Nursing Skills Laboratory Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Nursing Skills Laboratory is a practical course designed to provide students with hands-on experience in fundamental nursing procedures and patient care techniques. Through guided simulations and supervised practice, students develop competence in essential clinical skills such as vital sign assessment, wound care, medication administration, and infection control measures. The course emphasizes patient safety, effective communication, and adherence to professional standards, preparing students to deliver high-quality care in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 8th Edition by Anne Griffin Perry
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44 Chapters
1316 Verified Questions
1316 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2003
2
Chapter 1: Using Evidence in Nursing Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39771
Sample Questions
Q1) When evidence-based practice is used, patient care will be:
A)standardized for all.
B)unhampered by patient culture.
C)variable according to the situation.
D)safe from the hazards of critical thinking.
Answer: C
Q2) Evidence-based practice is a problem-solving approach to making decisions about patient care that is grounded in:
A)the latest information found in textbooks.
B)systematically conducted research studies.
C)tradition in clinical practice.
D)quality improvement and risk management data.
Answer: B
Q3) ____________________ is the extent to which a study's findings are valid, reliable, and relevant to your patient population of interest.
Answer: Scientific rigor
Scientific rigor is the extent to which a study's findings are valid, reliable, and relevant to your patient population of interest.
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3
Chapter 2: Admitting, Transfer, and Discharge
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient is having acute physical problems, postpone routine admission procedures until the patient's immediate needs are met.A ________________ assessment is needed at this point.
Answer: focused
If a patient is having acute physical problems, postpone routine admission procedures until you meet the patient's immediate needs.Complete a focused assessment at this point.
Q2) Completing and documenting an accurate medication history from the patient is the important first step in the _____________ process.
Answer: medication reconciliation
Medication reconciliation compares the patient's home medication list versus the medication orders at admission, transfer, or discharge to avoid medication errors such as omissions, duplications, dosing errors, or drug interactions.
Q3) The greatest challenge in effective discharge planning is _______________.
Answer: communication
The greatest challenge in effective discharge planning is communication.The communication problem is minimized when an organization has a discharge coordinator or a case manager who is responsible for discharge planning.
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4
Chapter 3: Communication
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39773
Sample Questions
Q1) Verbal communication includes which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Speech
B)Personal space
C)Body movement
D)Writing
Answer: A, D
Q2) When comparing therapeutic communication versus social communication, the professional nurse realizes that therapeutic communication:
A)allows equal opportunity for personal disclosure.
B)allows both participants to have personal needs met.
C)is goal directed and patient centered.
D)provides an opportunity to compare intimate details.
Answer: C
Q3) Nonverbal communication incorporates messages conveyed by:
A)touch.
B)cadence.
C)tone quality.
D)use of jargon.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Documentation and Informatics
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multidisciplinary care plans that include key interventions and expected outcomes within an established time frame are known as _______________.
Q2) ___________________ provide a format for documenting a patient's health status and progress.
Q3) The patient is a 24-year-old man who is diagnosed with possible HIV infection while being treated for active pneumonia.He has stated that the nurse may share test result information with his significant other but nothing else at this time.With whom may the nurse communicate regarding this information?
A)The patient's parents
B)The patient's significant other only
C)No one in the hospital until the patient says so
D)The patient's physician, significant other, and laboratory personnel
Q4) Nursing documentation: (Select all that apply.)
A)ensures continuity of care.
B)provides legal evidence.
C)evaluates patient outcomes.
D)increases the risk of litigation.
Q5) __________________ documentation should include your observations of patient behavior.
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Chapter 5: Vital Signs
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is complaining of a severe headache.The nurse takes the patient's blood pressure and finds it to be 240/110.What is the pulse pressure?
A)110
B)240
C)130
D)350
Q2) Which of the following processes are involved in respiration? (Select all that apply.)
A)Ventilation
B)Diffusion
C)Oximetry
D)Perfusion
Q3) The patient has been sleeping and has been lying on his right side.The nurse is ready to take his temperature using a tympanic thermometer.She needs to insert the thermometer into his ___________ ear.
Q4) When heat loss mechanisms are unable to keep pace with heat production, ____________ is the result.
Q5) The percent to which hemoglobin is filled with oxygen is known as
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Chapter 6: Health Assessment
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an expected outcome for a patient after cardiac assessment?
A)Apical pulse rate equals 58 beats per minute
B)Carotid bruits present
C)PMI palpable at left fifth intercostal space at midclavicular line
D)Jugular veins distended with patient in sitting position
Q2) The patient has been immobile at home after having had leg trauma in an automobile accident and is now being admitted with calf pain and localized swelling of the calf muscle.One test that is contraindicated in assessment of this patient is testing for _____________.
Q3) In providing a physical assessment of an 88-year-old patient, the nurse should:
A)do it as quickly as possible to prevent fatigue.
