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Network Infrastructure introduces students to the foundational concepts, components, and technologies that form the backbone of modern computer networks. The course covers essential topics such as network topologies, transmission media, routers, switches, firewalls, and wireless access points. Students learn about the principles of network design, implementation, and maintenance, with an emphasis on scalability, security, and performance optimization. Through hands-on labs and real-world scenarios, participants gain practical experience in configuring and managing network devices, troubleshooting connectivity issues, and ensuring robust and reliable infrastructure to support organizational needs.
Recommended Textbook Guide to Networking Essentials 6th Edition by Greg Tomsho
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13 Chapters
529 Verified Questions
529 Flashcards
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41 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) For any device to communicate with the computer, either through input or output, it must have what special software installed?
A) client
B) network interface
C) network protocol
D) device driver
Answer: D
Q2) In order to find out your MAC address, you should open a command prompt and type ipconfig /all.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Every NIC is embedded with a unique address that consists of a 12-digit hexadecimal value. What is this address called?
A) IP address
B) subnet mask
C) MAC address
D) default gateway
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does a switch store in its switching table?
A) the source MAC address of a frame and the port it was received on B) the destination MAC address of a frame and the port it was received on C) the source IP address of a frame and the port it was received on D) the destination IP address of a frame and the port it was received on
Answer: A
Q2) The network ____________ is a measurement of the amount of data that can pass through a network in a certain period of time.
Answer: bandwidth
Q3) What is the purpose of the default route?
A) It serves as a guideline for how to configure routes.
B) It's a route set by Microsoft so that all information comes to their servers first.
C) It's where the router sends all packets with destinations of which it has no knowledge.
D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q4) A __________ frame is a message that is intended to be processed by all devices on the LAN.
Answer: broadcast
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Sample Questions
Q1) A collision can occur on a switch only if the switch is operating in full-duplex mode.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) What is the IEEE standard governing wireless networking?
A) 802.3
B) 802.5
C) 802.3ab
D) 802.11
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Unshielded Twisted Pair cabling?
A) contains four pairs of copper wire
B) susceptible to electrical interference
C) operates in half-duplex only
D) comes in numbered categories
Answer: C
Q4) The most popular LAN technology used today is ____________.
Answer: Ethernet
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a transceiver and what is its function?
Q2) Which of the following connections might require a crossover cable?
A) router to switch
B) switch to computer
C) switch to switch
D) hub to computer
Q3) Most office buildings usually have a false ceiling with an area above that which is used to run conduit for heating and air conditioning units, called the ____________.
Q4) Because fiber-optic cabling uses light pulses instead of electrical signals, it is immune to interference and highly resistant to eavesdropping.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The length of cable between the wall jack and a patch panel is called vertical cabling.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is structured cabling and what are its six components?
Q7) Describe twisted-pair cabling.
Q8) What are the benefits of fiber-optic cabling?
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the decimal equivalent to the binary number 11000001?
A) 97
B) 160
C) 161
D) 193
Q2) In which layer does a router operate?
A) Network Access
B) Internetwork
C) Transport
D) Application
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of the Network Access layer?
A) transmits and receives bit signals
B) delivers packets efficiently
C) provides a MAC address for the network interface
D) receives packets form the Internetwork layer and creates the frame
Q4) How many host addresses are available on a Class C network?
A) 254
B) 256
C) 65534
D) 65536
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the Data Link layer do with a frame after it receives it?
Q2) What is encoding, and where does it take place?
Q3) What is a PDU?
A) It is an Application layer protocol that handles delivery of messages.
B) It is a unit of measurement for the maximum amount of data that can be transferred.
C) It is the name given to the unit of information used by each layer.
D) It is a Network layer protocol that handles path determination
Q4) At which layer would you find errors that were caused by EMI?
A) Data Link
B) Transport
C) Physical
D) Network
Q5) One of the problems that can occur in the Network layer is the incorrect configuration of a hosts IP address.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The Transport layer PDU includes a field for window size. What is the "window size"?
Q7) The PDU at the Data Link layer is called a ____________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a router's interface is configured with multiple IP addresses with each address belonging to different networks, what is it called?
A) multi-homed router
B) dynamic router
C) link-state router
D) router on a stick
Q2) A ____________ is used to make connections between the network interface card and the other vital components of the computer, such as the central processing unit.
