Non-Majors Biology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Non-Majors Biology is an introductory course designed for students not specializing in biological sciences. The course explores fundamental concepts of biology, including the structure and function of cells, basic genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life forms. Emphasis is placed on the relevance of biology to everyday life, fostering scientific literacy and a deeper appreciation for the role of biology in society. Laboratory or interactive components may be included to enhance understanding through hands-on learning and real-world applications.
Recommended Textbook
Biology A Guide to the Natural World 5th Edition by David Krogh
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Chapter 1: Science As a Way of Learning: a Guide to the Natural World
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Q1) Which of the following is the most complex level of organization?
A)a heart
B)a water molecule
C)a rainforest
D)the circulatory system
Answer: C
Q2) A theory must be supported by evidence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A unifying principle of biology states that there is a gradual modification of populations of living things over time that sometimes results in new species.This principle is called ________.
Answer: evolution
Q4) Tissues are grouped together in functional units called:
A)organelles.
B)cells.
C)organisms.
D)organs.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Building Blocks: Chemistry, water, and Ph
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Q1) The ionic bond of sodium chloride is formed as a result of:
A)sodium and chlorine sharing electrons.
B)both sodium and chlorine losing electrons.
C)sodium gaining an electron from chlorine.
D)sodium giving up an electron to chlorine.
E)sodium giving up a proton to chlorine.
Answer: D
Q2) When sodium chloride dissolves in water,the sodium and chloride ions are pulled into solution by:
A)ionic bonds that form between the ions and the water molecules.
B)the attraction of the sodium ions to the negatively charged oxygen, and the attraction of the chloride ions to the two positively charged hydrogens of the water molecules.
C)the attraction of the sodium ions to the positively charged oxygen, and the attraction of the chloride ions to the two negatively charged hydrogens of the water molecules.
D)covalent bonds that form between the ions and the water molecules.
Answer: B
Q3) A(n)________ has a higher pH than a(n)________.
Answer: base; acid
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Chapter 3: Lifes Components: Biological Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lipids with carbon-carbon double bonds tend to be more solid at room temperature.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) You have a genetic defect that prevents your cells from making the amino acid tryptophan from indole and serine.Your cells might be lacking the proper information in their ________,which would direct the synthesis of the ________ that catalyzes tryptophan synthesis.
Answer: DNA; enzyme
Q3) All hormones are steroids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Hydroxyl groups are commonly found in:
A)amino acids.
B)DNA.
C)carbohydrates.
D)fatty acids.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Lifes Home: the Cell
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Q1) Which organelles would not be considered part of the endomembrane system? Explain your answer.
Q2) Eukaryotic cilia and flagella:
A)are only found in single-celled organisms.
B)are both involved in sweeping the lungs clean of foreign matter.
C)occur in large numbers on the surface of the cell.
D)both have microtubules forming their underlying structure.
E)may also act as receptors for hormones.
Q3) The rough endoplasmic reticulum is the site where lipid synthesis occurs in an animal cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the sequence of organelles a protein would pass through as it moves through the endomembrane system to the exterior of the cell.
Q5) The function of the nucleus is to:
A)contain the DNA.
B)contain the cytoplasm.
C)produce proteins.
D)add sugars to proteins.
E)organize the cytoskeleton.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Lifes Border: the Plasma Membrane
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Q1) The ________ of a phospholipid molecule will seek water,whereas the ________ of the molecules will avoid water.
A)tail; head
B)head; tail
C)hydrophobic portion; hydrophilic portion
D)fatty acid; phosphate group
Q2) Which of the following is an accurate description of the plasma membrane?
A)It is a phospholipid bilayer embedded with proteins.
B)It separates the nuclear contents from the environment.
C)It is permeable to all substances.
D)It is a solid material.
Q3) ________ is the process that a cell can use to bring very large molecules into the cell.
Q4) The most up-to-date explanation of the structure of the plasma membrane is called the fluid-mosaic model.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A ________ plasma membrane allows water but not solutes to pass through it.
Q6) Osmosis refers to the diffusion of ________ across a membrane.
Q7) The ________ functions in cell lubrication,adhesion,and signaling.
