Nursing Physiology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Nursing Physiology is an essential course that explores the fundamental principles of human body function, emphasizing the normal physiological processes that underpin health and well-being. Through an integrated study of major body systems including the cardiovascular, respiratory, neurological, gastrointestinal, endocrine, and musculoskeletal systems students will develop a thorough understanding of homeostasis and physiological response to internal and external stressors. The course provides a strong scientific foundation for clinical practice by linking theoretical physiological concepts to common health scenarios and nursing interventions, equipping students with the knowledge necessary to assess and monitor patient health effectively.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Human Physiology 4th Edition by Lauralee Sherwood
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) increased cardiac activity to elevate blood pressure when systemic pressure is low
A)intrinsic control
B)negative feedback control
C)positive feedback control
Answer: B
Q2) ____________________ are drugs that prevent rejection of transplanted tissues.
Answer: immunosuppressive drugs
Q3) The heart is made of this type of tissue.
A)nervous tissue
B)epithelial tissue
C)muscle tissue
D)connective tissue
Answer: C
Q4) The body cells are in direct contact with and make life-sustaining exchanges with the ____________________.
Answer: internal environment (extracellular fluid)
Q5) ____________________ tissue is composed of cells specialized for contraction and force generation.
Answer: muscle
3
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Chapter 2: Cell Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increase the surface area of the kidney tubules.
A)flagella
B)cilia
C)microvilli
Answer: C
Q2) Select the incorrect characteristic of mitochondria?
A) they have an inner fluid filled space called the cristae.
B) they possess their own DNA.
C) they are the site a cell respiration.
D) their inner membranes posses electron carriers.
E) they possess two membranes.
Answer: A
Q3) Causes pinching off of endocytic vesicles.
A)dynamin
B)tubulin
C)kinesin
D)actin
Answer: A
Q4) Microfilaments are comprised of the protein ____________________.
Answer: actin
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Chapter 3: The Plasma Membrane and Membrane
Potential
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diffusion results from
A) ATP-driven processes.
B) use of ion gradients.
C) inherent kinetic energy of matter.
D) selective permeability.
E) loss of positive charge.
Answer: C
Q2) Enables tissues to stretch and recoil.
A)collagen
B)elastin
C)fibronectin
D)fibroblast
Answer: B
Q3) If a concentration or electrical gradient is present for a given substance, the substance will always passively permeate the membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Active transport is a kind of ____________________ transport. Answer: carrier-mediated
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Chapter 4: Principles of Neural and Hormonal Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the resting potential, many potassium channels are open in the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The junction between two neurons is known as a(n) ____________________.
Q3) catecholamine
A)junction between neurons
B)covering on the axon
C)abundant, branching process from cell body
D)last part of the neuron to send an impulse
E)neurotransmitter
F)site of action potential initiation
Q4) A. membrane potential at rest
B. the potential of the same membrane when it is depolarized
A)A is greater than B.
B)B is greater than A.
C)A and B are equal.
Q5) Neurohormones are hormones that specifically modify neural activity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Efferent neurons carry both sensory and motor information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) State the basic functions of the different classes of glial cells.
Q3) Frequent shifting
A)Slow-wave
B)Paradoxical
Q4) Complex thought is a function of the frontal lobe.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Chemical messengers released only in response to an action potential.
A)applies to the nervous system
B)applies to the endocrine system
C)applies to both the nervous system and the endocrine system
Q6) Chemical messengers travel short distances.
A)applies to the nervous system
B)applies to the endocrine system
C)applies to both the nervous system and the endocrine system
Q7) ____________________ refers to the ability to direct behavior toward specific goals.
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Chapter 6: The Peripheral Nervous System: Afferent Division and Special
Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Measured in decibels.
A)timbre (quality)
B)pitch (tone)
C)intensity of a sound wave (loudness)
Q2) The vibrational stimulus normally passes through the middle ear ossicles in the order
A) incus to the malleus to the stapes.
B) incus to the stapes to the incus.
C) malleus to the incus to the stapes.
