Network+ Certification Preparation Test Preparation
Course Introduction
This course is designed to prepare students for the CompTIA Network+ certification by covering the essential concepts and practical skills required to support network infrastructure. Topics include network architecture, protocols and standards, network hardware, IP addressing, routing and switching, wireless and wired networks, network troubleshooting, virtualization, network security fundamentals, and best practices in network management. Through lectures, hands-on labs, and practice exams, students gain the knowledge and confidence needed to pass the Network+ certification exam and pursue entry-level roles in network support and administration.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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12 Chapters
600 Verified Questions
600 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the United States, who is able to activate the Emergency Alert System at the national level?
A) Any U.S. state or territory
B) The Federal Bureau of Investigation
C) The President
D) Local law enforcement
Answer: C
Q2) The Windows Remote Desktop application utilizes what protocol to provide secure, encrypted transmissions?
A) File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
B) Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
C) Secure Shell (SSH)
D) Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
Answer: D
Q3) The fundamental difference between a switch and a router is that a switch belongs only to its local network and a router belongs to two or more local networks.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the three different types of cabling recognized by TIA/EIA as acceptable for horizontal wiring?
Answer: TIA/EIA recognizes three possible cabling types for horizontal wiring: UTP, STP, or fiber optic cable. UTP (unshielded twisted pair) cable is a type of copper-based cable that consists of one or more insulated twisted-wire pairs encased in a plastic sheath. STP (shielded twisted pair) cable is a type of copper-based cable containing twisted-wire pairs that are not only individually insulated, but also surrounded by a shielding made of a metallic substance such as foil. Fiber-optic cable is a form of cable that contains one or several glass or plastic fibers in its core and comes in two types: single-mode fiber (SMF) or multimode fiber (MMF). Copper-based cable transmits data via electric signals, and fiber-optic cable transmits data via pulsing light sent from a laser or light-emitting diode (LED).
Q2) What is plenum, and what must you do to be able to run cable through plenum space?
Answer: Plenum is the area above the ceiling tile or below the subflooring. If you run cable in this space, the cable sheath must be plenum-rated. You should also consult with local electric installation codes to be certain you are installing it correctly.
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Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) What command can you utilize to display TCP/IP configuration information for each network adapter installed?
A) ipconfig /show
B) ipconfig /list
C) ipconfig /all
D) ipconfig /full
Answer: C
Q2) The 1024 - 65535 range of ports is also known as the "well-known" range.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What is a subnet mask, and how is it used?
Answer: It is a 32-bit number that helps one computer find another. The 32 bits are used to indicate what portion of an IP address is the network portion, called the network ID or network address, and what part is the host portion, called the host ID or node ID. Using this information, a computer can determine if another computer with a given IP address is on its own or a different network.
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Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is routing protocol convergence time defined as?
A) It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize the best path in the event of a network change.
B) It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize that a change has occurred.
C) It is the amount of time it takes after initial configuration of the protocol for all routes to become known.
D) It is the amount of time involved in configuration of the routing protocol.
Q2) What occurs when a collision happens on a network?
A) The collision goes undetected, and data transmission continues.
B) The collision will create an error in the network switch, but otherwise, no issues will occur as a result.
C) Each node on the network stops transmitting, until manually told to reconnect and transmit.
D) Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission.
Q3) ARP tables might contain two different types of entries. What are they, and how are they created?
Q4) What are some of the basic functions of a network router?
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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Sample Questions
Q1) A wavelength mismatch occurs when transmissions are optimized for one type of cable but sent over a different type of cable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What statement describes a transmission flaw that is occurring due to attenuation?
A) A customer modem is continuously losing signal due to large distance from the transmitting device.
B) A network switch interface is dropping due to a powerful radio transmitter in the adjacent room.
C) A customer's video conferencing application is experiencing delay in audio and video that comes and goes.
D) Two network interfaces are experiencing problems at the same time due to the cables having adjacent runs.
Q3) PoE+ devices are defined by what IEEE standard?
A) 802.3at
B) 802.3af
C) 802.3fc
D) 802.3c
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Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most wireless devices use one of two technologies to avoid interference. What are these technologies?
Q2) When troubleshooting wireless issues, what statement is accurate?
A) A WPA key can be used to associate with a WEP configured access point.
B) Access points that use overlapping channels can cause interference with each other if they are too close.
C) Simultaneous wired and wireless network connections do not affect the ability to communicate on the network.
D) Access point power levels should always be configured to output as much power as possible.
Q3) 802.11ac Wave 2 devices can theoretically support how much maximum throughput?