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Chapter 6: Lifes Mainspring: an Introduction to Energy
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Q1) What makes an enzyme a catalyst?
A)its ability to change shape to fit the substrate
B)it speeds up a chemical reaction but can only be used once
C)it speeds up a chemical reaction but becomes changed by the reaction
D)it speeds up a chemical reaction but is not changed by the reaction
E)its amino acids
Q2) During photosynthesis,plants use light energy to synthesize glucose from carbon dioxide.However,plants do not use up energy during photosynthesis; they merely convert it from light energy to chemical energy.This is an illustration of:
A)spontaneous reaction.
B)chemical equilibrium.
C)the second law of thermodynamics.
D)the first law of thermodynamics.
E)increasing entropy.
Q3) Endergonic reactions release energy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A ________ is a set of enzymatically controlled steps that results in the completion of a product or process in an organism.
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Chapter 7: Vital Harvest: Deriving Energy From Food
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Q1) During aerobic respiration,the final electron acceptor is ________.
Q2) Cells capture the energy from food and store it in the form of: A)glucose.
B)ATP.
C)oxygen.
D)heat.
E)carbon dioxide.
Q3) Organisms exist that can survive using only glycolysis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The majority of ATP produced during aerobic respiration is produced during glycolysis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Glycolysis occurs in the cell's: A)cytosol.
B)mitochondria.
C)Golgi apparatus.
D)plasma membrane.
E)nucleus.
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Chapter 8: The Green Worlds Gift: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Plants make ATP during the light reactions of photosynthesis.Why do plants also need to carry out the process of cellular respiration?
A)The ATP made during photosynthesis is different from the ATP made during cellular respiration.
B)The ATP made during photosynthesis is only enough to fuel the dark reactions. The plant has to carry out cellular respiration to make ATP for other metabolic activities.
C)Plants need to make ATP from cellular respiration only when the conditions for photosynthesis are bad.
D)Plants do not need to perform cellular respiration.
Q2) Plants perform only photosynthesis,not cellular respiration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The products of the light reactions that are then used by the Calvin cycle are:
A)ATP and NADPH.
B)ADP and NADP .
C)ATP and O .
D)O and NADPH.
E)ATP and CO .
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Chapter 9: The Links in Lifes Chain: Genetics and Cell Division
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Q1) A karyotype:
A)shows chromosomes as they appear before replication.
B)can reveal the location of a gene.
C)can show the number of chromosomes in a cell.
D)can reveal the presence of cancerous genes.
Q2) Chromosome I from your mother and chromosome I from your father are said to be homologous.This is because the chromosomes:
A)appear the same size in a karyotype.
B)have different genes on them.
C)have the same genes on them.
D)determine the sex of the child.
Q3) If a cell contains 20 chromosomes,how many chromatids will be present during prophase? A)30 B)20 C)5 D)40
Q4) List and briefly describe three differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell division.
Q5) In cell division,the separation of duplicated chromosomes is ________.
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Chapter 10: Preparing for Sexual Reproduction: Meiosis
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Q1) What is the fate of sperm that are never released?
A)They are stored indefinitely.
B)Their cell cycles are stopped in meiosis I.
C)They continue dividing by mitosis to produce more mature sperm.
D)They are destroyed by the body's immune system.
E)They combine to make diploid spermatogonia.
Q2) What is the flagellum in sperm for?
A)to provide a diploid set of chromosomes
B)for energy production
C)to provide a haploid set of chromosomes
D)to serve as a structure for the physical propulsion of the sperm
E)to serve as a reserve of energy and nutrients for the zygote
Q3) Errors in meiosis can be one mechanism of evolution.A change in the number of chromosomes can lead to the production of new species.Some plant species may have originated from errors during cell division,which led to them having more than two sets of chromosomes,a condition called polyploidy.Hypothesize what kind of error during meiosis might occur to cause a normally diploid plant to generate tetraploid offspring,in which the offspring have four sets of chromosomes.
Q4) ________ have both male and female reproductive parts.
Q5) Once produced,a zygote will divide by ________ to develop into a whole organism.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The First Geneticist: Mendel and His Discoveries
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Q1) The physical characteristics of an organism,or its ________,are determined by its genetic makeup,referred to as its ________.