B)assume that the patient will have disabilities.
C)prepare to perform a mental status examination.
D)always do the exam in the small exam room to prevent chills.
Q4) The patient has been in the ICU following an acute myocardial infarction 3 days earlier.During an initial assessment of the patient, the nurse detects a heart murmur that the patient did not have previously.The nurse should __________________.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Medical Asepsis
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39777
Sample Questions
Q1) _______________, also known as sterile technique, includes procedures used to eliminate all microorganisms from an area.
Q2) For an infection to take place, which of the following must be present? (Select all that apply.)
A)Pathogen and reservoir
B)Portals of exit and entry
C)Mode of transmission
D)Susceptible host
E)None of above
Q3) When caring for patients, the nurse understands that the single most important technique to prevent and control the transmission of infection is:
A)hand hygiene.
B)the use of disposable gloves.
C)the use of isolation precautions.
D)sterilization of equipment.
Q4) The nurse knows that the basic concept of all patient care that is implemented to prevent the spread of infection from blood, body fluids, secretions, excretions, nonintact skin, and mucus membranes is __________________.
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Chapter 8: Sterile Technique
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The minimum standard for infection control as established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is _______________.
Q2) A patient requires a sterile dressing change for a mid-abdominal surgical incision.An appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement in maintaining sterile asepsis is to:
A)put sterile gloves on before opening sterile packages.
B)discard items that may have been in contact with the area below waist level.
C)place the povidone-iodine bottle well within the sterile field.
D)place sterile items on the very edge of the sterile drape.
Q3) A type I hypersensitivity to latex is evident if the nurse assesses:
A)localized swelling.
B)skin redness and itching.
C)runny eyes and nose and cough.
D)tachycardia, hypotension, and wheezing.
Q4) When removing the mask after an aseptic procedure, what should the nurse do first?
A)Remove gloves.
B)Untie top strings of mask.
C)Untie bottom strings of mask.
D)Untie top strings and let mask hang.
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Chapter 9: Safe Patient Handling, Transfer, and Positioning
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39779
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is an elderly man who has just been admitted for a probable cerebrovascular accident.The patient is nonverbal and does not respond to requests but is able to turn himself in bed.The nurse notices that the patient likes to lie on his right side, and soon after being turned by the nursing staff, the patient turns back to his right side.The nurse in this case should:
A)allow the patient to lie on his right side continuously because he seems comfortable. B)prevent the patient from lying on his right side until he no longer wishes to lie on that side.
C)frequently assess the patient and turn him more frequently.
D)allow the patient to lie on his right side until a pressure ulcer develops and he can no longer lie on that side.
Q2) A postoperative patient has been instructed by a nurse about the importance of moving in bed but is still avoiding movement.The nurse should:
A)avoid moving the patient until he or she is motivated.
B)have family members move the patient around.
C)decrease the frequency of movement to be performed.
D)medicate the patient with a prescribed analgesic before moving.
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11
Chapter 10: Exercise and Ambulation
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse encourages a patient to prevent venous stasis by:
A)crossing the legs when sitting in a chair.
B)wearing thigh-length nylon stockings or garters.
C)elevating the legs on pillows while in bed.
D)increasing early ambulation.
Q2) An appropriate procedure for the nurse to use when applying an elastic stocking is to:
A)remove the stockings every 24 hours.
B)keep the tops of the stockings rolled down slightly.
C)turn the stocking inside out to apply from the toes up.
D)wash stockings daily and dry in a dryer.
Q3) A drop in blood pressure that occurs when the patient changes position from a horizontal to a vertical position is known as _________________.
Q4) When the four gaits listed below are compared, which is the most stable of the crutch gaits?
A)Four-point gait
B)Three-point gait
C)Two-point gait
D)Swing-to gait
Q5) A person's inability to move about freely is known as _______________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Orthopedic Measures
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a patient who is to be placed in Russell's traction, the nurse prepares the:
A)occipital area.
B)arm and forearm.
C)back and abdomen.
D)lower extremities.
Q2) The patient is in traction and is at risk for fat embolism syndrome.Signs and symptoms of fat embolism include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Chest pain
B)Tachypnea
C)Tachycardia
D)Apprehension
E)Altered LOC
Q3) An expected outcome of cast application that the nurse evaluates is:
A)skin irritation at the cast edges.
B)decreased capillary refill and pallor.
C)tingling and numbness distal to the cast.
D)slight edema, soreness, and limited range of motion.
Q4) After applying a cast, the nurse should be able to insert _______ fingers between the cast and the limb.
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Chapter 12: Support Surfaces and Special Beds
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39782
Sample Questions
Q1) When working with a patient who is being placed on an air mattress/overlay, the nurse should:
A)apply the preinflated overlay over the standard mattress.
