Network Administration Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Network Administration explores the foundational principles and practical skills necessary to manage and maintain computer networks in organizational environments. The course covers topics such as network hardware and software installation, configuration and management of servers, network protocols, security practices, troubleshooting techniques, and the deployment of various network services. Emphasis is placed on real-world scenarios to develop problem-solving abilities, ensure reliable connectivity, and apply best practices for network security and performance optimization. By the end of the course, students will be equipped to administer and support networks, making them vital assets in any IT infrastructure.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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12 Chapters
600 Verified Questions
600 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/183
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2566
Sample Questions
Q1) Servers that have a NOS installed require less memory, processing power, and storage capacity than clients because servers are called on to handle only light processing loads and requests from multiple clients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) What mail protocol is used to send mail messages to a server?
A) POP3
B) IMAP4
C) SMTP
D) HTTPS
Answer: C
Q3) What federal agency is charged with safety and health in the workplace?
A) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
B) Workplace Safety and Hazard Administration (WSHA)
C) Office Safety and Standards Department (OSSD)
D) Hazardous Materials and Safety Management (HMSM)
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2567
Sample Questions
Q1) In a rack setup, a device called a KVM allows multiple consoles to connect to a single device on the rack.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A dedicated telephone switch or virtual switching device that connects and manages calls within a private organization, and manages call connections that exit the network through a VoIP gateway, is known by what term?
A) VoIP router
B) VoIP PBX (private branch exchange)
C) VoIP LEC (local exchange carrier)
D) VoIP ATB (analog telephone branch)
Answer: B
Q3) The process of designing, implementing, and maintaining an entire network is called the system life cycle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following protocols is used as a signaling protocol for the initial connection between hosts, but does not participate in data transfer during the session?
A) NTP
B) LDAP
C) TFTP
D) SIP
Answer: D
Q2) What is the difference between a port and a socket?
Answer: A port is a number assigned to a process, such as an application or a service, that can receive data. Whereas an IP address is used to find a computer, a port is used to find a process running on that computer. TCP and UDP ports ensure that data is transmitted to the correct process among multiple processes running on the computer. A socket consists of both a host's IP address and a process's TCP or UDP port, with a colon separating the two values. For example, the standard port for the Telnet service is TCP 23. If a host has an IP address of 10.43.3.87, the socket address for Telnet running on that host is 10.43.3.87:23.
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Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the event of a duplicate MAC address shared by two hosts on a switched network, what statement is accurate?
A) The hosts that share the same MAC addresses will be completely unable to communicate with any other devices.
B) The hosts will generate new MAC addresses until the conflict is resolved.
C) The hosts will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination.
D) The network switch will eventually crash due to being unable to properly forward traffic.
Q2) What is routing protocol convergence time defined as?
A) It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize the best path in the event of a network change.
B) It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize that a change has occurred.
C) It is the amount of time it takes after initial configuration of the protocol for all routes to become known.
D) It is the amount of time involved in configuration of the routing protocol.
Q3) What is MAC address spoofing?
Q4) How is the TTL (Time to Live) field utilized in IPv4?
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A short circuit is one where needed connections are missing, such as when a wire breaks.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When tracing a wire, how do you utilize a toner and probe kit?
Q3) What is the fastest Ethernet standard that can possibly be used on twisted-pair cabling?
A) 100Base-T
B) 1000Base-T
C) 10GBase-T
D) 10TBase-T
Q4) Multimode fiber contains a core that is larger than a single mode fiber core.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the different transceiver types that have made the GBIC obsolete?
Q6) PoE+ devices are defined by what IEEE standard?
A) 802.3at
B) 802.3af
C) 802.3fc
D) 802.3c
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Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding the 802.11ac standard is NOT accurate?
A) The standard was officially approved in early 2014.
B) 802.11ac access points function more like a hub than a switch.
C) 802.11ac access points can handle multiple transmissions at one time over the same frequency.
D) 802.11ac operates on the 5-GHz band.
Q2) You are troubleshooting a client's wireless networking issue. Which of the following will prevent the client from connecting to the network?
A) The client has a wireless profile configured for the "campus" SSID, but the access point is broadcasting the "CAMPUS" SSID.