Q2) The Law of Segregation states that:
A)gene pairs assort independently of each other during gamete formation.
B)differing characters in organisms result from two alleles that separate in gamete formation, such that each gamete gets only one of the two alleles.
C)differing characters are the result of either the homozygous dominant or the homozygous recessive condition.
D)phenotypes are always determined by genotypes.
E)one allele of a pair must always be dominant and the other must always be recessive.
Q3) The genotype Ff is an example of a:
A)trait controlled by multiple genes.
B)homozygous genotype.
C)monohybrid genotype.
D)heterozygous genotype.
E)dihybrid genotype.
Q4) What is the difference between a monohybrid and a dihybrid cross?
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Chapter 12: Units of Heredity: Chromosomes and Inheritance
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Q1) Cri-du-chat syndrome babies are mentally challenged and have an abnormal larynx that makes sounds like the cry of a cat.This disorder is due to a/an:
A)deletion in chromosome 5.
B)inversion in chromosome 2.
C)translocation between chromosome 9 and 22.
D)duplication in chromosome 7.
E)trisomy 21.
Q2) A woman who does not carry the color-blindness allele has children with a man who is color blind.What proportion of their children will be color blind?
A)all
B)1/4
C)1/2
D)3/4
E)none
Q3) Explain why a female can be heterozygous for an X-linked gene but a male cannot.
Q4) A carrier for a genetic disorder will pass the allele to all of their offspring.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain what causes aneuploidy.
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Chapter 13: Passing on Lifes Information: Dna Structure and Replication
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Q1) Describe what happens to the two parent strands of DNA during DNA replication.
Q2) Most point mutations have immediate,drastic effects on an organism.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is the enzyme involved in joining nucleotides as they are paired up.
Q4) What are the products of the replication of one DNA molecule?
A)four identical double-stranded DNA molecules
B)two strands joined into one double-stranded DNA molecule
C)two identical double-stranded DNA molecules
D)a set of four sister chromatids
E)a pair of homologous chromosomes
Q5) Which information was determined about DNA based on X-ray diffraction data?
A)Each gene encodes one enzyme.
B)There are four different bases on the nucleotides.
C)Point mutations change a single location in the genome.
D)DNA has a helical structure.
E)Chromosomes are made of DNA.
Q7) What mechanism can introduce new genetic information into a species? Page 15
Q6) The bases of each strand of a double helix are paired with bases on the other strand,so each strand of DNA is said to be ________ to the other.
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Chapter 14: How Proteins Are Made: Genetic Transcription, translation,
and Regulation
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Q1) The process of ________ enables DNA to pass its information to RNA.
Q2) There are between 20,000 and 25,000 genes in the human genome,yet our cells are capable of producing more than 90,000 different proteins.How is this possible?
A)Many genes are actually yet to be discovered.
B)Introns are spliced back together to form mRNAs.
C)Micro-RNAs can also be used to make proteins.
D)Primary transcripts can be edited in different ways by alternative splicing to produce different mRNAs.
Q3) When an mRNA moves into the cell's cytoplasm,it first becomes associated with a: A)protein.
B)tRNA.
C)ribosome.
D)transcription factor.
Q4) During translation,a tRNA with its bound amino acids is in the P site.What processes happen once a new tRNA is in the A site?
Q5) During translation,one mRNA can be translated by many ribosomes at once.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What signals the end of the translation of an mRNA?
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Chapter 15: The Future Isnt What It Used to Be: Biotechnology
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Q1) Stem cells are said to be pluripotent.This means they have the ability to:
A)form blastocysts.
B)be reprogrammed through recombinant DNA technology.
C)make more of themselves in culture.
D)specialize into any other type of cell.
E)specialize into only a few different types of cells such as nerves and muscle cells.
Q2) Reproductive cloning has been used to clone humans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why is forensic DNA analysis an important part of biotechnology?
A)It is used to amplify small samples of DNA.
B)It is used to match two samples of DNA.
C)It is used to produce transgenic organisms.
D)It substitutes for restriction enzymes.
Q4) What roles do plasmids play in biotechnology?
A)Plasmids are used to provide nutrients to bacterial cells.
B)Plasmids are used to break open the cell wall of bacterial cells.
