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Nursing Fundamentals introduces students to the essential principles and foundational skills required for nursing practice. This course covers key concepts such as patient safety, infection control, vital signs monitoring, basic patient care techniques, communication, documentation, and ethical and legal considerations in nursing. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and hands-on clinical experiences, students learn to apply the nursing process, work collaboratively within healthcare teams, and develop critical thinking skills necessary for effective patient care. By the end of the course, students are prepared to deliver compassionate, evidence-based care while adhering to professional standards and guidelines.
Recommended Textbook Diseases of the Human Body 5th Edition by
Carol D. Tamparo
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17 Chapters
956 Verified Questions
956 Flashcards
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Q1) An idiopathic disease:
A) Is transmitted genetically.
B) Has no known cause.
C) Is caused by medical treatment.
D) Is caused by trauma.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following are examples of chromosomal disorders?
A) Klinefelter syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Down syndrome
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Brain tissue is bruised and normal nerve function is disrupted by:
A) Frostbite.
B) Contusions.
C) Concussions.
D) Skull fractures.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Laughter and play are important for experiencing holistic health, because they:
A) Encourage clients to think about things other than their illness.
B) Enable individuals to bond together and to express their pain or grief in the "make believe" vernacular.
C) Stimulate the release of endorphins in the body and decrease pain.
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Distress may be alleviated by:
A) Eating comfort foods, such as chocolate, corn chips, and French fries.
B) Losing 10 pounds.
C) Good nutrition, exercise, and a good support system.
D) Refusing to respond to the challenges of everyday activity.
Answer: C
Q3) Negative emotions that can depress the immune system include:
A) Depression and despair.
B) Panic and fear.
C) Hate and frustration.
D) All of the above
Answer: D

4
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgeries to treat pain include:
A) Neurotomy.
B) Cordectomy.
C) Hypophysectomy.
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) The treatment goal of chronic pain is to minimize pain and maximize a person's functioning.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Chronic pain is defined as:
A) Showing an increase in blood pressure and heart rate.
B) Starting as acute pain but continuing beyond the normal expected time for resolution.
C) A warning sign of a disturbance in physiology.
D) Both B and C
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) A communicable disease is an infectious disease that is readily transmitted from one individual to another.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Anorexia
A)Inflammation of a testis
B)Muscle pain
C)Blind spot in the visual field
D)Without or loss of appetite
E)Agent to reduce fever
F)Prevents or relieves itching
G)Weakness or fatigue
H)Abnormal decrease of WBCs
I)Joint pain
J)Inflammation of the nasal mucosa
Q3) The O157:H7 strain of Escherichia Coli:
A) Lives in the intestinal tract of healthy cattle.
B) Is present on cow's udders.
C) Causes constipation and respiratory distress.
D) Both A and B
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the side effects of radiation is alopecia or:
A) Significant weight gain.
B) Significant weight loss.
C) Hair loss.
D) Red skin.
Q2) When recovering from cancer, the 8-year survival rate is a widely used marker.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following stages of cancer are considered for treatment?
A) Distant
B) Localized
C) Regional
D) All of the above
Q4) A tumor that is in position, or localized, is:
A) Anaplastic.
B) In situ.
C) Sarcoma.
D) Benign.
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Sample Questions
Q1) With meningocele, a saclike structure protrudes from the abdomen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There is no cure for omphalocele.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an acyanotic defect?
A) Tetralogy of Fallot
B) Transposition of the great arteries
C) Tricuspid atresia
D) Ventricular septal defect
Q4) Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder:
A) Results when the mother drinks alcohol during pregnancy.
B) Occurs when a pregnant mother consumes less than two drinks a day.
C) Usually causes large size and weight of infant at birth.
D) Both A and B
Q5) Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an acquired disorder that usually occurs in adolescence.
A)True
B)False

8
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the treatment of intellectual disability, the focus is in the following areas:
A) Promote self-care, home living, and work skills.
B) Develop adaptive, communication, social, and motor skills.
C) Develop adaptive and psychosocial skills, and interpersonal communication.
D) Promote activities of daily living, safety, and functional academic skills.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about intellectual disability?
A) Intellectual disability is a condition of subaverage intellectual function with deficits in adaptive behavior.
B) The IQ is approximately 85 or below on an individually administered test.
C) It is estimated that 10% to 12% of the general population have intellectual disability to some degree.
D) Generally, in profound intellectual disability there is no major etiological factor.
Q3) Anorexia nervosa is:
A) Marked by weight loss, clinical evidence of semistarvation, and amenorrhea.
B) Repetitive gorging with food, followed by self-induced vomiting.
C) A morbid fear of becoming fat.
D) More prominent in men than women.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Keratosis pilaris appears as painless, skin-colored bumps that may redden and form rough patches of skin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A type of idiopathic dermatitis more common in whites and Asians is called:
A) Contact dermatitis.
B) Seborrheic dermatitis.
C) Atopic dermatitis.
D) Psoriatic dermatitis.
Q3) Melanin
A)Discoloration of fingers or toes after exposure to changes in temperature
B)Small raised areas of skin filled with pus
C)Nose becomes enlarged and misshapen
D)An acute, pus-causing, inflammatory skin disease
E)Skin that is chaffed or roughened
F)Pigment that gives skin its color
G)Blackheads
H)Fibrous protein that gives skin its flexibility
I)Solid elevation less than 1 cm
J)Agents to cleanse or peel the skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) A test performed to diagnose systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is:
A) MRI.
B) CT.
C) Bone marrow biopsy.