A) 600 Mbps
B) 1.3 Gbps
C) 3.47 Gbps
D) 6.93 Gbps
Q4) What are some of the different types of wireless topologies that can be created?
Q5) Why should the WPS PIN feature be avoided if possible?
Q6) What is the hidden node problem, and how can it be mitigated?
Q7) What is the difference between war driving and war chalking?
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Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does public key encryption work?
Q2) After L2TP establishing a VPN tunnel, GRE is used to transmit L2TP data frames through the tunnel.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Amazon and Rackspace both utilize what virtualization software below to create their cloud environments?
A) VMware vSphere
B) Oracle VirtualBox
C) Parallels
D) Citrix Xen
Q4) What is the difference between a virtual firewall and a software firewall?
Q5) Digital certificates are issued, maintained, and validated by an organization called a certificate authority (CA).
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the TLS/SSL handshake process as initiated by a web client accessing a secure website.
Q7) What is the PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol), and how does it work?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) do?
A) It shares trunking information amongst switches that participate.
B) It shares VLAN database information amongst switches that participate.
C) It is the protocol used by a trunk port for establishing a trunk with another switch.
D) It is the protocol that defines how VLAN tagging is accomplished in an Ethernet network.
Q2) All that is needed to provide communication between two VLANs is a DHCP relay agent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) On certain Cisco products, what command can be used to create and send helper messages that support several types of UDP traffic, including DHCP, TFTP, DNS, and TACACS+?
A) ip create helper server
B) ip new helper
C) set ip helper address
D) ip helper-address
Q4) How does a DHCP relay agent allow a centrally managed DHCP server to handle assignments for multiple subnets?
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Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is vulnerability scanning, and what are the two different types of vulnerability scans?
Q2) In a red team-blue team exercise, what is the purpose of the blue team?
A) The blue team is tasked with attacking the network.
B) The blue team must observe the actions of the red team.
C) The blue team is charged with the defense of the network.
D) The blue team consists of regulators that ensure no illegal activity is undertaken.
Q3) A person posing as an employee strikes up a conversation with a legitimate employee as they walk into a secured area, in an attempt to gain access. What kind of social engineering is this?
A) phishing
B) baiting
C) quid pro quo
D) tailgating
Q4) The original version of the Secure Hash Algorithm was developed by MIT.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does a zero-day exploit differ from a typical exploit?
Q6) How is an acceptable use policy typically used?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which encryption standard was originally utilized with WPA's TKIP?
A) Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
B) Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4)
C) Blowfish
D) Data Encryption Standard (DES)
Q2) The Wired Equivalent Privacy standard had what significant disadvantage?
A) It did not allow the use of a password for access to the network.
B) It provided no encryption for traffic sent over the air.
C) It used a shared encryption key for all clients, and the key might never change.
D) It only encrypted the initial connection authentication, but did not encrypt subsequent traffic.
Q3) By far the most popular AAA service, what open-source service runs in the Application layer and can use UDP or TCP in the Transport layer?
A) Google Authenticator
B) RADIUS
C) TACACS+
D) Kerberos
Q4) What is the purpose of Unified Threat Management (UTM)?
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you wish to maintain a "4 nines" availability rating, what is the maximum amount of down time you can have per day?
A) .4 seconds
B) 8 seconds
C) 1 minute, 26 seconds
D) 14 minutes, 23 seconds
Q2) How does a line conditioning UPS protect network equipment?
A) It protects against electrical surges.
B) It shields equipment from lightning damage.
C) It reduces fluctuations in incoming voltage.
D) It filters line noise from incoming power.
Q3) What term is used to describe the average amount of time that will pass for a device before a failure is expected to occur?
A) estimated time to failure (ETTF)
B) product cycle lifetime (PCL)
C) maximum time available (MTA)
D) mean time between failures (MTBF)
Q4) In response to an incident, how should chain of custody of evidence be handled?
Q5) What are the different types of power flaws that can cause damage?
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Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of virtual circuit allows connections to be established when parties need to transmit, then terminated after the transmission is complete?
A) permanent virtual circuit (PVC)
B) switched virtual circuit (SVC)
C) dynamic virtual circuit (DVC)
D) looping virtual circuit (LVC)
Q2) Of all the DSL standards, which is the most commonly in use today?
A) ADSL
B) VDSL
C) SDSL
D) G.Lite
Q3) What is the size of an ATM cell, including the header?
A) 48 bytes
B) 53 bytes
C) 64 bytes
D) 84 bytes
Q4) DSL signals travel over telephone lines using the 300 to 3300 Hz frequency range.
A)True
B)False
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