C)Plasmids are used to infect and destroy bacterial cells.
D)Plasmids are used as a vector to transfer genes between organisms.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: An Introduction to Evolution: Charles Darwin, evolutionary Thought, and the Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) The publication date of Darwin's Origin of Species was: A)1900.
B)1869.
C)1809.
D)1859.
Q2) The longer two populations are kept from interbreeding,the:
A)more they will differ from one another in adaptations.
B)more recessive alleles will be expressed.
C)greater the chance one will go extinct.
D)greater the mutation rate will be.
Q3) You examine the fossilized remains of the winged animal.Impressions in the surrounding rock suggest that the wings may have been covered with tiny hairs,which suggests that the animal is likely to have been a mammal.When you examine the remains of the wings,which of the following observations would be most surprising?
A)The animal appears to have five digits in each forelimb.
B)Several of the digits ("finger" bones)are extremely long, and look as if they supported a thin membrane.
C)The animal's wings appear to be much larger than those of any known bat.
D)The animal appears to have two upper arm bones.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: The Means of Evolution: Microevolution
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Q1) A bottleneck may be dangerous to a population because:
A)the potential for natural selection is greatly increased.
B)mutation rate is increased.
C)genetic variability is diminished.
D)mutation rate is decreased.
Q2) If within a large population no mutations occur,no migration occurs,all mating is random,and each individual has an equal chance of reproducing,which of the following will probably happen?
A)No evolution will occur.
B)A bottleneck will occur.
C)A change in allele frequency will lead to rapid evolution.
D)Extinction will occur.
Q3) If after several generations most males have antlers with 20 points,this development will have been the result of:
A)directional selection.
B)disruptive selection.
C)founder effect.
D)bottleneck effect.
Q4) The smallest unit that can participate in evolution is a ________.
Q5) ________ characters are continuously variable.
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Chapter 18: The Outcomes of Evolution: Macroevolution
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Q1) Which of these is not gametic isolation?
A)Female stigma destroys germinating pollen grain.
B)Lily sperm cannot fertilize tulip eggs.
C)Pollen grain does not germinate on stigma (female structure).
D)Male and female sex organs do not fit together.
Q2) What causes geographic isolation for one kind of organism may not be isolating for another kind of organism.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Two species of pines,Pinus radiata and Pinus muricota,live together in California and are capable of forming hybrids under laboratory conditions.However,they do not interbreed because one releases pollen in February and the other in April.What is the genetic isolating mechanism involved?
A)gametic
B)ecological
C)geographic
D)temporal
Q4) The taxonomic science that stresses the presence of shared derived characters in related organisms is called ________.
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Chapter 19: A Slow Unfolding: the History of Life on Earth
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Q1) List three characteristics of all non-ape primates,and state an advantage for each of these characteristics.
Q2) Which large animals were wiped out by the Cretaceous extinction?
A)sharks
B)dinosaurs
C)whales
D)mammoths
Q3) What argument do scientists who support the metabolism-first model use to dispute the replicator-first model?
A)The replicator nucleic acid molecule would be too large and complex.
B)DNA cannot replicate without the help of proteins.
C)RNA can only be used to make proteins, not other nucleic acids.
D)Replicators cannot exist without metabolism.
Q4) Vascular tissue is important for both efficient water distribution and taller growth in plants.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss why many scientists consider RNA to have been the basis for early forms of life.
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Chapter 20: Arriving Late,traveling Far: the Evolution of Human Beings
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Q1) Homo floresiensis is a relatively new find of fossils from: A)Africa.
B)Indonesia.
C)Australia.
D)Europe.
Q2) The ability for a hominin to walk upright is referred to as ________.
Q3) Homo floresiensis represents a branching point for modern humans in Africa.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The brain of Australopithecus afarensis was almost the same size as that of modern humans.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Modern humans have been in existence for approximately how many years?
A)100,000
B)200,000
C)500,000
D)1,000,000
Page 23
Q6) Describe the characteristics that appear to differentiate humans from apes in the hominin group.
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Diversity of Life 1
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Q1) Which of the following is the best description of a virus?
A)A virus is the smallest living thing.
B)A virus is a life-form that can reproduce inside cells or independently.
