Nursing Fundamentals
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Nursing Fundamentals introduces students to the essential principles and practices of the nursing profession, laying the groundwork for safe and effective patient care. The course covers foundational concepts such as the nursing process, patient assessment, basic clinical skills, hygiene, communication techniques, and health promotion. Emphasizing the holistic approach, it explores ethical, legal, and cultural considerations, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the nurse within healthcare teams. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and practical laboratory experiences, students develop the critical thinking, interpersonal, and technical skills required for successful entry into clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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28 Chapters
1204 Verified Questions
1204 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A collection of signs and symptoms, often affecting more than one organ or system, that usually occur together in response to a certain condition is referred to as a (an):
A) acute disease.
B) multiorgan disorder.
C) syndrome.
D) manifestation.
Answer: C
Q2) A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed:
A) latent stage.
B) predisposing factor.
C) incidence.
D) precipitating factor.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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50 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the effect on blood serum when excessive lactic acid accumulates in the body?
A) Bicarbonate ion levels decrease
B) Bicarbonate ion levels increase
C) Carbonic acid levels increase
D) pH increases
Answer: A
Q2) Which serum value indicates decompensated metabolic acidosis?
A) pH is below normal range
B) pH is above normal range
C) Bicarbonate level decreases
D) Bicarbonate level increases
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is essential in order to maintain serum pH within normal range?
A) Carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion must be present in equal quantities.
B) All excess carbonic acid must be excreted by the kidneys.
C) The concentration of bicarbonate ion must remain constant.
D) The ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonate ion must be 1:20.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A placebo may be described as a tablet or capsule:
A) that does not contain an active drug.
B) that contains a small amount of active drug for use in clinical trials.
C) that contains a different drug to be used for its psychological effect.
D) that contains high amounts of a drug to determine the maximum dose allowed.
Answer: A
Q2) The form of therapy that involves assessment of physical function and works to restore any problems and prevent any further dysfunction using methods such as appropriate exercises and ultrasound is referred to as:
A) registered massage therapy.
B) naturopathy.
C) physiotherapy.
D) reflexology.
Answer: C
Q3) After they are metabolized, most drugs are excreted through the:
A) lungs.
B) pancreas.
C) kidneys.
D) large intestine.
Answer: C
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the gate-control theory, passage of pain impulses may be naturally blocked:
A) at the synapse by entry of other sensory impulses.
B) by the stress response.
C) by administration of morphine directly into the spinal cord.
D) by referring the pain to other parts of the body.
Q2) The impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by:
A) nociceptors.
B) myelinated A delta fibers.
C) unmyelinated C fibers.
D) any sensory fiber with a low pain threshold.
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic pain?
A) It usually initiates a physiological stress response.
B) It always involves a strong emotional response such as high anxiety.
C) It is more difficult to diagnose and treat than is acute pain.
D) It involves tissue damage to a specific organ.
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6
Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucocorticoids are used to treat inflammation because they directly:
A) promote the release of prostaglandins at the site.
B) decrease capillary permeability.
C) mobilize lymphocytes and neutrophils.
D) prevent infection.
Q2) Prolonged administration of glucocorticoids such as prednisone may cause:
1) atrophy of lymphoid tissue.
2) increased resistance to infection.
3) thrombocytopenia.
4) decreased protein synthesis.
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 2, 4
Q3) The number of neutrophils in the blood is increased significantly:
A) during allergic reactions.
B) during chronic inflammation.
C) to produce antibodies.
D) in order to promote phagocytosis.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Opportunistic infection may develop when:
A) pathogens enter the body but cannot colonize the site of entry.
B) an imbalance occurs in the normal resident flora.
C) host resistance increases, and the balance of resident flora is restored.
D) contaminated food or water is unknowingly ingested.
Q2) Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
A) Fever and leukocytosis
B) Headache and anorexia
C) Pain, erythema, and swelling
D) Nausea, weight loss, and fatigue
Q3) Which of the following is a function of interferons?
A) They block the invasion of pathogenic bacteria.
B) They reduce the inflammatory response to local infection.
C) They increase host cell resistance to viral invasion.
D) They may facilitate the spread of some cancer cells.
Q4) Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes:
A) touching a contaminated countertop.
B) sexual intercourse.
C) drinking contaminated water.
D) inhaling dust-borne microbes.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by:
A) a chronic allergic condition.
B) development of an immune-deficient state.
C) a deficiency of T lymphocytes.
D) immune complex deposits of antinuclear antibodies.
Q2) Which of the following characteristics apply to HIV?
1) It contains two strands of DNA.
2) It tends to mutate frequently to form new strains.
3) The incubation period is extremely short.