Q3) The time it takes for all the routing tables on every router in a network to be fully updated, either when a change occurs or according to a schedule, is called the speed of what?
A) delivery
B) convergence
C) congestion
D) concurrence
Q4) Briefly describe an entry in a routing table from a router.
Q5) What physical characteristics must you take into account when shopping for a new NIC?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following virtualization products provides hosted virtualization?
A) Citrix XenServer
B) VMware vSphere
C) Microsoft Hyper-V
D) VMware Workstation
Q2) What directory service protocol used in Linux systems is also supported by Windows?
A) NFS
B) NIS
C) LDAP
D) LEAP
Q3) Which edition of Windows Server 2008 includes support for up to 64 processors and provides unlimited virtual instances?
A) Web Server 2008
B) Standard Edition
C) Enterprise Edition
D) Datacenter Edition
Q4) When a user enters his username and password to log on to a machine, he is invoking the process of ____________.
Q5) What is the System Idle process, and what does its value mean?
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a file is encrypted, what color does the file name appear in Windows Explorer?
A) green
B) purple
C) red
D) blue
Q2) Why would you enable Shadow copies?
Q3) Windows can be installed on an extended partition that has been formatted with the NTFS file system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What types of devices are considered to be locally attached storage?
Q5) A user logs on to her account and is able to makes changes to her desktop, like adding a background and screen saver. However, when she logs off and logs back on, the desktop reverts to its original configuration. What type of user profile does this user have?
A) roaming
B) local
C) default
D) mandatory
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Q1) How the network resources are to be used should be clearly defined in a (an) ____________ policy.
Q2) What is the generic term used to describe programs that are designed to cause harm or disruption to a computer system?
A) spyware
B) malware
C) virus
D) Trojan
Q3) Which of the following is a type of malware that isn't self-replicating and is usually installed by the user without his knowledge. It's primary goal is to invade your privacy by monitoring your system and reporting your activities to advertisers and spammers.
A) rootkit
B) Trojan
C) hoax virus
D) spyware
Q4) A(an) ____________ is a type of Trojan program that hides in the operating system files and is extremely difficult to detect.
Q5) Briefly describe the three levels of network security policies.
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Q1) Before you purchase any software for a small business, especially the OS, you should be aware of the number of users that are allowed to access the software. What document will give you that information?
A) ACL
B) TCO
C) CRM
D) EULA
Q2) If your network consists mostly of computers with Linux operating systems, which file-sharing system can you use that is native to Linux?
A) NFS
B) Samba
C) NIS
D) SMB
Q3) What is the TCO?
Q4) What is a EULA?
Q5) One of the first decisions that a small business must focus on is whether to create a peer-to-peer network or a ____________ based network.
Q6) When is a VPN connection using gateway-to-gateway VPN mode usually employed?
Q7) What is port forwarding?
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Q1) Which cloud computing category allows a company to quickly provision additional disk space?
A) hosted development
B) hosted applications
C) hosted platforms
D) hosted infrastructure
Q2) Some of the most common packet-switched WAN network technologies are X.25, frame relay, and MPLS. Name and describe another packet switched WAN technology.
Q3) Packet switched WANs use virtual circuits to ensure that packets are delivered reliably and at the agreed-on bandwidth level.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the local loop, or last mile?
A) the connection used between central offices
B) cable between the customer premise equipment and a PC
C) a line used by ISPs for testing T-carrier signals.
D) the connection between the demarcation point and the CO
Q5) What is the difference between the two types of virtual circuits?
Q6) What is a DCE, and what does it do?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following a massive infection of your network by a virus, you have been tasked with developing preventive measures for keeping the network infection free. What would be an effective preventive measure?
A) Install an enterprise-based anti-virus solution.
B) Send a sternly worded e-mail detailing the company's strict "no-viruses" policy.
C) Decrease the amount of time before a user must change their password.
D) Modify your disaster recovery plan to include forensic analysis of any potential viruses to determine their source.
Q2) Select the utility inside of Windows that allows the user to recover a previous system state. This utility monitors drives and partitions, as well as registry settings and system files.
A) System Recovery Agent
B) Automated System State Recovery Agent
C) System Restore
D) Windows Data Recovery
Q3) Most companies have resources you can use to get answers to your questions and find solutions to common problems. Describe some of these resources.
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