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Neonatal Nursing is a specialized course that focuses on the care of newborn infants, particularly those who are premature, ill, or require special medical attention during the first weeks of life. The course covers essential topics such as neonatal physiology, common health conditions affecting neonates, family-centered care, and advanced nursing interventions in neonatal intensive care units (NICUs). Students will learn to assess, monitor, and support newborns physiological and psychological needs, collaborate with interdisciplinary healthcare teams, and educate parents on neonatal health and development. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practices, ethical considerations, and the use of modern technology in neonatal care.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing Care 6th Edition by Shannon E. Perry
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49 Chapters
1708 Verified Questions
1708 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1706 Page 2
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 23-year-old African-American woman is pregnant with her first child.Based on the statistics for infant mortality,which plan is most important for the nurse to implement?
A) Perform a nutrition assessment.
B) Refer the woman to a social worker.
C) Advise the woman to see an obstetrician, not a midwife.
D) Explain to the woman the importance of keeping her prenatal care appointments.
Answer: D
Q2) From the nurse's perspective,what measure should be the focus of the health care system to reduce the rate of infant mortality further?
A) Implementing programs to ensure women's early participation in ongoing prenatal care.
B) Increasing the length of stay in a hospital after vaginal birth from 2 to 3 days.
C) Expanding the number of neonatal intensive care units (NICUs).
D) Mandating that all pregnant women receive care from an obstetrician.
Answer: A
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Q1) In which culture is the father more likely to be expected to participate in the labor and delivery?
A) Asian-American
B) African-American
C) European-American
D) Hispanic
Answer: C
Q2) Step One
A)Introduce yourself to the interpreter and converse informally.
B)Outline your statements and questions, listing the key pieces of information you need to know.
C)Make sure the interpreter is comfortable with technical terms.
D)Learn something about the culture of the patient.
E)Make notes on what you learned for future reference.
F)Stop every now and then and ask the interpreter "How is it going?"
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The body part that both protects the pelvic structures and accommodates the growing fetus during pregnancy is the:
A) perineum.
B) bony pelvis.
C) vaginal vestibule.
D) fourchette.
Answer: B
Q2) Primary series of three injections.
A)Tetanus-diphtheria-pertussis (Tdap)
B)Measles, mumps, rubella
C)Herpes Zoster
D)Hepatitis B
E)Influenza
F)Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) While interviewing a 31-year-old woman before her routine gynecologic examination,the nurse collects data about the patient's recent menstrual cycles.The nurse should collect additional information associated with which patient statement?
A) The woman says her menstrual flow lasts 5 to 6 days.
B) She describes her flow as very heavy.
C) She reports that she has had a small amount of spotting midway between her periods for the past 2 months.
D) She says the length of her menstrual cycle varies from 26 to 29 days.
Q2) Valerian,wild yam
A)Uterine antispasmodic
B)Uterotonic
C)Anti-inflammatory
D)Estrogen-like luteinizing hormone suppressant
E)Decreases prolactin levels
Q3) The drug of choice for treatment of gonorrhea is:
A) penicillin G.
B) tetracycline.
C) ceftriaxone.
D) acyclovir.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male patient asks the nurse why it is better to purchase condoms that are not lubricated with nonoxynol-9 (a common spermicide).The nurse's most appropriate response is:
A) "The lubricant prevents vaginal irritation."
B) "It has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus."
C) "The additional lubrication improves sex."
D) "Nonoxynol-9 improves penile sensitivity."
Q2) A woman is using the basal body temperature (BBT)method of contraception.She calls the clinic and tells the nurse,"My period is due in a few days,and my temperature has not gone up." The nurse's most appropriate response is:
A) "This probably means that you're pregnant."
B) "Don't worry; it's probably nothing."
C) "Have you been sick this month?"
D) "You probably didn't ovulate during this cycle."
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Q1) A new mother asks the nurse about the "white substance" covering her infant.The nurse explains that the purpose of vernix caseosa is to:
A) protect the fetal skin from amniotic fluid.