D) malleus to the stapes to the incus.
E) stapes to the malleus to the incus.
Q3) choroid
Q4) The iris consists of layers of____________________ and ____________________ smooth muscle fibers.
Q5) Contains otoliths in gelatinous mass, movement of which bends hair cells.
A)external ear
B)middle ear
C)cochlea in the inner ear
D)semicircular canal in the inner ear
E)utricle and saccule in the inner ear
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Peripheral Nervous System: Efferent Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) decreases exocrine activity of the pancreas
A)the parasympathetic division
B)the sympathetic division
C)both parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions
Q2) A sympathetic agonist drug would cause a faster heart rate and dilated pupils.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Response to activation of this type of adrenergic receptor is usually excitatory.
A)nicotinic receptors
B)muscarinic receptors
C)alpha receptors
D)Beta 1 receptors
E)Beta 2 receptors
Q4) Select the correct statement about efferent neurons.
A) their cell bodies are located in dorsal root ganglia.
B) they are part of a two-neuron chain in the autonomic nervous system.
C) they arise peripherally at a receptor.
D) they send information toward the central nervous system.
E) they signal only skeletal muscles.
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Chapter 8: Muscle Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Is important in maintaining posture.
A)isometric contraction
B)isotonic contraction
Q2) Central fatigue of a muscle directly results from the accumulation of lactic acid in the muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The muscle cells of a marathon runner's legs would exhibit all these characteristics except
A) high resistance to fatigue.
B) low myoglobin content.
C) low glycogen content.
D) many mitochondria.
E) slow speed of contraction.
Q4) Cross bridges have actin binding sites that are normally covered by troponin and tropomyosin except during excitation-contraction coupling.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________________ is the intracellular signal for contraction.
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Chapter 9: Cardiac Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____________________ ensures that atrial excitation and contraction are complete before ventricular excitation and contraction commence.
Q2) The refractory period of cardiac muscle
A) lasts almost as long as the contraction period.
B) is much longer than the refractory period in skeletal muscle.
C) allows tetanic contraction of the heart to occur to ensure smooth, coordinated ejection of blood from the ventricles.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q3) Pacemaker activity by the Purkinje fibers is an example of an ectopic focus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The AV valve controls the amount of blood entering the atrium from the venous system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An increase in stroke volume ____________________ the cardiac output.
Q6) Describe generation of pacemaker action potentials.
Q7) An increase in parasympathetic activity ____________________ the heart rate.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Blood Vessels and Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe how local chemical cues can control blood flow through an organ.
Q2) In an arteriole, if the blood vessel radius is 2 units and then vasoconstricted to 1 units, the resistance:
A) the resistance decreases 16 times.
B) the resistance increases 16 times.
C) flow will be decreased.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) both (b) and (c) above.
Q3) Local chemical/metabolic influences on arteriolar radius include all of the following except:
A) local metabolic chemicals
B) histamine
C) myogenic stretch
D) application of cold or heat
E) NE
Q4) A major function of the arteries is to serve as a blood reservoir.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Caused by NE
Q6) Describe how blood pressure is regulated.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Blood and Body Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secrete B-cell growth factor.
A)applies to cytotoxic T cells
B)applies to helper T cells
C)applies to regulatory T cells
D)applies to both helper T and regulatory T cells
E)applies to all three types of T cells
Q2) T cells
A) bind with free extracellular antigen.
B) bind with HLA self-antigens only when they are in association with a foreign antigen.
C) are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
D) both (a) and (c) above.
E) both (b) and (c) above.
Q3) The hormone erythropoietin is produced when ___________ levels in the plasma fall below normal.
Q4) Can become incorporated into a host cell such that the body's defense mechanisms turn against the cell.
A)pertains to bacteria
B)pertains to viruses
Q5) Describe the function of class I and class II MHC proteins.
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Chapter 12: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) vital capacity
Q2) The exchange of O<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub> between the external environment and tissue cells is known as ____________________.
