-dense foods.
C) gain weight in an attempt to become popular.
D) spend large amounts of time watching television.
Q3) Dietetic professionals working with clients who need to lose weight should work toward:
A) rapid initial weight loss to encourage the client.
B) helping the client follow a specific diet plan.
C) rewarding the client for weight loss.
D) permanent lifestyle changes.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition Assessment and Nutrition Therapy in Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first step in the Nutrition Care Process is nutrition:
A) monitoring and evaluation.
B) intervention.
C) diagnosis.
D) assessment.
Q2) One method of determining a person's usual eating habits is to collect a:
A) 24-hour food record.
B) blood sample.
C) diet history.
D) weight history.
Q3) In a client who is nonambulatory, body height can be assessed by measuring:
A) arm span.
B) body mass index.
C) leg length.
D) elbow breadth.
Q4) A special therapeutic diet may be modified in:
A) consistency and tolerance.
B) frequency and portion size.
C) seasonings, nutrient density, and/or fluids.
D) nutrients, energy, and/or texture.
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Chapter 17: Metabolic Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before general surgical procedures, oral food and fluids are withheld from patients for at least:
A) 4 to 6 hours.
B) 6 to 8 hours.
C) 8 to 12 hours.
D) 12 to 24 hours.
Q2) If a client has had surgery of the head, neck, or throat and can only swallow a limited amount of food, his or her oral diet should include:
A) clear liquids only.
B) full liquids only.
C) energy- and protein-dense soft foods.
D) low-residue foods.
Q3) Clients who have undergone radical neck or facial surgery are often fed using:
A) a straw.
B) a nasogastric tube.
C) a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube.
D) parenteral nutrition.
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Chapter 18: Drug-Nutrient Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The class of medications associated with tyramine syndrome is:
A) antipyretics.
B) anticoagulants.
C) monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
D) oral contraceptives.
Q2) The chemotherapeutic agent methotrexate has multiple antagonistic effects on:
A) ascorbic acid.
B) tocopherol.
C) thiamin.
D) folic acid.
Q3) Use of oral hypoglycemic agents in combination with alcohol may cause:
A) loss of potassium.
B) chronic blood loss.
C) hypoglycemia.
D) hyperglycemia.
Q4) A type of drug that may cause stomach irritation and even gastric bleeding is:
A) nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs.
B) antineoplastic drugs.
C) antipsychotics and antidepressants.
D) antihistamines.
20
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Chapter 19: Nutrition Support: Enteral and Parenteral
Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nutrient density of most commercial enteral formulas is:
A) 1 to 2 kcal/mL.
B) 2 to 5 kcal/mL.
C) 4 to 5 kcal/mL.
D) 4 to 10 kcal/mL.
Q2) Weight should be measured daily in patients receiving nutrition support to help determine their:
A) nutritional status.
B) hydration status.
C) energy balance.
D) nitrogen balance.
Q3) A problem associated with use of blenderized formulas is:
A) lack of flavor.
B) lack of viscosity.
C) bacterial contamination.
D) nutrient density.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflammation of the gallbladder is called:
A) cholecystitis.
B) cholelithiasis.
C) cholecystectomy.
D) cholecalciferol.
Q2) A characteristic symptom of a peptic ulcer is:
A) steatorrhea after meals.
B) constant diarrhea.
C) abdominal pain between meals.
D) gradual weight loss.
Q3) During remission, patients with Crohn's disease are encouraged to increase their intake of:
A) fat.
B) antioxidants.
C) vitamin supplements.
D) foods high in oxalate.
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Heart, Blood Vessels, and Lungs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical nutrition therapy for treatment of hypertension includes:
A) fluid restriction.
B) increased intakes of potassium and calcium.
C) reduced carbohydrate intake.
D) decreased fat and protein intake.
Q2) Soluble fibers are believed to be beneficial for preventing heart disease because they:
A) expedite gastric emptying.
B) lower LDL cholesterol levels.
C) increase intestinal transit time.
D) quicken glucose absorption.
Q3) Nutrition therapy for clients who have congestive heart failure focuses on restriction of dietary intake of:
A) potassium.
B) sodium.
C) cholesterol.
D) saturated fat.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Historically, type 2 diabetes is typically diagnosed after age:
A) 30 years.
B) 40 years.
C) 50 years.
D) 60 years.
Q2) Development of complications of type 1 diabetes can be minimized by:
A) weight loss.
B) aggressive insulin therapy.
C) strenuous exercise.
D) preventing hypoglycemia.
Q3) Clients with type 1 diabetes can achieve more consistent blood glucose control using:
A) intensive insulin therapy.
B) oral antidiabetic drugs.
C) urine testing.
D) glycated hemoglobin testing.
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Chapter 23: Renal Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main cause of cystine stones is:
A) cystine intake.
B) immobility.
C) heredity.
D) oxalate intake.
Q2) The main function of the proximal tubule of the glomerulus is:
A) reabsorption of nutrients.
B) secretion of hydrogen ions to maintain acid-base balance.
C) exchange of water and sodium.
D) reabsorption of water.
Q3) The most common causes of end-stage renal disease are:
A) inadequate fluid intake and malnutrition.
B) high protein and sodium intakes.
C) hypertension and diabetic nephropathy.
D) kidney stones and urinary tract infections.
Q4) Electrolyte imbalances that occur in chronic renal failure include:
A) high serum potassium.
B) low serum potassium.
C) high serum calcium.
D) low serum phosphorus.
25
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Chapter 24: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stage of HIV infection in which viral growth is significant but not obvious is:
A) the acute infection stage.
B) the asymptomatic stage.
C) the seroconversion phase.
D) the final stage.
Q2) If taken correctly, the effect of ART is to:
A) reduce malnutrition and opportunistic infections.
B) effectively cure HIV/AIDS.
C) prevent the spread of HIV/AIDS to uninfected sexual partners.
D) improve the patient's sense of well-being.
Q3) Children with AIDS who develop lactose intolerance should:
A) eliminate all dairy products from the diet.
B) replace milk with soy-based infant formula.
C) substitute goat's milk for cow's milk in the diet.
D) follow a vegan diet.
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Chapter 25: Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dry foods may be helpful to a patient who has:
A) nausea.
B) anorexia.
C) diarrhea.
D) sore mouth.
Q2) The greatest interference with normal food intake is caused by treatment of cancer in the:
A) lung.
B) lymph glands.
C) head and neck.
D) white blood cells.
Q3) Cancers that arise from skin or tissues that line or cover internal organs are called: A) neoplasms.
B) sarcomas.
C) carcinomas.
D) lymphomas.
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