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Neuropsychology is the scientific study of the relationship between brain function and behavior. This course explores the structure and function of the nervous system, examining how brain injuries, diseases, and developmental anomalies can impact cognitive processes such as memory, attention, language, perception, and executive functions. Students will learn about the methods used to assess neuropsychological functioning, the neural basis of psychological disorders, and approaches to rehabilitation and intervention. Through case studies and current research, the course provides insights into how neuropsychology informs our understanding of both typical and atypical human behavior.
Recommended Textbook
Biopsychology 9th Edition by John P.J. Pinel
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2676 Verified Questions
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Q1) In a well-designed experiment, there is only one systematic difference between the conditions. This difference is manipulated by the experimenter and is called the A) between-subject variable.
B) within-subject variable.
C) dependent variable.
D) independent variable.
E) confounded variable.
Answer: D
Q2) A __________ -subjects design is an experimental design that involves testing a different group of subjects under each condition of the experiment.
Answer: between
Q3) The general method that scientists use to study unobservable objects and events is called __________.
Answer: scientific inference
Q4) __________ are the biopsychologists who focus on the study of human patients with brain damage.
Answer: Neuropsychologists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cooper and Zubek (1958) found that maze-bright rats made fewer maze errors than maze-dull rats only if both groups had
A) been reared in an impoverished laboratory environment.
B) been reared in an enriched laboratory environment. C) been equated for emotionality.
D) received tranquilizers.
E) been pretrained.
Answer: A
Q2) Discuss the history and current view of the nature-nurture issue.
Answer: 25% for describing the original nature-nurture issue
50% for describing how the nature-nurture issue evolved
25% for explaining the current interaction view of nature and nurture
Q3) Modern biology began in 1859 with the publication of On the __________ by Darwin.
Answer: Origin of Species
Q4) Asomatognosia is typically produced by lesions to the right __________.
Answer: parietal lobe
Q5) The first Homo species is thought to have evolved from a species of __________ about 2 million years ago.
Answer: Australopithecus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical communication among mammalian neurons often occurs
A) at points where their cell bodies contact one another.
B) across gaps called dendrites.
C) across synapses.
D) at points where their axons contact one another.
E) at points where dendrites contact one another.
Answer: C
Q2) Three major structures in the __________ of the brain are named after colors (red, black, and grey).
A) medulla
B) mesencephalon
C) tectum
D) tegmentum
E) thalamus
Answer: D
Q3) The __________ dangles from the hypothalamus.
Answer: pituitary
Q4) The bulge on the ventral surface of the metencephalon is the __________.
Answer: pons
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Sample Questions
Q1) The conduction of an action potential along any axon is mediated by the action of A) nodes of Ranvier.
B) voltage-activated ion channels.
C) ligand-activated ion channels.
D) myelin.
E) EPSPs.
Q2) Endorphins are
A) neuropeptides.
B) monoamines.
C) cholinergic.
D) adrenergic.
E) serotonergic.
Q3) Action potentials are produced by the
A) opening of voltage-activated sodium channels.
B) closing of ligand-activated chloride channels.
C) closing of ligand-activated potassium channels.
D) opening of ligand-activated potassium channels.
E) closing of voltage-activated calcium channels.
Q4) The drug, __________ , is a muscarinic antagonist and pupil dilator.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ironic case of Professor P. makes the point that
A) two brains are better than one.
B) Alzheimer's disease can have an early onset.
C) many research methods of biopsychology are used in clinical settings.
D) brain tumors can be bilateral.
E) cortical tumors are usually malignant.
Q2) Which of the following brain lesion techniques is least likely to be associated with damage to major blood vessels?
A) aspiration lesions
B) electrolytic lesions
C) radio-frequency lesions
D) knife cuts
E) lobotomy
Q3) Electrooculography is
A) usually performed with one electrode mounted on each cornea.
B) a method of estimating eye movement.
C) a method of measuring skin conductance.
D) an indirect method of measuring pupil constriction.
E) both A and B
Q4) Many cancer patients receiving chemotherapy develop conditioned __________.
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Q1) Binocular disparity
A) is an important depth-perception cue.
B) is usually corrected by surgery.
C) is usually corrected by glasses.
D) results from neural convergence.
E) is mediated by the lateral geniculate.
Q2) Hemianopsic patients who focus on the tip of a person's nose sometimes
A) experience completion.