B)bring any plastic strips or flaps around the corners of the bed mattress.
C)administer an analgesic after the patient is moved onto the mattress.
D)keep clamps or pins attached to the sheets to keep them in place over the mattress.
Q2) The _______________ bed rotates and improves skeletal alignment with constant side-to-side rotation up to 90 degrees.
Q3) _________________ beds are for patients who are immobile or otherwise are confined to the bed; they support a patient's weight on air-filled cushions.
Q4) What is the most important factor in preventing and treating pressure ulcers?
A)Proper use of foam or air mattresses
B)Proper utilization of an air-fluidized bed
C)Frequent repositioning of the patient
D)Proper use of a low-air-loss bed
Q5) ____________ are defined as localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue, usually over a bony prominence, as a result of pressure, or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.
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Chapter 13: Safety and Quality Improvement
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39783
Sample Questions
Q1) Continuous seizure activity that lasts longer than 10 minutes is known as _______________.
Q2) The use of physical restraints is one safety strategy that has been used to protect patients from injury.However, physical restraints should be used as a ______________ and are used only when reasonable alternatives have failed.
Q3) An ________________ maintains immobilization of the extremities to protect the patient from accidental removal of a therapeutic device.
Q4) Upon entering the patient's room, the nurse sees a fire burning in the trash can next to the bed.The nurse removes the patient and reports the fire.What is the nurse's next action?
A)Extinguish the fire.
B)Remove all other patients from the unit.
C)Close all doors of patient rooms.
D)Move the trash can into the bathroom.
Q5) It is important for nurses to understand what patients perceive as ___________ so that patients will become partners in programs to prevent them.
Q6) __________ are the most common type of inpatient accident.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Disaster Preparedness
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39784
Sample Questions
Q1) Releasing nuclear energy in an explosive manner as the result of a nuclear chain reaction is known as a ________________.
Q2) The patient is admitted to the emergency department with possible smallpox exposure.The patient has never had a smallpox immunization.The nurse prepares to administer a smallpox vaccination, realizing that vaccination:
A)within 3 days of exposure will completely prevent the disease.
B)is effective only if received before exposure.
C)4 to 7 days after exposure will completely prevent the disease. D)within 3 days will offer only some protection from disease.
Q3) The dispersal of radioactive material via a "dirty bomb" or by deliberate contamination of food supplies or water supplies is known as a _________________.
Q4) The patient is being treated for biological agent exposure and is resting in the emergency department bay.It is important that the nurse evaluate changes in airway, breathing, and circulation, as well as ____________________.
Q5) The strategic plan of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention in the event of a disaster first focuses on __________________.
Q6) It is recommended that every household prepare a ____________.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Pain Assessment and Basic Comfort Measures
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a patient who has a PCA knows that it:
A)allows the family to participate in pain management for the patient.
B)prevents mistakes in medication administration.
C)can be used by all hospitalized patients.
D)provides a more constant level of medication.
Q2) ________________ is a method of preventing pain while reducing overall opioid use.
Q3) Pain that extends beyond the period of healing and often lacks an identified pathology is known as _______________.
Q4) A nonpharmacological approach that the nurse may implement for patients who are experiencing pain that focuses on diverting the patient's attention away from the pain sensation by promoting pleasurable and meaningful stimuli is:
A)massage.
B)heat/cold.
C)guided imagery.
D)distraction.
Q5) Massaging upward and outward from the vertebral column and back again is known as __________________.
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Chapter 16: Palliative Care
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39786
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has a history of terminal cancer but is being admitted for treatment of a pressure ulcer.The patient's wife has been caring for him at home and refuses to discuss admission to a nursing home.The wife looks extremely tired and is near the point of exhaustion.What could the nurse suggest?
A)A consult for hospice care
B)Continuing with the plan of care as is
C)That the doctor order the patient into a nursing home
D)That the wife stay away while the patient is hospitalized
Q2) The patient is being admitted to the hospital for injuries received when a hurricane destroyed her home.She is upset from the loss of her home and possessions.What type of loss is this considered?
A)Necessary loss
B)Maturational loss
C)Situational loss
D)Perceived loss
Q3) The irreversible absence of all brain function is termed ______________.
Q4) _____________ helps people live as well as possible through the dying process.
Q5) An _______________ is the surgical dissection of a body after death.
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Chapter 17: Personal Hygiene and Bed Making
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39787
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses the patient's skin and notices an abrasion.Which of the following best describes this type of skin abnormality?
A)A papulopustular skin eruption
B)Rough texture on the skin surface
C)Erythema and scaly, oozing areas
D)A scraping away of the epidermis
Q2) The nurse is providing nail care for the patient who wants his fingernails "done." The nurse should:
A)clip the fingernails gently to prevent injury.
B)clean under the nails using an orange stick.
C)soak the fingernails no longer than 10 minutes.