4) It is inactivated by heat and many disinfectants.
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
Q3) Host-versus-graft disease refers to:
A) hyperacute rejection of tissue.
B) T cells in grafted tissue attacking host cells.
C) infection resulting from immunosuppression therapy.
D) transplant rejection by the recipient's immune system.
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Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can pediculosis be diagnosed?
A) Pruritus in hairy areas of the body
B) Loss of blood due to lice bites
C) Finding lice in clothing
D) The presence of nits at the base of hair shafts
Q2) All of the following statements apply to malignant melanoma EXCEPT:
A) The malignant cell is a melanocyte.
B) They present as non-pruritic purplish macules.
C) The neoplasm grows rapidly and metastasizes early.
D) The lesion is usually dark or multicolored with an irregular border.
Q3) Tinea capitis is an infection involving the:
A) trunk.
B) feet.
C) scalp.
D) nails.
Q4) What causes the pruritus associated with scabies?
A) An allergic reaction to the causative microbe due to endotoxins
B) Mites burrowing into the epidermis and reaction to their feces
C) Bleeding and injected toxin from bites of the larvae
D) Neurotoxins secreted by mites on the skin surface
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements does NOT apply to osteoporosis?
A) Bone resorption is greater than bone formation.
B) It causes compression fractures of the vertebrae.
C) Osteoporosis is always a primary disorder.
D) It often leads to kyphosis and loss of height.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the typical bone pain caused by osteogenic sarcoma?
A) Intermittent, increasing with activity
B) Sharp, increased with joint movement
C) Mild, aching when weight-bearing
D) Steady, severe, and persisting with rest
Q3) A dislocation is:
A) the tearing of a tendon in the joint.
B) the separation of bones in the joint with a loss of contact.
C) the twisting of a joint, causing excessive inflammation of the surrounding tissue.
D) the overstressing of ligaments, causing loss of elasticity.
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11
Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can result from a malabsorption problem?
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Sickle cell anemia
C) Thalassemia major
D) Pernicious anemia
Q2) Jaundice is one typical sign of:
A) sickle cell anemia.
B) aplastic anemia.
C) iron deficiency anemia.
D) acute leukemia.
Q3) Vitamin K is required by the liver to synthesize:
A) heparin.
B) prothrombin.
C) amino acids.
D) bilirubin.
Q4) Which of the following applies to sickle cell trait?
A) Most hemoglobin is in the form of HgS
B) Sickling of erythrocytes occurs with severe hypoxia.
C) Painful sickling crises with multiple infarctions occur frequently.
D) A child's skeletal growth is delayed.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are increasing in incidence, partly due to the numbers associated with:
A) an increase in resistant microorganisms.
B) an increase in adult obesity.
C) an increase in high cholesterol levels.
D) an increase in HIV infections.
Q2) The atypical cell that serves as a marker for diagnosing Hodgkin's lymphoma is the: A) monocyte.
B) Ann Arbor cell
C) Hodgkin's lymphocyte
D) Reed-Sternberg cell
Q3) Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic disease of unknown etiology occurring in older adults and involving:
A) plasma cells.
B) T cells.
C) NK cells.
D) monocytes.
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13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) An atheroma develops from:
A) a torn arterial wall and blood clots.
B) accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin where endothelial injury has occurred.
C) thrombus forming on damaged walls of veins.
D) repeated vasospasms.
Q2) A modifiable factor that increases the risk for atherosclerosis is:
A) leading a sedentary lifestyle.
B) being female and older than 40 years of age.
C) excluding saturated fats from the diet.
D) familial hypercholesterolemia.
Q3) When is a diagnosis of essential hypertension likely to be considered in young or middle-aged individuals?
A) Blood pressure remains consistently above 140/90
B) Blood pressure fluctuates between 130/85 and 180/105
C) Blood pressure increases rapidly and is unresponsive to medication
D) Chronic kidney disease leads to consistently elevated blood pressure
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an effect of a large open pneumothorax (sucking wound)?
A) Mediastinal flutter, impairing venous return
B) Increased venous return
C) Progressive atelectasis of both lungs
D) Overexpansion of the unaffected lung
Q2) Which of the following confirms the presence of active (reinfection) tuberculosis?
A) A positive skin test for TB
B) A calcified tubercle shown on a chest X-ray
C) Identification of acid-fast bacilli in a sputum sample
D) A history of exposure to individuals being treated for TB
Q3) Growth and development of a child with cystic fibrosis may be delayed because of:
A) deficit of gastric enzymes for protein digestion.
B) mucus plugs obstructing the flow of pancreatic enzymes.
C) lack of available treatment for steatorrhea.