C)A virus is a tiny spore-producing cell.
D)A virus is a noncellular, replicating entity.
Q2) The process by which viruses can exchange genetic sequences to come up with a "new" virus such as H1N1 is:
A)recombination.
B)reassortment.
C)independent assortment.
D)conjugation.
Q3) Methanogens are in the ________ category of extremophile.
Q4) Photosynthetic aquatic microorganisms,such as some bacteria and protists,are known as ________.
Q5) The antibiotic penicillin inhibits the ability of bacteria to:
A)make cell walls.
B)synthesize protein.
C)copy DNA.
D)undergo respiration.
Q6) Overuse of antibiotics has likely produced MRSA.MRSA stands for ________. Page 25
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Chapter 22: Fungi: the Diversity of Life 2
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Q1) Yeast are an example of:
A)photosynthetic fungi.
B)unicellular fungi.
C)fungi-like bacteria.
D)fungi with no cell walls.
Q2) Yeasts are all members of the chytrids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement about fungi and plant disease is most accurate?
A)Far more plant diseases are caused by fungi than bacteria.
B)About equal numbers of plant diseases are caused by fungi and bacteria.
C)Viruses cause more plant diseases than fungi.
D)Fungi rarely cause diseases.
Q4) Discuss the ways in which fungi are both helpful and harmful to human society.
Q5) Most fungi are ________,or fixed in one spot.
Q6) Although some fungi are multicellular,most are unicellular.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Fungi and plants have a long-term relationship in the history of life on Earth.Appraise the evidence in support of this concept.
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Chapter 23: Animals: the Diversity of Life 3
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Q1) Discuss why nearly all larger animals have circulatory systems,and describe the differences between the open circulatory system and the closed circulatory system.
Q2) Which statement about nematodes is most accurate?
A)They are mainly parasites.
B)They are mainly crop pests.
C)They all have straight, flattened bodies.
D)They fit into numerous ecological roles including detritivores.
E)They have exoskeletons made of cellulose.
Q3) Asymmetry refers to arrangement of body parts evenly around a central point.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Annelids demonstrate the important animal characteristic of body segmentation. A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not an advantage of a body cavity?
A)It allows flexibility and safe storage of organs.
B)It allows for the storage of eggs or offspring.
C)It provides a safe place for an expandable digestive tract.
D)It provides for movement.
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Chapter 24: Plants: the Diversity of Life 4
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Q1) In plant life cycles,meiosis produces spores.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ferns differ from mosses in that ferns contain vascular tissue and mosses do not.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diminished rewards of photosynthesis in winter along with the negatives of water loss and leaf damage cause many trees to exhibit:
A)photoperiodism.
B)dormancy.
C)thigmotropism.
D)phototropism.
Q4) ________ is the angiosperm tissue that is intended for nutrition of the embryo and not animal seed dispersal but is nonetheless an important food source for people.________ and ________ are examples of crops in which the endosperm is an important food source for people.
Q5) The three main kinds of seedless vascular plants are: ________,________,and ________.
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Chapter 25: The Angiosperms: Form and Function in Flowering Plants
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Q1) Flower parts arranged in multiples of four or five is characteristic of: A)monocots.
B)dicots.
C)both monocots and dicots.
D)non-flowering seed plants.
Q2) The major advantage provided to plants by root hairs is:
A)needle-like points for drilling through hard or rocky soil.
B)ability to produce new taproots.
C)underground asexual reproduction.
D)greatly increasing absorptive surface area.
Q3) Secondary woody growth is characteristic of: A)monocots.
B)dicots.
C)both monocots and dicots.
D)non-flowering seed plants.
Q4) The pod of a pea plant represents a fruit produced by the plant.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
Q5) ________ provides the force that moves water up xylem.
Q6) The type of root system more common in monocots is the ________ root system.
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Chapter 26: Body Support and Movement: the
Integumentary, skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Q1) The function of epithelial tissue is to:
A)allow for movement of the body.
B)protect and cover the body.
C)support the body.
D)form the immune system.
Q2) Glial cells are cells found in which type of tissue?
A)muscle
B)nervous
C)connective
D)epithelial
Q3) The brain is in the ________ cavity,which is part of the larger ________ cavity.