D)clean under the nails using the end of a cotton swab.
Q3) While giving the patient a bed bath, the nurse notices a reddened area on the patient's coccyx.The nurse should:
A)decrease the temperature of the bath water.
B)massage the reddened area to decrease the redness.
C)apply topical moisturizing agents to the area.
D)ignore the redness because it will return to normal soon.
Q4) The ____________ is the largest human organ.
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Chapter 18: Pressure Ulcer Care
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with anemia is at risk for developing pressure ulcers as a result of which of the following?
A)Increased sedation
B)Edematous tissues
C)Reduced tensile strength
D)Diminished oxygen to the tissues
Q2) Patients are at risk for developing pressure ulcers on which areas of the body? (Select all that apply.)
A)Coccyx
B)Nares
C)Ears
D)Genitalia
E)None of above
Q3) A _______________ is a localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue, usually over a bony prominence, as a result of pressure, or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.
Q4) The removal of devitalized tissue in a wound is known as ______________.
Q5) When skin layers adhere to the linens and deeper tissue layer move downward, ________ damage occurs.
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Chapter 19: Care of the Eye and Ear
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the nurse assess that a hearing aid is operating correctly?
A)Speaking very softly behind the patient
B)Covering the patient's unaffected ear and speaking
C)Determining the patient's response to a normal tone of voice
D)Removing the hearing aid and sending it to be checked by an audiologist
Q2) The nurse is caring for an unconscious patient who has an artificial eye.To determine which eye is artificial, she shines a light into the patient's eyes.Why does the nurse do this?
A)The light will cause the eye to move differently than the natural eye.
B)An artificial eye pupil does not react to changes in light.
C)It is essential to remove the prosthesis for cleaning.
D)The implant can be seen only by shining a light.
Q3) When instructing a patient on correct technique for inserting a hearing aid into the ear, the nurse will include which of the following instructions?
A)Pull the outer ear up and out.
B)Hold the aid with the long portion upright.
C)Fit the aid snugly in the midline of the canal.
D)Turn the aid to the desired sound level before insertion.
Q4) ____________ is the complete surgical removal of the eyeball.
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Chapter 20: Safe Medication Preparation
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prescribed dose of Tylenol is given to a patient.The nurse recognizes the name Tylenol as which of the following?
A)Chemical name
B)Trade name
C)Generic name
D)United States Pharmacopeia
Q2) The patient is complaining of severe leg pain.No pain medication is ordered, so the nurse calls the health care provider.An order for Tylenol with Codeine prn is given, in addition to a one-time order for morphine sulfate to be given stat.Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A)Give the morphine sulfate and Tylenol with Codeine immediately.
B)Give the Tylenol with Codeine now.
C)Give the morphine sulfate immediately.
D)Ask the patient which medication he would like first.
Q3) A drug interaction in which the combined effect of drugs is greater than the sum of the effects of each individual agent acting independently is known as a
Q4) Medication safety is always one of the ______________ set by The Joint Commission.
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Chapter 21: Oral and Topical Medications
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering a beta-adrenergic medication via a small-volume nebulizer.Which assessment finding requires the nurse to withhold the medication immediately?
A)Episodes of coughing
B)Rapid and shallow respirations
C)Wheezing noted on auscultation of the lungs
D)Irregular pulse with light-headedness
Q2) The nurse is applying a new nitroglycerin transdermal patch.Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A)Instructing the patient to wear the patch 24 hours a day every day
B)Applying the new patch to the same site as the previous patch
C)Cutting the patch in half when a change of dose is ordered
D)Instructing the patient to avoid heat sources over the patch
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient with an enteral tube.The nurse can safely give the medications through which types of enteral tube? (Select all that apply.)
A)Nasogastric feeding tube
B)Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube
C)Jejunostomy tube
D)Nasogastric decompression tube
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Chapter 22: Parenteral Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most frequent route of exposure to bloodborne disease for health care workers is needlestick injury.The nurse recognizes that implementation of _________________ can prevent needlestick injury.
Q2) The nurse informs the patient that the medication will be absorbed rapidly because it was injected into tissue with a rich blood supply.The patient has just received a ______________ injection.
Q3) The nurse is teaching a family member of an obese patient how to administer a subcutaneous U-100 insulin injection to the patient.Which instruction should be included in the teaching plan?
A)Carefully massage the site after the injection to aid absorption.
B)Draw the medication into a tuberculin syringe with a 27-gauge needle.
C)Insert the needle quickly and firmly at a 90-degree angle.
D)Rotate injection sites between the abdomen, thighs, and upper arms.
Q4) The patient is receiving allergy testing.The nurse is using the inner forearm to inject the allergen into the ____________.
Q5) The nurse is preparing to give an intramuscular injection to a toddler.To decrease pain, EMLA cream is applied to the injection site at least ______ hour(s) before administration of the injection.