D) abnormal salivary secretions.
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15
Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Expressive aphasia is most likely to result from damage to:
A) the left frontal lobe.
B) the left temporal lobe.
C) the right motor cortex.
D) Wernicke's area.
Q2) What is the rationale for vomiting in a patient who has increased intracranial pressure?
A) Chemoreceptors responding to changes in the blood
B) Pressure extending to spinal nerves
C) Pressure on the emetic center in the medulla
D) Stimuli to the hypothalamic center for hunger and thirst
Q3) The rabies virus is usually transmitted by:
A) respiratory droplets.
B) insects such as mosquitoes.
C) bites from infected animals.
D) the fecal-oral route.
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Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Conduction deafness results from inner ear damage.
B) Cochlear implants may restore hearing in cases of sensorineural loss.
C) Damage to the auditory area of the brain causes deafness in one ear.
D) Cochlear implants can replace the auditory pathway in all deaf individuals.
Q2) Which of the following involves a gradual clouding of the lens of the eye?
A) Glaucoma
B) Cataract
C) Macular degeneration
D) Keratitis
Q3) What must happen for the pupil of the eye to dilate?
A) The circular muscle of the iris must contract.
B) Cranial nerve III must be activated.
C) Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system is required.
D) The optic nerve must be stimulated.
Q4) Herpes simplex virus is a common cause of:
A) conjunctivitis.
B) corneal ulceration and scarring.
C) eye infection in the neonate.
D) total blindness.
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following applies to oxytocin?
1) It stimulates contraction of the uterus after delivery.
2) It stimulates ejection of breast milk during lactation.
3) It stimulates mammary gland production of milk.
4) It is released from the adenohypophysis.
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following often causes hyperparathyroidism?
A) A malignant tumor in the parathyroid glands
B) End-stage renal failure
C) Osteoporosis
D) Radiation involving the thyroid gland and neck area
Q3) A benign tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine is called:
A) pheochromocytoma.
B) Cushing's syndrome.
C) Graves' disease.
D) Addison's disease.
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Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bilirubin is a product of:
A) hemolysis of red blood cells (RBCs) and breakdown of hemoglobin.
B) production of excess chyme and bile.
C) mixing of undigested food and gastric secretions.
D) accumulation of white blood cells (WBCs) due to infection.
Q2) In which structure is oxygenated blood (arterial) mixed with unoxygenated blood (venous) so as to support the functions of the structure?
A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Small intestine
D) Spleen
Q3) The pathophysiology of peptic ulcer disease may involve any of the following EXCEPT:
A) decreased resistance of the mucosal barrier.
B) increased stimulation of pepsin and acid secretions.
C) infection by H. pylori.
D) increased stimulation of mucus-producing glands.
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Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT usually result from nephrosclerosis?
A) Secondary hypertension
B) Chronic renal failure
C) Acute renal failure
D) Increased renin and aldosterone secretions
Q2) Which of the following indicate a decreased GFR?
A) Increased serum urea and decreased serum bicarbonate
B) Urine with low specific gravity and dark color
C) Albuminuria and hematuria
D) Hyponatremia and hypokalemia
Q3) In acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, the glomerular inflammation results from:
A) toxins produced by the bacteria.
B) a type III hypersensitivity reaction.
C) an ascending infection from the bladder.
D) spread of infection from the tubules.
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do testicular tumors usually present?
A) Soft, tender mass
B) Multiple firm nodules
C) Hard, painless unilateral mass
D) Small, fluid-filled cyst
Q2) Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?
A) Development of malignancy
B) Irregular menstrual cycles
C) Interference with ovulation
D) Abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia
Q3) In which cancers has there been a recent significant increase in incidence?
A) Uterine cancer
B) Breast cancer
C) Ovarian cancer
D) Cervical cancer in situ
Q4) Which term refers to bleeding between menstrual periods?
A) Amenorrhea
B) Dysmenorrhea
C) Oligomenorrhea
D) Metrorrhagia
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Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are:
A) thrombocytopenia and leucopenia.
B) headache and lethargy.
C) nausea and constipation.
D) alopecia and weight loss.
Q2) Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they:
A) metastasize early in their development.
B) create excessive pressure within the skull.
C) cannot be removed.
D) cause serious systemic effects.
Q3) What would be an external source of ionizing radiation?
A) A needle containing a radioisotope implanted beside the tumor
B) Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine
C) A dose of a radioactive drug to be ingested
D) A fluid containing radioactive material instilled in a body cavity
Q4) Malignant brain tumors:
A) metastasize quickly to all parts of the body.
B) spread first to lungs and bone.
C) spread to other parts of CNS.
