Network+ Certification Preparation Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course is designed to prepare students for the CompTIA Network+ certification exam by building foundational knowledge and practical skills in networking. It covers essential topics such as networking concepts, infrastructure, network operations, security, troubleshooting, and industry standards. Through a combination of lectures, hands-on labs, and practice exams, students will learn how to configure, manage, and troubleshoot wired and wireless networks, identify threats and vulnerabilities, implement security protocols, and follow best practices for network management. Upon completion, students will be equipped with the skills necessary to pursue entry-level network support roles and confidently attempt the Network+ certification exam.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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12 Chapters
600 Verified Questions
600 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what layer of the OSI model does a network switch normally operate?
A) Layer 2
B) Layer 3
C) Layer 4
D) Layer 5
Answer: A
Q2) In a domain, the process of allowing a user to sign on to the network from any computer on the network and get access to resources is managed by what service?
A) Active Directory Federated Users (AD FU)
B) Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)
C) Automated Directory Network Services (AD NS)
D) Windows Named Resource Services (WN RS)
Answer: B
Q3) The fundamental difference between a switch and a router is that a switch belongs only to its local network and a router belongs to two or more local networks.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What statement regarding main distribution frame or main distribution facilities is accurate?
A) The MDF and entrance facility are always in separate rooms.
B) The MDF refers to the racks holding network equipment in an organization.
C) The MDF provides intermediate connection between the IDF and end-user equipment on each floor.
D) The MDF is the centralized point of interconnection for an organization's LAN or WAN.
Answer: D
Q2) Each type of cable has a prescribed bend radius, which is the radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop a cable without impairing data transmission.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A 66 block is more suitable for data connections than the older 110 block. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a host's IPv6 address contains the network adapter's MAC address within the last 64 bits of the IPv6 address, what standard is being used?
A) EUI-64
B) IEEE 802.36
C) UUID-128
D) MACin6
Answer: A
Q2) A hexadecimal number is a number written in the base 16 number system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The FTP protocol utilizes UDP, while TFTP uses TCP for data transmission.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) UDP port 123 is utilized by the Network Time Protocol service.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been tasked with the replacement of OSPF with EIGRP throughout your organization, which consists of a mixture of Cisco routers and routers from other vendors. What statement is accurate?
A) EIGRP will increase CPU utilization on core routers.
B) Increased traffic will result from the switch to EIGRP.
C) EIGRP may not be available on non-Cisco routers.
D) Convergence time will be increased with EIGRP.
Q2) How can a network switch be said to operate at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
Q3) ARP tables might contain two different types of entries. What are they, and how are they created?
Q4) What IPv6 field is similar to the TTL field in IPv4 packets?
A) flow label
B) next header
C) hop limit
D) distance vector
Q5) What utility is the equivalent to the pathping command on a Linux system?
A) mtr
B) tracepath
C) traceroute
D) hping
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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Sample Questions
Q1) A continuity tester should not be used on a live network segment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why should you terminate coaxial cable with connectors that are rated for the exact cable type?
A) A mismatched connector will have different impedance ratings, causing data errors.
B) A mismatched connector will not fit the coaxial cable for termination.
C) A mismatched connector will work fine, but breaks cabling standards.
D) A mismatched connector will destroy the equipment it is connected to.
Q3) Noise that can degrade or distort a signal on a network is measured with what unit?
A) joules
B) volts
C) decibels
D) farads
Q4) What is a fiber distribution panel, and how is it used?
Q5) What are the different transceiver types that have made the GBIC obsolete?
Q6) How does a time domain reflectometer (TDR) work?
Q7) When tracing a wire, how do you utilize a toner and probe kit?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an 802.11 data frame, what is the size of the frame check sequence field?
A) 2 bytes
B) 4 bytes
C) 6 bytes
D) 8 bytes
Q2) The most secure Wi-Fi communication is made possible by combining a RADIUS server with WPA or WPA2, known as WPA-Enterprise or WPA2-Enterprise, respectively.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN) is defined in the 802.15 standard. A)True
B)False
Q4) How does configuration of wireless clients for wireless access in an enterprise environment differ from normal setup?
Q5) The Wi-Fi Protected Setup PIN can be easily cracked through a brute force attack. A)True
B)False
Q6) Why should the WPS PIN feature be avoided if possible?
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Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is it appropriate to utilize the NAT network connection type?
A) Only when the VM requires an IP address on the physical LAN.