Q4) Keratinized cells near the surface of the epidermis are:
A)found in a single layer.
B)mostly dead and water resistant.
C)about one month old.
D)derived from nervous tissue.
Q5) The two organ systems that are involved in removing wastes from the cells and eliminating them from the body are the ________ system and ________ system.
Q7) Glands are part of the ________ tissue category. Page 32
Q6) The endocrine system sends signals using chemical messengers called ________.
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Chapter 27: Communication and Control 1: the Nervous System
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Q1) The action potential moves across the synaptic cleft as an electrical signal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement best describes how one neuron stimulates another?
A)Sodium ions jump across to the next neuron's membrane.
B)The neurons are physically connected, so the action potential continues movement.
C)Calcium ions diffuse across the synapse.
D)Neurotransmitter molecules diffuse across the synapse.
Q3) White matter areas of the nervous system mostly contain:
A)neuron cell bodies.
B)myelinated axons.
C)cerebrospinal fluid.
D)ganglia.
Q4) Which of the following best describes the structural aspect of the cerebral cortex?
A)a thin band of gray matter making the outer layer of the cerebrum
B)a thick band of white matter making the outer layer of the cerebrum
C)a core of fast, myelinated axons in the interior of the brain
D)a cap of white matter over the spinal cord, made mostly of the thalamus
Page 34
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Chapter 28: Communication and Control 2: the Endocrine System
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Q1) Hypothalamic neurons directly control the anterior pituitary with neural stimuli at a synapse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Release of most hormones is controlled by:
A)the cerebrum.
B)positive feedback.
C)negative feedback.
D)internal enzyme levels.
E)DNA.
Q3) Which hormones stimulate the kidneys to retain sodium and excrete potassium?
Q4) Where are the parathyroid glands located?
Q5) A diabetic friend of yours passes out shortly after taking her insulin injection.She regains consciousness and asks you to give her one of the glucose tablets she carries in her purse.Another friend steps in and says,"Wait! You shouldn't give sugar to a diabetic!" Recalling what you learned about the endocrine system,you give your diabetic friend the glucose tablet she asked for.Why did you trust the request of your diabetic friend for the glucose tablet and not the other friend who thought he was being helpful (but wasn't)?
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Q6) What gland and hormone control the release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex?
Chapter 29: Defending the Body: the Immune System
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Q1) Phagocytes can ingest pathogens,cells,and cell parts in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Helper T cells are also called CD4 cells due to the receptors found on their surfaces.
A)True
B)False
Q3) T cells develop in the thalamus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast the benefits of histamine and histamine-producing cells with their potential risks to the health of the human body.
Q5) Attaching an antibody to an antigen so that the antigen cannot attach to anything else is referred to as:
A)coagulation.
B)agglutination.
C)antigen presentation.
D)neutralization.
Q6) The inflammatory response is caused by the chemical ________.
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Chapter 30: Transport and Exchange 1: Blood and Breath
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Q1) A heart murmur would be associated with the malfunction of which structure?
A)aorta
B)pacemaker
C)heart muscle
D)atrioventricular valves
E)heart epithelial tissue
Q2) Arteries always carry blood that is oxygen rich.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the relationship of bone marrow to the cardiovascular system?
A)Bone marrow produces red blood cells.
B)Bone marrow helps keep the blood moving through the body.
C)Bone marrow produces chemicals that help carry carbon dioxide in the blood.
D)Bone marrow breaks down old blood cells.
Q4) Some proteins are too large to leave the capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which drawing,A,B,or C,depicts a formed element involved in the body's immune response?
Page 37
Q6) The technical term for a white blood cell is ________.
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Chapter 31: Transport and Exchange 2: Digestion, nutrition, and Elimination
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Q1) How would blockage of the pancreatic duct affect the digestive system?
A)The food in the small intestine would be more basic (alkaline).
B)It would have little effect because liver enzymes would take over.
C)The small intestine would contain acidic, mostly undigested chyme.
D)The stomach would be unable to function.
Q2) Why are saturated fats considered a less healthy nutrient?
A)Because saturated fats are from animal sources, they can produce allergic reactions.
B)Saturated fats cannot be used for energy as the other fats can.