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Chapter 23: Oxygen Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for several patients receiving oxygen by various delivery systems.Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates proper use of the oxygen device?
A)No mist is noted in a face tent.
B)The reservoir of the rebreathing mask collapses on inhalation.
C)The flow rate is between 1 and 6 L/min for a nasal cannula.
D)The flow rate for an oxygen hood is set at 3 L/min.
Q2) The ________, also called a Briggs adaptor, connects an oxygen source to an artificial airway such as an endotracheal tube.
Q3) The nurse is reviewing lab results for a patient with hypoxemia.The nurse is aware that which of the following results may worsen the patient's hypoxemia? (Select all that apply.)
A)Low sodium levels
B)Low hemoglobin levels
C)Increased blood pH
D)Decreased blood pH
Q4) In noninvasive ventilation, ________________ keeps the terminal airways (alveoli) partially inflated, reducing the risk for atelectasis.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Performing Chest Physiotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse positions the patient flat on the back with a small pillow under the knees to drain the right and left _____________________.
Q2) The nurse receives orders for an Acapella device on several patients.The nurse should question the order on the patient with which condition?
A)Chronic bronchitis
B)Asthma
C)Cystic fibrosis (CF)
D)Pleural effusion
Q3) The nurse receives orders on several patients for chest percussion, vibration, and shaking.The nurse is aware that chest physiotherapy maneuvers are indicated for which patient?
A)18-year-old who sustained thoracic trauma from a motor vehicle accident
B)75-year-old with osteoporosis who is underweight
C)15-year-old with cystic fibrosis
D)20-year-old with a fractured clavicle
Q4) ________________ is positioning the patient so that the position of the lung segment to be drained allows gravity to have its greatest effect.
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Chapter 25: Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient on mechanical ventilation with an endotracheal tube.Which nursing interventions will help prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Changing the patient's position every 2 hours
B)Keeping the head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees
C)Providing oral care with a toothette every 8 hours
D)Keeping the head flat during and for 30 minutes after enteral feedings
Q2) The nurse is preparing to suction an infant with a tracheostomy tube.Which action by the nurse follows appropriate procedure?
A)Using a suction catheter that is half the diameter of the tracheostomy tube
B)Suctioning 0.2 to 0.5 inches beyond the tip of the tracheostomy tube
C)Hyperoxygenating with 90% oxygen to avoid oxygen toxicity
D)Using less than 150 mm Hg negative pressure
Q3) The nurse has completed suctioning a patient's airway.Which action should the nurse take first?
A)Reduce the suction level to medium.
B)Remove the face shield and save for future suctioning.
C)Reposition the patient and assist with oral hygiene using sterile gloves.
D)Pull the gloves off over the rolled catheter and discard.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Closed Chest Drainage Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse knows that _______________ is the proper term to describe that the patient's water seal is fluctuating up and down with each breath.
A)bubbling
B)tidaling
C)fluttering
D)alternating
Q2) Which of the following is the correct positioning for a patient after a chest tube has been inserted for a hemothorax?
A)Supine
B)Side-lying
C)Semi-Fowler's
D)High-Fowler's
Q3) A pneumothorax can be caused by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Trauma
B)Rupture of a blister
C)Emphysema
D)Dyspnea
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28
Chapter 27: Emergency Measures for Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) When applying an automated external defibrillator, the nurse would:
A)connect the cable to the machine, apply the pads, and turn on the power.
B)turn on the power, apply the pads, and connect the cable.
C)turn on the power, connect the cable, and apply the pads.
D)connect the cable, turn on the power, and apply the pads.
Q2) The nurse enters the patient's room and finds that the patient is not breathing and has no pulse.The patient does not have a do-not-resuscitate order.What would the nurse's most immediate action be?
A)Call the cardiac/respiratory arrest team.
B)Begin CPR.
C)Call a co-worker for help.
D)Get the crash cart.
Q3) During the secondary survey of the code event, the nurse realizes that the patient is not breathing on his own.What should the nurse do next?
A)Immediately intubate the patient.
B)Have a laryngoscope handle and curved blades available.
C)Ensure that the light source on the laryngoscope is functional.
D)Have a laryngoscope handle and straight blades available.
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Chapter 28: Intravenous and Vascular Access Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fluids that have the same osmolality as body fluids are used most often to replace extracellular volume and are known as _______________ fluids.
Q2) The order is for the patient to receive 500 mL over 4 hours.The nurse has an electronic infusion device ( EID ) in place that provides for the regulation of hourly infusion.The IV tubing available is 10 gtt/mL.What is the setting for the infusion device?
A)125 mL/hr
B)500 mL/hr
C)21 gtt/min
D)32 gtt/min
Q3) What should the nurse do when discontinuing a peripheral IV?