D) do not metastasize anywhere at any time.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genes located at the same site on a pair of homologous chromosomes that are also matched for function are called:
A) alleles.
B) genotypes.
C) autosomes.
D) phenotypes.
Q2) The cellular division process that produces the chromosomes that are in the sperm and ova is called:
A) meiosis.
B) mitosis.
C) organogenesis.
D) polysomy.
Q3) A father affected with hemophilia A, whose wife is unaffected, will pass on the defective gene to:
A) all of his sons, who will be affected.
B) 50% of his sons, who will be affected.
C) all of his daughters, who will be carriers.
D) 50% of his daughters, who will be carriers.
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Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the usual cause of hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes during pregnancy?
A) The mother's blood is Rh negative and the fetus is Rh positive.
B) The parents differ in blood type.
C) The mother receives Rh immunoglobulin early in the second pregnancy.
D) Fetal antibodies enter the maternal circulation.
Q2) The term primigravida refers to:
A) length of time since the first day of the last menstrual period.
B) a woman who is pregnant for the first time.
C) estimated date of delivery.
D) withdrawal of a small amount of amnionic fluid.
Q3) Common effects of the expanding uterus during pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) compression of the urinary bladder.
B) restricted inspiratory volume.
C) low blood pressure.
D) varicose veins.
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24
Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following comprise typical early signs of Still's disease, a form of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?
1) Presence of rheumatoid factor in the blood
2) High fever and skin rash
3) Swollen painful knees, wrists, and elbows
4) Deformity of the hands and feet
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 2, 4
Q2) Which of the following might fluid and electrolyte deficits cause in a patient with anorexia nervosa?
A) Cardiac arrhythmias
B) Weight loss
C) Dental caries and esophagitis
D) Amenorrhea
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Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) All are physiological changes that occur with aging EXCEPT:
A) reduced skeletal muscle mass.
B) degeneration of fibrocartilage in intervertebral discs in the spine.
C) increased basal metabolic rate (BMR).
D) reduced bladder capacity and incomplete bladder emptying.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the increasing life span of the general population?
A) Reduced cognitive and social activities
B) Improved living conditions
C) Better nutrition
D) Advancements in health care
Q3) The term given to the change that occurs in women at around age 50 with the cessation of the menstrual cycle is:
A) menopause.
B) dysmenorrhea.
C) amenorrhea.
D) menarche.
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26
Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Q1) Which of the following is likely to develop when a leg is immobilized in a cast?
A) Contracture
B) Muscle hypertrophy
C) Muscle atrophy
D) Increased osteoblastic activity
Q2) What do prolonged periods of immobility frequently lead to?
1) Orthostatic hypotension
2) Increased blood pressure and increased heart rate
3) Increased risk of both thrombi and emboli
4) Rapid, deep respirations
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
Q3) Prolonged immobility may predispose to ___________ in the kidneys.
A) urinary stasis
B) renal calculi
C) infection
D) All of the above
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Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may alter a person's perception of a stressor?
A) The presence of several stressors at the same time
B) Past experiences
C) Lack of effective coping mechanisms
D) A, B, and C
Q2) A serious consequence of a major disaster, first recognized in war veterans is:
A) stress ulcers.
B) delayed tissue healing.
C) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
D) cancer.
Q3) The stress response involves the integrated action of the:
1) hypothalamus.
2) hypophysis.
3) sympathetic nervous system.
4) adrenal glands.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Withdrawal from any drug is best accomplished:
A) with medical support.
B) with legally prescribed drugs.
C) following intensive counseling.
D) using CNS stimulants.
Q2) Which of the following drugs causes headache and vomiting when an alcoholic ingests small amounts of alcohol?
A) Methadone
B) Diazepam
C) Disulfiram
D) Naloxone
Q3) What is a common indication of substance abuse?
A) Behavioral change
B) Weight gain
C) Depression
D) Loss of sensory function
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29
Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bites from both wild and domesticated animals may cause:
A) anaphylaxis.
B) Shigella outbreaks.
C) rabies.
D) severe pain and headache.
Q2) The term pica refers to:
A) the consumption of nonfood substances such as clay.
B) diffuse edema and degeneration of neurons in the brain.
C) particulates in the respiratory tract.
D) high levels of mercury in the blood.
Q3) Two types of eye damage that can be caused by a laser beam are:
A) chemical and structural.
B) thermal burn and photochemical damage.
C) tissue necrosis and vascular occlusions.
D) formation of deep lesions in the optic nerve and in the sclera.
Q4) Inhalants can be:
A) a particulate such as asbestos.
B) gaseous, such as sulfur dioxide.
C) a solvent, such as benzene.
D) A, B, and C
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