B) report seeing only half the face contralateral to the damage.
C) report seeing the entire face.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q3) On the basis of their receptive field properties, most neurons in lower layer IV of the primary visual cortex are classified as
A) simple cells or complex cells.
B) complex cells or hypercomplex cells.
C) hypercomplex cells.
D) on-center or off-center cells.
E) type A or type B cells.
Q4) Dual-opponent color cells are found in peg-like columns called __________.
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Q1) The ventral posterior nuclei of the thalamus receive direct input from the A) dorsal-column medial-lemniscus system.
B) spinotectal tract.
C) spinoreticular tract.
D) all of the above
E) both B and C
Q2) Harold Klawans's neurological case of Aunt Betty suffered from a form of A) asomatognosia.
B) prosopagnosia.
C) color agnosia.
D) stereognosis.
E) anosmia.
Q3) SI is also known as the __________ somatosensory cortex.
Q4) The somatosensory system is
A) exteroceptive.
B) proprioceptive.
C) interoceptive.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q5) The __________ cortex is considered to be the primary olfactory cortex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Like the sensory systems, the sensorimotor system is
A) hierarchical.
B) parallel.
C) functionally segregated.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) So-called fast muscle fibers
A) are pale.
B) are bright red.
C) can generate great force for long periods.
D) are found exclusively in extensors.
E) are found exclusively in flexors.
Q3) In general the various areas of secondary motor cortex are thought to
A) terminate response sequences.
B) specialize in guiding learned sequences.
C) program specific patterns of movement.
D) mediate reflexes.
E) provide the major input to spinal motor circuits.
Q4) The patellar tendon reflex is an example of a __________ reflex.
Q5) The somatotopic map of the primary motor cortex is called the motor
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Q1) In the 1980s, adult neurogenesis was convincingly documented in __________ before being described in mammals.
Q2) Immature cells that have the potential to develop into many, but not all, classes of mature cells (e.g., blood, skin, hair, neurons) are called
A) ependymal.
B) pluripotent.
C) ventricular.
D) multipolar.
E) totipotent.
Q3) Autism almost always becomes apparent
A) before the age of 6 months.
B) before the age of 3 years.
C) after the age of 6 years.
D) after the age of 8 years.
E) after the age of 10 years.
Q4) The first neurotrophin to be isolated was __________ factor.
Q5) Early experience and the resulting changes in neural activity fine-tune subsequent stages of normal __________ .
Q6) When the lips of the neural __________ fuse, the result is the neural tube.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acoustic neuromas are
A) encapsulated.
B) benign.
C) located on the 8th cranial nerve.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) Axonal degeneration in one neuron stimulates collateral __________ from adjacent neurons.
Q3) Huntington's disease is caused by a single __________ gene.
Q4) After the axon of a typical multipolar neuron is cut, the distal segment always degenerates. This is called __________ degeneration.
A) anterograde
B) retrograde
C) distal
D) proximal
E) transneural
Q5) Discuss two methods that are currently being developed for promoting recovery from nervous system damage. Describe relevant evidence.
Q6) Discuss clinical epilepsy and the main categories of epileptic seizures.
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Q1) In early studies of medial-temporal-lobe amnesia in monkeys, the cortex underlying the hippocampus and amygdala was always damaged because the lesions were
A) electrolytic.
B) epileptic.
C) cryogenic
D) made by aspiration.
E) bilateral.
Q2) The retrograde amnesia associated with closed-head injury has been frequently studied in laboratory animals by
A) hitting them on the head with a little rubber hammer.
B) administering acetylcholine agonists.
C) administering electroconvulsive shock.
D) using multiple-trial learning tests that must be learned over several days.
E) both B and D
Q3) The __________ is thought to play a role in the storage of the emotional significance of various experiences.
Q4) Discuss Korsakoff's syndrome and the amnesia associated with it. What areas of the brain have been linked to Korsakoff's syndrome, and what is the evidence for these links?
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Q1) Most humans have a fondness for __________ tastes.
A) sweet
B) fatty
C) salty
D) all of the above
E) both B and C
Q2) Large bilateral lesions of the lateral hypothalamus produce
A) aphagia.
B) adipsia.
C) hyperphagia.
D) both A and B
E) both B and C
Q3) CCK is to neuropeptide Y as
A) galanin is to CCK.