B) The client is using an 802.11n wireless adapter, but the access point only supports up to 802.11g.
C) The client is using a network adapter with outdated firmware.
D) The client is only able to get line of sight with an omnidirectional antenna.
Q3) When deciding antenna types, why might the use of an omnidirectional antenna be inadvisable?
Q4) Why should the WPS PIN feature be avoided if possible?
Q5) What is the difference between war driving and war chalking?
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Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe a space that is rented at a data center facility by a service provider?
A) point of presence (PoP)
B) service location (SL)
C) central service point (CSP)
D) locally exchanged data point (ledp)
Q2) In a software defined network, what is responsible for controlling the flow of data?
A) flow director
B) vRouter
C) SDN controller
D) SDN switch
Q3) A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at what layer of the OSI model?
A) Layer 1
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 4
D) Layer 7
Q4) What two different types of encryption can be utilized with IPsec?
Q5) What is the difference between a virtual firewall and a software firewall?
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Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What command will set the native VLAN on a Juniper switch port?
A) switchport trunk native vlan
B) switchport set native vlan
C) config native vlan
D) set native-vlan-id
Q2) You have been tasked with the creation and design of a network that must support a minimum of 5000 hosts. Which network accomplishes this goal?
A) 10.3.0.0/19
B) 172.20.50.0/23
C) 192.168.0.0/20
D) 10.90.0.0/22
Q3) How does a DHCP relay agent allow a centrally managed DHCP server to handle assignments for multiple subnets?
Q4) What are some common configuration errors that can occur when configuring VLANs?
Q5) A subnet of 255.255.248.0 can be represented by what CIDR notation?
A) /18
B) /20
C) /21
D) /29
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If someone is offered a free gift or service in exchange for private information or access to a computer system, what type of social engineering is taking place?
A) phishing
B) baiting
C) quid pro quo
D) tailgating
Q2) In the typical social engineering attack cycle, what occurs at Phase 3?
A) The attacker researches the desired target for clues as to vulnerabilities.
B) The attacker builds trust with the target and attempts to gain more information.
C) The attacker exploits an action undertaken by the victim in order to gain access.
D) The attacker executes an exit strategy in such a way that does not leave evidence or raise suspicion.
Q3) Different types of organizations have similar levels of network security risks.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is vulnerability scanning, and what are the two different types of vulnerability scans?
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11
Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The supplicant is an EAP entity responsible for requesting authentication, such as a smartphone or laptop.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Spanning Tree Protocol operates at the Network layer of the OSI model.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A stateless firewall inspects each incoming packet to determine whether it belongs to a currently active connection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How does the Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) function?
Q5) If your LAN utilizes a proxy server, and you wish to send an email message from your workstation inside the LAN to a colleague via the Internet, what does this process look like?
Q6) What is the difference between an Intrusion Detection System and an Intrusion Protection System?
Q7) What is multifactor authentication, and what are some examples?
Q8) How does the CCMP help ensure data confidentiality?
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Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Setting a NIC to run in promiscuous mode will allow it to see all network traffic passing through a network switch.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Class of Service utilizes 8 levels of priority, and modifies the PCP field in an 802.1Q tag.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A system with an availability of 99.999% can be down for a maximum of 52 minutes per year.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The grouping of multiple servers so that they appear as a single device to the rest of the network is known as which term?
A) load balancing
B) clustering
C) link aggregating
D) server overloading
Q5) What are the different types of power flaws that can cause damage?
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Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) is an open standard that is accepted and used worldwide.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The NIU (network interface unit) or NID (network interface device) at the ISP's demarc serves what purpose?
Q3) How does a LAN connection differ from a WAN connection?
Q4) How is ATM able to guarantee a specific QoS for certain types of transmissions?
Q5) The Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) utilizes what technology to create timeslots on a channel?
A) frequency division multiplexing (FDM)
B) wavelength division multiplexing (WDM)
C) dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)
D) time division multiple access (TDMA)
Q6) What is the size of an ATM cell, including the header?
A) 48 bytes
B) 53 bytes
C) 64 bytes
D) 84 bytes
Q7) List and describe the four different generations of cellular technology.
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