A)Withdraw the catheter quickly.
B)Keep the hub perpendicular to the skin.
C)Apply pressure to the site for 1 minute.
D)Inspect the catheter for intactness after removal.
Q4) ___________________ is manifested by decreased urine output, dry mucous membranes, decreased capillary refill, a disparity in central and peripheral pulses, tachycardia, hypotension, and shock.
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Chapter 29: Blood Transfusions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibodies that react against the A and B antigens are naturally present in the plasma of people whose red blood cells do not carry the antigen.These antibodies react against the foreign antigens.Incompatible red blood cells clump together or _____________, which results in a life-threatening hemolytic transfusion reaction.
Q2) For how long may blood preserved with CPD be stored (unfrozen) before use?
A)21 days
B)35 days
C)42 days
D)3 months
Q3) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement for a blood transfusion is to:
A)provide medication through the IV line with the blood.
B)regulate the flow of blood so that it infuses over 8 hours.
C)clear the IV tubing with normal saline after the blood infuses.
D)administer a blood product with clots through a filter line.
Q4) A transfusion in which the donor is the patient is known as an ______________ transfusion or autotransfusion.
Q5) Under the ABO system, the blood type __________ can be given to any individual and is known as the "Universal Donor."
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Chapter 30: Oral Nutrition
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who requires assistance with eating.The patient repeatedly apologizes to the nurse, saying, "I'm so sorry.I'm like a baby.I'm such a burden since I can't even feed myself." What is the most appropriate strategy for the nurse to use?
A)Feed all of the solid foods first, and then offer liquids.
B)Feed the patient quickly so as not to make the patient feel like it is taking a great deal of time out of the nurse's day.
C)Minimize conversation so that the patient can eat faster.
D)Appear unhurried, sit at the bedside, and encourage the patient to feed himself/herself as much as possible.
Q2) The nurse will collaborate with a ___________ to develop a nutritional plan for a patient identified as being at nutritional risk.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who is 6 feet 2 inches tall and weighs 250 pounds.What is the patient's body mass index (BMI)?
A)18.5 kg/m<sub>2</sub>
B)30.2 kg/m<sub>2</sub>
C)32.13 kg/m<sub>2</sub>
D)40.11 kg/m<sub>2</sub>
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32
Chapter 31: Enteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving continuous tube feedings.What must the nurse do to care for this patient?
A)Verify tube position every 4 to 6 hours.
B)Obtain a radiograph every 4 to 12 hours.
C)Instill air into the stomach via the tube and listen for bubbles.
D)Do not worry about tube placement because the tube has already been determined to be in the right place.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with an enteral feeding tube in place.She assesses for pulmonary aspiration as the main complication related to feeding tubes.She is aware of other complications, including which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Infection
B)Diarrhea
C)Tube clogging
D)Tube dislodgment
E)None of above
Q3) A tube passed through the nose or mouth with the end terminating in the stomach or the small bowel, and used in feeding the patient for short periods is known as a
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33
Chapter 32: Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has been caring for a patient who has had a central venous catheter in place.The patient complains of sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing.Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
A)Exit site infection
B)Catheter-related sepsis
C)Pneumothorax
D)Hyperglycemia
Q2) Which assessment should a nurse expect to see for a patient receiving PN?
A)Weight gain of 1 to 2 pounds per week
B)Serum calcium level of 10 mEq/L
C)Serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
D)Serum glucose level of more than 200 mg/100 mL
Q3) For patients receiving PN, ___________ provide supplemental kilocalories and prevent essential fatty acid deficiencies.
Q4) If PN must be discontinued suddenly, hang __________ in water at the same infusion rate to prevent hypoglycemia.
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Chapter 33: Urinary Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient whose 24-hour output is 2400 mL.Which finding reflects the nurse's understanding of urine output?
A)Increased output
B)Decreased output
C)Normal output
D)Balanced output
Q2) An ______________ has a separate lumen that is used to inflate a balloon so the catheter remains in the bladder for short- or long-term use.
Q3) A ___________________ is a noninvasive alternative for management of male urinary incontinence.Because it is noninvasive, the risk for UTI is decreased.The device fits over the penis and connects to a small collection bag that attaches to the leg with a strap, or to a standard urinary collection bag that hangs on the bed frame below the level of the bladder.
Q4) A single-lumen catheter that is inserted into the bladder through the urethra only to empty the bladder and then is removed is known as a _______________ catheter.
Q5) The risk for catheter-associated urinary tract infection can be reduced by using ___________ when inserting the catheter.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Bowel Elimination and Gastric Intubation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is a 74-year-old man who has been in the hospital for 4 days following an orthopedic surgical procedure.He is concerned because he has not moved his bowels every day as he did before surgery, but every other day.Which response made by the nurse is appropriate?