B) serotonin is to satiety.
C) satiety is to hunger.
D) rats are to humans.
E) hunger is to satiety.
Q4) Evidence suggests that anorexic patients, or anybody else who is emaciated, should not be fed large __________.
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Q1) In sensitive species, female fetuses are protected from the masculinizing effects of their mother's estradiol by
A) estrogens.
B) alpha fetoprotein.
C) the blood-brain barrier.
D) diethylstilbestrol.
E) lordosis.
Q2) Castration of bisexual males
A) reduces their homosexual behavior.
B) reduces their heterosexual behavior.
C) increases their homosexuality.
D) both A and B
E) none of the above
Q3) Thyrotropin is released by the A) thyroid gland.
B) hypothalamus.
C) anterior pituitary.
D) posterior pituitary.
E) adrenal cortex.
Q4) __________ hormones are short chains of amino acids.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because REM sleep is similar to wakefulness in several respects, it makes sense that REM sleep circuits are controlled by a structure involved in maintaining wakefulness: the A) thalamus.
B) basal forebrain.
C) reticular activating system.
D) cerveau isolé.
E) both A and B
Q2) How much sleep do we really need? According to the text, the evidence suggests that, if sleep is monophasic, the answer seems to be about __________ hours per night for most people.
A) 3.0
B) 5.5
C) 7.0
D) 8.0
E) 10.0
Q3) The advantage of the carousel apparatus is that the __________ control procedure is an integral part of it.
Q4) The feeling of grogginess that is sometimes experienced upon awaking is called sleep ___________.
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Q1) A hangover is a
A) mild alcohol withdrawal syndrome.
B) form of alcohol psychosis.
C) fetal alcohol syndrome.
D) form of alcohol dementia.
E) mild alcohol sensitization effect.
Q2) A meta-analysis that focused only on "well-designed" studies of moderate drinking and coronary heart disease found that
A) red wine reduced the number of heart attacks.
B) red wine reduced the severity of heart attacks.
C) red and white wine were both beneficial.
D) any alcohol in moderate amounts reduced both the incidence and severity of heart attacks.
E) none of the above
Q3) Addicts who have stopped taking their drug of abuse often relapse if they take their drug just once. This effect is called drug __________.
Q4) Compare the hazards of one legal and one illegal addictive drug. What does your comparison suggest?
Q5) The best animal model of human drug addiction is the drug __________ paradigm.
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Q1) The Wernicke-Geschwind model is a
A) serial model.
B) parallel model.
C) holistic, nonlocalizationist model.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C
Q2) Left-hemisphere damage is more likely than right-hemisphere damage to be associated with
A) contralateral motor problems.
B) ipsilateral motor problems.
C) motor problems of the left hand.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C
Q3) According to the Wernicke-Geschwind model, the neural output of the left frontal operculum goes to
A) the primary motor cortex.
B) Broca's area.
C) Wernicke's area.
D) the angular gyrus.
E) the arcuate fasciculus.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disorders whose symptoms are primarily physical but whose development is greatly influenced by psychological factors are called
A) psychological disorders.
B) mental disorders.
C) psychiatric disorders.
D) stress disorders.
E) psychosomatic disorders.
Q2) Separating rat pups from their mothers
A) has the same effect as early handling.
B) has the same effect as increased maternal grooming.
C) produces increases in behavioral and endocrine stress responses in adulthood.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q3) The belief that putting on a happy face makes one feel happier is an example of the A) facial feedback hypothesis.
B) Duchenne hypothesis.
C) Ekman hypothesis.
D) prosody principle.
E) Pinel principle.
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Q1) Disorders characterized by extreme feelings of anxiety and severe stress responses in the absence of an apparent precipitating stimulus are classified as
A) generalized anxiety disorders.
B) panic attacks.
C) phobic anxiety disorders.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorders.
E) tachycardia.
Q2) A disorder of psychological function sufficiently severe to require treatment by a psychiatrist is called a __________ disorder.
A) neuropsychological
B) psychiatric
C) neurobehavioral
D) neurochemical
E) degenerative
Q3) Motor and verbal __________ are the primary symptoms of Tourette syndrome.
Q4) Fluoxetine, or __________, is an SSRI.
Q5) __________ receptor blockers are commonly used in the treatment of Tourette syndrome.
Q6) Imipramine is a __________ antidepressant.
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