D) Anti-DNA test.
Q2) Spongy bone is less dense and found at the ends of long bones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Systemic lupus erythematosus is a condition in which the muscles and skin turn red.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Treatment for deformities of the spine includes:
A) Physical therapy, exercise, back brace, surgery, and analgesics.
B) Exercise, back brace, and surgery only.
C) Back brace and analgesics only.
D) Surgery only.
Q5) Physical therapy will cure osteoarthritis.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chronic nervous system disease characterized by progressive muscle rigidity and involuntary tremors is called:
A) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
B) Alzheimer disease.
C) Parkinson disease.
D) Multiple sclerosis.
Q2) Bell palsy is a:
A) Clinical syndrome marked by the sudden impairment of consciousness.
B) Temporary, often recurring series of episodes of impaired neurologic activity.
C) Paralysis of the muscles on one side of the face due to disease of the facial nerve.
D) Chronic brain disorder characterized by recurring attacks of abnormal motor activity.
Q3) A client with a TIA exhibits such symptoms as muscle weakness in one side of the body, speech deficits, and staggering gait.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Goitrogens
A)Eating abnormally large amounts of food
B)Unusually high levels of ketones in the blood
C)Abnormally high levels of glucose concentration in the blood
D)Helps to regulate the amount of fluid the kidneys release as urine
E)Caused by medical treatment
F)Substances that suppress thyroid function
G)Incision through the nose to remove tumor
H)Protruding eyeballs
I)Anterior portion of the pituitary gland
J)High blood levels of potassium
K)Glucose in the urine
L)Excessive thirst
M)Excessive hair growth in women where it normally does not grow
N)Slow-growing glandular tumors
O)Disease of the retina of the eye
Q2) The pancreas produces prolactin.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Congestive heart failure is a condition in which the heart's pumping ability is impaired and cannot meet the needs of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is characterized by the formation of hemoglobin-poor red blood cells?
A) Folic acid deficiency anemia
B) Pernicious anemia
C) Iron deficiency anemia
D) Sickle cell anemia
Q3) Diagnostic procedures for aplastic anemia include:
A) RBC and WBC counts.
B) Reticulocyte count.
C) Bone marrow studies.
D) All of the above
Q4) Valvular stenosis is when the opening of a valve is too large.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Sudden infant death syndrome occurs:
A) In apparently normal and healthy infants.
B) More frequently when the infant is sleeping and in premature infants.
C) More frequently in male than in female infants and during the winter months.
D) All of the above
Q2) Respiratory mycoses affecting the lungs are:
A) Histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, and blastomycosis.
B) Pneumonoconiosis, blastomycosis, and histoplasmosis.
C) Anthracosis, coccidioidomycosis, and pneumonoconiosis.
D) Anthracosis, berylliosis, and asbestosis.
Q3) Thrush is a yeast infection often found in those receiving chemotherapy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pulmonary TB is more common in:
A) Children.
B) Young adults.
C) Middle-aged adults.
D) Elderly adults.
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Q1) Bloody diarrhea, often containing pus and mucus, is a classic symptom of:
A) Gastroenteritis.
B) Ulcerative colitis
C) Colorectal cancer.
D) Irritable bowel syndrome.
Q2) Possible complications of diarrhea are:
A) Dehydration.
B) Electrolyte imbalances.
C) Dysuria.
D) Both A and B
Q3) Acute viral hepatitis:
A) Comes in three forms.
B) Is the infection and inflammation of the liver.
C) Can be prevented by vaccinations.
D) Causes cholestasis.
Q4) The definitive method of diagnosing Crohn disease is through:
A) Colonoscopy.
B) Biopsy of the affected site.
C) Sigmoidoscopy.
D) Barium enema.
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Q1) Peritoneal dialysis can be performed by individuals themselves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Urolith
A)Kidney stone
B)Lack of color
C)Produced when protein-containing foods are broken down in the body
D)Distention of the renal pelvis and calyces
E)Unusually high amounts of nitrogenous compounds in the blood
F)Ionized salt
G)Difficult or painful urination
H)Cuplike extension of the renal pelvis
I)Excessive amounts of potassium in the blood
J)Procedure through the urethra to remove cancerous tissue from the bladder
Q3) Another name for hemodialysis is extracorporeal lithotripsy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person suffering from a renal calculi has no feeling of urgency.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cessation of menses, usually between ages 45 and 55, is:
A) Menopause.
B) Menorrhagia.
C) Endometriosis.
D) Menarche.
Q2) Signs and symptoms of an enlarged prostate are:
A) Dribbling.
B) Nausea and vomiting.
C) Unintentional weight loss.
D) All of the above
Q3) In 10% of infertility cases, the cause is unknown.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements regarding infertility is false?
A) Diagnosed as a failure to become pregnant after 1 year of regular, unprotected intercourse.
B) About 4.5 million couples experience infertility.
C) Fertility peaks for females at age 24 and for males at age 25.
D) Men are most fertile when they have intercourse four times a week.
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Q1) Seeing cobwebs and floating spots may indicate retinal detachment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Signs and symptoms of corneal abrasion include:
A) Pain, redness, and tearing.
B) Blurring, white pupil, and pain.
C) Tearing, blurred vision, and pain.
D) A and B only
Q3) In otitis media, an examination of the affected ear with an otoscope will reveal bulging of the eardrum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The condition in which accumulating fluid pressure within the eye damages the retina and optic nerve is called:
A) Cataract.
B) Glaucoma.
C) Uveitis.
D) Keratitis.
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