A)Tells the patient to put himself on over-the-counter laxatives
B)Tells the patient that daily bowel movements are not always necessary
C)Tells the patient that with increasing age, his bowel movements should increase in frequency
D)Tells the patient that she will call to get a laxative to get him back on track
Q2) The patient is receiving a soapsuds enema but is having a difficult time retaining the fluid.What action should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A)Give the enema slowly.
B)Place the patient in the dorsal recumbent position on a bedpan.
C)Give the enema with the patient on the toilet.
D)Give the enema in the right lateral position.
E)Give the enema faster.
Q3) The inability to pass a hard collection of stool is known as ______________.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Ostomy Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has a urostomy is being discharged to home.Which instruction will the nurse to provide to the patient?
A)Restrict fluid intake to reduce urine output.
B)Report any mucus in his urine.
C)Keep unused pouches in the refrigerator.
D)Shower without covering the pouch.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a urinary diversion.She notices that the patient has a temperature of 102° F and foul-smelling urine.What action should the nurse take?
A)Obtain a urine culture from the patient's pouch.
B)Catheterize the patient to obtain a sterile urine specimen.
C)Notify the physician.
D)Realize that these are normal findings.
Q3) An opening that is in the ileal portion of the small intestine is an ____________.
Q4) An ostomy that is created from a portion of the ileum to form a stoma through which urine can exit the body is called a(n) _____________.
Q5) The opening created into the abdominal wall for fecal or urinary elimination is known as a _______________.
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Chapter 36: Preoperative and Postoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse understands that paralytic ileus is a possible postoperative complication.Which assessment provides the nurse with information about this postoperative complication?
A)Auscultating for bowel sounds every 4 hours
B)Checking blood pressure while sitting and standing
C)Observing the patient's performance of leg exercises
D)Palpating the suprapubic region for distention
Q2) When assessing a postoperative patient, the nurse notes tenderness, redness, and swelling in the left calf.What should the nurse do next?
A)Massage the lower leg.
B)Contact the surgeon and prepare for heparin therapy.
C)Keep the leg in a dependent position.
D)Have the patient exercise that extremity.
Q3) The nurse explains to the patient that the incentive spirometer is used to promote which of the following outcomes?
A)Lung expansion
B)Reduce likelihood of vascular complications
C)Incisional healing
D)Expectoration of mucus
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Intraoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) While the patient is in the OR and the OR team is gowned and gloved, the nurse recommends completion of a safety checklist.The nurse understands that the checklist verifies which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Patient identity
B)Patient allergies
C)Accurate marking of surgical site
D)Patient cultural preferences
E)Questions posed by the patient
Q2) The ________________ is a "sterile" team member who provides the surgeon with instruments and supplies, disposes of soiled sponges, and accounts for sponges, sharps, and instruments in the surgical field.
Q3) When planning care for a surgical patient, the nurse implements which technique to maintain sterility in the operating room?
A)Keeps the hands below the waist
B)Tucks the hands under the axilla
C)Uses sterile gloved hands to move a sterile drape under a table
D)Has anyone who is unscrubbed stay at least 1 foot away from the sterile field
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Chapter 38: Wound Care and Irrigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________ uses the mechanical force (high or low) of a stream of solution to remove debris, bacteria, and necrotic tissue from a wound.
Q2) When is healing by primary intention expected?
A)When the wound is left open and is allowed to heal
B)When a surgical wound is left open for 3 to 5 days
C)When connective tissue development is evident
D)When the edges of a clean incision remain close together
Q3) Wounds that have been approved for treatment using NPWT include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Pressure ulcers
B)Diabetic ulcers
C)Traumatic wounds
D)Venous stasis ulcers
E)None of above
Q4) ___________ are threads of wire or other materials used to sew body tissues together.
Q5) The _____________ is composed of newly formed collagen, and the nurse can usually feel it along a healing wound.It is usually present directly under the suture line between days 5 and 9.
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Chapter 39: Dressings, Bandages, and Binders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is demonstrating a dressing change to a nursing student.What key safety features should she emphasize during the process? (Select all that apply.)
A)Knowing the type of wound
B)Knowing the expected amount of drainage
C)Knowing the patient's blood type
D)Knowing whether drainage tubes are present
Q2) A __________ dressing comes in direct contact with the wound bed.
Q3) For a patient with a transparent film dressing, the nurse assesses that there is white, opaque fluid accumulation and the surrounding tissue is inflamed.How should the nurse respond?
A)Culture the wound.
B)Leave the current dressing in place.
C)Apply gauze over the top of the dressing.
D)Remove and stretch the film more tightly over the wound.
Q4) How should the nurse proceed when applying a pressure bandage?
A)Elevate the extremity or area of bleeding.
B)Wrap pressure-bandage gauze in a proximal-to-distal direction.