C)Saturated fats raise HDL levels, which contributes to heart disease.
D)Saturated fats raise LDL levels, which contributes to heart disease.
Q3) A friend tells you that she wants to try to be a strict vegetarian or vegan,but her parents are discouraging her from doing so.Her parents say she will not get enough protein or vitamins.What advice can you offer your friend to help her convince her parents she will get enough protein and vitamins on a vegetarian or vegan diet?
Q4) Which organ,A,B,or C,produces digestive enzymes and chemical buffers?
Q5) A "nutritional" calorie is actually 1,000 of the energy unit calories.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: An Amazingly Detailed Script: Animal Development
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Q1) The blastula contains an internal structure called the archenteron.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true of the animal pole of a zygote?
A)The animal pole is closer to the nucleus than the vegetal pole.
B)The animal pole is hollow.
C)The animal pole becomes the entire embryo.
D)The animal pole produces larger cells than the vegetal pole.
Q3) Without programmed cell death,your ________ might look more like a
A)hand; paddle
B)head; hand
C)leg; heart
D)foot; hoof
Q4) What action by the individual cells involved can assist processes involving cell movement such as gastrulation?
A)transcription factors
B)microfilament growth
C)invagination
D)evagination
E)phagocytosis
39
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Chapter 33: How the Baby Came to Be: Human Reproduction
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Q1) Women produce oocytes from stem cells from puberty all throughout life.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sperm development takes about:
A)1 month.
B)28 days.
C)6 months.
D)2)5 months.
Q3) Ovulation refers to growth of the primary follicle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why does a female have millions of ovarian follicles as a fetus but has perhaps just over a thousand in her early fifties?
A)Several hundred follicles ovulate per monthly cycle and deplete the follicle supply at a steady rate.
B)Several thousand follicles ovulate per monthly cycle and deplete the follicle supply at a steady rate.
C)Natural degeneration of follicles speeds up in later years.
D)Production of new follicles from stem cells slows in her fifties.
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Chapter 34: An Interactive Living World 1: Populations in Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following might an ecologist study?
A)general nature of digestive enzymes of deer
B)genetics of mosquitoes
C)effects of increasing carbon dioxide on forest growth
D)function of the immune system in human populations
Q2) A negative rate of increase,or a negative r,means that:
A)the population is shrinking.
B)the population has a short generation time.
C)death rates have decreased.
D)there is zero population growth.
Q3) Oak trees grow slowly and put a lot of resources into the trunk,bark,and roots.Seeds are relatively heavy.In the plant kingdom,oaks might be considered:
A)density independent.
B)r-selected.
C)opportunistic.
D)K-selected.
Q4) Elephants are good examples of r-selected species.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An "S" shaped curve would be indicative of ________ growth.
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Chapter 35: An Interactive Living World 2: Communities in Ecology
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Q1) Competition among species may lead to resource partitioning in an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You are doing field work on a small,uninhabited island.You are supplementing your food supply with fish that live in some of the ponds on the island.You catch a brightly colored fish with red and black stripes,filet it,pan fry it,and spit out your first bite because it tastes like it had been soaked in urine.Back at camp,your guide from a nearby island is pan frying fish with red and black stripes he caught in an adjacent pond.When you tell him not to eat those,he smiles and says these are the best-tasting fish in the whole island chain! You look closer and see the pattern of the red and black stripes is just a little different from the fish you caught.What principle of ecology have you just experienced firsthand?
A)commensalism
B)mutualism
C)Müllerian mimicry
D)Batesian mimicry
Q3) Which form of biological succession occurs in an area where most life has been destroyed,but fertile soil remains?
Q4) What is the relationship between a biodiversity and geographic diversity?
Page 42
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Chapter 36: An Interactive Living World 3: Ecosystems and Biomes
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Q1) There would be roughly the same biomass of secondary consumers as tertiary consumers in an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An animal that eats a primary consumer is categorized as being in the second trophic level.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the main consideration in determining a trophic level?
A)energy loss level
B)efficiency level
C)feeding level
D)community level
E)production level
Q4) CO makes up about ________ percent of the atmosphere.
A)0)035
B)0)35
C)3)5
D)35
E)37
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