Q3) amount of air breathed in and out in one minute
A)vital capacity
B)respiratory rate
C)FEV1
D)tidal volume
E)residual volume
F)total lung capacity
G)functional residual capacity
H)alveolar ventilation
I)pulmonary ventilation
J)inspiratory reserve volume
K)expiratory reserve volume
L)inspiratory capacity
M)anatomic dead space volume
Q4) The respiratory system provides a route for water and heat elimination.
A)True
B)False
14
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Chapter 13: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure is the primary target for aldosterone?
A) proximal convoluted tubule.
B) glomerulus.
C) distal convoluted tubule.
D) loop of Henle.
E) none of these answers.
Q2) Filtered and secreted, but not reabsorbed.
A)K<sup>+</sup>
B)glucose
C)inulin
D)plasma protein
E)urea
F)H<sup>+</sup>
Q3) The vertical osmotic gradient enables the kidneys to produce urine that ranges in concentration from 100 to mosm/liter to:
A) 300 mosm/liter.
B) 600 mosm/liter.
C) 900 mosm/liter.
D) 1,200 mosm/liter.
E) 1,500 mosm/liter.
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Chapter 14: Fluid and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ____ exists when total body input of a particular substance exceed its total body output.
A) positive balance.
B) negative balance.
C) stable balance.
D) state of equilibrium.
E) steady state.
Q2) Metabolic water
A) results from cellular respiration.
B) Is roughly 15% of daily water input.
C) Its production increases during times of dehydration to compensate for water loss.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) both (a) and (c) above.
Q3) To compensate for changes in ECF volume, fluid shifts occur temporarily and automatically between the plasma and intracellular fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the causes of the four forms of acid-base imbalances?
Q5) Baroreceptors are sensitive to changes in the blood ____________________.
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Chapter 15: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial production of vitamins.
A)mouth
B)stomach
C)small intestine lumen
D)intracellularly in the small intestine brush border
E)colon
Q2) After pepsinogen is activated, it
A) autocatalytically activates more pepsinogen.
B) activates the pancreatic proteolytic enzymes in the duodenal lumen after gastric emptying has occurred.
C) inhibits the pyloric gland area in a negative-feedback fashion.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q3) Bile salts
A) aid fat digestion.
B) aid fat absorption through micelle formation.
C) are secreted into the bile.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q4) The ____________________ is the longest segment of the small intestine.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alcohol consumption causes peripheral vasoconstriction. Why is drinking wine in a hot tub not advised?
Q2) Which of the following does not characterize heat exhaustion?
A) reduced plasma volume.
B) extensive sweating.
C) rapidly rising body temperature.
D) fainting.
E) reduced blood pressure.
Q3) The most important factor determining the extent of evaporation of sweat is the ____________________ of the air.
Q4) The lowest metabolic rate occurs
A) during sleep.
B) during a basal metabolic rate determination.
C) during exercise.
D) after a meal.
E) in males compared to females.
Q5) Shivering is the main voluntary means of increasing the production of heat in the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulated by glucagon and cortisol.
A)gluconeogenesis
B)glycogenesis
C)glycogenolysis
D)both gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
E)all of these answers
Q2) PTH contributes to its regulation.
A)Ca<sup>2+</sup> homeostasis
B)Ca<sup>2+</sup> balance
Q3) Hormones released by the posterior pituitary influence the release of hormones from other glands.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which secretes catecholamines?
A) posterior pituitary.
B) liver.
C) pancreas.
D) stomach.
E) adrenal medulla.
Q5) Thyroid hormone is a derivative of the amino acid ____________________.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fimbriae and cilia usually guide the egg into the oviduct following ovulation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) At which stage is both estrogen and progesterone produced?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 6
D) 9
Q3) Which of the following is a female accessory sex organ?
A) bulbourethral gland.
B) clitoris.
C) prostate gland.
D) seminal vesicle.
E) ovary.
Q4) Low levels of estrogen inhibit the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary, whereas high levels of estrogen stimulate the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The nucleus is located in the ____________________ of the sperm.
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