C)Apply pressure to diminish the pulse to the distal body part.
D)Wrap tape around the circumference of the site to secure the gauze padding.
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Chapter 40: Therapeutic Use of Heat and Cold
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Sample Questions
Q1) What procedure should the nurse follow when applying hot therapy to a patient with muscle spasm in response to an acute injury?
A)Apply the source for 20- to 30-minute periods.
B)Allow the patient to adjust the temperature for comfort.
C)Encourage the patient to move the application.
D)Position the patient so that he or she cannot move away from the temperature source.
Q2) What procedure should the nurse follow when applying hot compresses to an open wound?
A)Apply clean gloves.
B)Cover all wound surfaces.
C)Leave the application in place for 30 to 40 minutes.
D)Apply an electrical heating unit directly over the compress.
Q3) Besides monitoring the controls on the hypothermia blanket every 30 minutes, the nurse will need to assess the patient's ____________ every 4 hours.
Q4) The ________________ blanket raises, lowers, or maintains body temperature through conductive heat or cold transfer between the blanket and the patient.
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42
Chapter 41: Home Care Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common causes of falls in older patients include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Gait disturbances
B)Muscle weakness
C)Visual impairments
D)Environmental hazards
E)None of above
Q2) A patient with a cognitive deficit becomes agitated and upset about not being able to remember daily activities.How should the nurse respond to this agitation?
A)Tell the patient not to worry about it.
B)Provide an easy-to-follow calendar and reinforce the information.
C)Explain that becoming upset is not going to help the situation.
D)Remind the patient that now is the time to rest and relax.
Q3) Activities of daily living (ADLs) include the patient's ability to bathe, dress, go to the toilet, transfer, maintain continence, and feed himself; _______ include the ability to use a telephone, prepare meals, travel, do housework, take medication, and shop.
Q4) ___________ is a generalized impairment of intellectual functioning, with the most common form being Alzheimer's disease.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Home Care Teaching
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse will train the tracheostomy patient and caregiver that reusable supplies need to be disinfected at least weekly.Which of the following methods is recommended for cleaning tracheostomy supplies at home? (Select all that apply.)
A)Boil reusable (boilable) supplies for 5 minutes.Allow to cool and dry.
B)Boil reusable (boilable) supplies for 15 minutes.Allow to cool and dry.
C)Soak reusable supplies in equal parts of vinegar and water for 30 minutes.Remove, rinse thoroughly, and dry.
D)Soak reusable supplies in prepared solutions of quaternary ammonium chloride compounds according to the manufacturer's instructions.Rinse and dry.
Q2) When teaching the patient and family about CISC, why is it important for the nurse to teach about the signs and symptoms of complications?
A)Although rare, complications are always severe.
B)It is part of the process; complications almost never occur.
C)Urinary complications are common with CISC.
D)The only major complication is infection.
Q3) Temperatures in the older adult are different from those in the younger adult.The mean oral temperature for older adults often ranges from ____________.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Specimen Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assessment of the chemical properties of urine is done by immersing a special, chemically prepared strip of paper into a clean urine specimen, or by combining drops of urine with chemically prepared tablets.The _____________ of the strip or tablet indicates the presence of any of unique chemical properties.
Q2) A common test performed on fecal material is the ________ test for fecal occult blood.
Q3) The nurse is drawing blood from a patient to determine the blood alcohol level.Which step is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A)Swab the area with an antiseptic swab.
B)Swab the area with an alcohol swab.
C)Do not swab the area at all.
D)Apply the tourniquet for 5 minutes.
Q4) What must the nurse do to collect a midstream urine sample from an infant?
A)Apply a sterile plastic collection bag to the perineum.
B)Wring out diapers and collect the urine in a specimen container.
C)Have the infant sit facing the back of the toilet.
D)Catheterize the infant and collect the urine using sterile procedure.
Q5) _______________ organisms grow in superficial wounds exposed to the air.
Q6) The least traumatic method of obtaining a blood specimen is known as
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Chapter 44: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________________ apply manual compression to prevent bleeding at the arterial site.
Q2) For an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, a nurse should:
A)remove the patient's dentures.
B)suction the patient every 5 minutes.
C)place the patient in high-Fowler's position.
D)provide fluids immediately after the test is finished.
Q3) A specialized form of angiography in which a catheter is inserted into the left or right side of the heart via a major peripheral vessel to study pressures within the heart, cardiac volumes, valvular function, and patency of coronary arteries is known as ______________.
Q4) The physician needs to visually examine a patient's esophagus, stomach, and duodenum.The nurse anticipates that the physician will order:
A)endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography ( ERCP ).
B)esophagoscopy.
C)esophagogastroduodenoscopy ( EGD ).
D)proctoscopy.
Q5) ____________ are sterile invasive procedures involving the removal of body fluids or tissue for diagnostic procedures.
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