B) Whenever the VM does not need to be access at a known address by other network nodes.
C) Only if the VM does not need to communicate with the host PC.
D) Only if the VM is intended for VM-to-host communications.
Q2) What statement regarding the SSH (Secure Shell) collection of protocols is accurate?
A) SSH provides a graphical view of the remote computer.
B) SSH does not protect against DNS spoofing.
C) SSH does not protect against IP spoofing.
D) SSH supports port forwarding.
Q3) What special enterprise VPN supported by Cisco devices creates VPN tunnels between branch locations as needed rather than requiring constant, static tunnels?
A) Dynamic Multipoint VPN
B) Dynamic SmartVPN
C) Symmetric VPN Autodial
D) Auto Switched VPN Service
Q4) How does public key encryption work?
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Sample Questions
Q1) By default, the native VLAN is the same as the default VLAN.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How does a DHCP relay agent allow a centrally managed DHCP server to handle assignments for multiple subnets?
Q3) Subtracting an interesting octet value from 256 yields what number?
A) network ID
B) subnet ID
C) magic number
D) host ID
Q4) A /24 CIDR block is equivalent to a 255.255.255.0 subnet mask.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In an IPv6 address, what do the first four blocks or 64 bits of the address represent?
A) The usable host portion of the network.
B) The site prefix or global routing prefix.
C) The broadcast domain for the configured host ID.
D) The MAC address of the router assigning the host ID.
Q6) What is a Variable Length Subnet Mask (VLSM), and how is it created?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which command can be used on a Windows system to create a hash of a file?
A) md5
B) shasum
C) Get-FileHash
D) Compute-FileHash
Q2) What statement regarding the different versions of the SHA hashing algorithm is accurate?
A) SHA-0 is the most secure version of SHA.
B) SHA-1 supports a 128-bit hash function.
C) SHA-2 only supports a 256-bit hash.
D) SHA-2 and SHA-3 both support the same hash lengths.
Q3) What penetration testing tool combines known scanning and exploit techniques to explore potentially new attack routes?
A) Nessus
B) metasploit
C) nmap
D) Sub7
Q4) List and describe the four different locations in which anti-malware can be installed.
Q5) How is an acceptable use policy typically used?
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Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the TACACS+ AAA protocol, and detail how it differs from RADIUS.
Q2) What is multifactor authentication, and what are some examples?
Q3) Which protocol designed to replace STP operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model?
A) Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
B) Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links (TRILL)
C) Shortest Path Bridging (SPB)
D) Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
Q4) Of the three methods of access control (RBAC, DAC, and MAC), RBAC is the least secure of the options.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In regards to the use of local authentication, what statement is accurate?
A) Local authentication provides the most security.
B) Local authentication is scalable for large networks.
C) Local authentication is network and server failure tolerant.
D) Local authentication does not allow for strong enough passwords.
Q6) How does the CCMP help ensure data confidentiality?
Q7) What are the three components required to manage access control to a network and its resources?
Q8) How does a reverse proxy differ from a normal proxy?
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Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Packets that are smaller than a medium's minimum packet size are known by what term below?
A) jabbers
B) giants
C) ghosts
D) runts
Q2) Wireshark or any other monitoring software running on a single computer connected to a switch doesn't see all the traffic on a network, but only the traffic the switch sends to it, which includes broadcast traffic and traffic specifically addressed to the computer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In response to an incident, how should chain of custody of evidence be handled?
Q4) The creation of a response team should include what team roles?
Q5) Once a device has failed, what metric measures the average amount of time to repair?
A) mean time to repair (MTTR)
B) mean time to restore (MTTR)
C) mean field replacement time (MFRT)
D) mean restoration time (MRT)
13
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Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although MPLS can operate over Ethernet frames, it is more often used with other Layer 2 protocols, like those designed for WANs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many transponders are contained within a typical satellite?
A) 8 to 16
B) 16 to 24
C) 24 to 32
D) 32 to 48
Q3) What OC level is primarily used as a regional ISP backbone, and occasionally by very large hospitals, universities, or other major enterprises?
A) OC-3
B) OC-12
C) OC-48
D) OC-96
Q4) Describe the HSPA+ (High Speed Packet Access Plus) and LTE (Long Term Evolution) cellular networking technologies.
Q5) What is the difference between a DTE and a DCE?
Q6) All ISDN connections were based on what two different types of channels?
Page 14
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