B) promote normal peripheral nervous system development.
C) allow transport of oxygen and nutrients across the amnion.
D) regulate fetal temperature.
Q2) The _____ is/are responsible for oxygen and carbon dioxide transport to and from the maternal bloodstream.
A) decidua basalis
B) blastocyst
C) germ layer
D) chorionic villi
Q3) The nurse must be cognizant that an individual's genetic makeup is known as his or her:
A) genotype.
B) phenotype.
C) karyotype.
D) chromotype.
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Q1) A woman is 6 weeks pregnant.She had a previous spontaneous abortion at 14 weeks of gestation and a pregnancy that ended at 38 weeks with the birth of a stillborn girl.What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system?
Q2) To reassure and educate their pregnant patients about changes in their blood pressure,maternity nurses should be aware that:
A) a blood pressure cuff that is too small produces a reading that is too low; a cuff that is too large produces a reading that is too high.
B) shifting the patient's position and changing from arm to arm for different measurements produces the most accurate composite blood pressure reading at each visit.
C) the systolic blood pressure increases slightly as pregnancy advances; the diastolic pressure remains constant.
D) compression of the iliac veins and inferior vena cava by the uterus contributes to hemorrhoids in the later stage of term pregnancy.
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Q1) While teaching the expectant mother about personal hygiene during pregnancy,maternity nurses should be aware that:
A) tub bathing is permitted even in late pregnancy unless membranes have ruptured.
B) the perineum should be wiped from back to front.
C) bubble bath and bath oils are permissible because they add an extra soothing and cleansing action to the bath.
D) expectant mothers should use specially treated soap to cleanse the nipples.
Q2) A woman arrives at the clinic for a pregnancy test.The first day of her last menstrual period (LMP)was September 10,2013.Her expected date of birth (EDB)would be?
Q3) Which behavior indicates that a woman is "seeking safe passage" for herself and her infant?
A) She keeps all prenatal appointments.
B) She "eats for two."
C) She drives her car slowly.
D) She wears only low-heeled shoes.
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Q1) Nutrition is one of the most significant factors influencing the outcome of a pregnancy.It is an alterable and important preventive measure for various potential problems,such as low birth weight and prematurity.While completing the physical assessment of the pregnant patient,the nurse can evaluate the patient's nutritional status by observing a number of physical signs.Which sign would indicate that the patient has unmet nutritional needs?
A) Normal heart rate, rhythm, and blood pressure
B) Bright, clear, shiny eyes
C) Alert, responsive, and good endurance
D) Edema, tender calves, and tingling
Q2) Most women with uncomplicated pregnancies can use the nurse as their primary source for nutritional information.The nurse or midwife should refer a patient to a registered dietitian for in-depth nutritional counseling in the following situations: (Select all that apply.)
A) preexisting or gestational illness such as diabetes.
B) ethnic or cultural food patterns.
C) obesity.
D) vegetarian diet.
E) allergy to tree nuts.
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Q1) In comparing the abdominal and transvaginal methods of ultrasound examination,nurses should explain to their patients that:
A) both require the woman to have a full bladder.
B) the abdominal examination is more useful in the first trimester.
C) initially the transvaginal examination can be painful.
D) the transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.
Q2) In the first trimester,ultrasonography can be used to gain information on:
A) amniotic fluid volume.
B) location of gestational sacs.
C) placental location and maturity.
D) cervical length.
Q3) The nurse recognizes that a nonstress test (NST)in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR)accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period is:
A) nonreactive.
B) positive.
C) negative.
D) reactive.
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Q1) Nursing intervention for the pregnant diabetic patient is based on the knowledge that the need for insulin:
A) increases throughout pregnancy and the after birth period.
B) decreases throughout pregnancy and the after birth period.
C) varies depending on the stage of gestation.
D) should not change because the fetus produces its own insulin.
Q2) Maternal phenylketonuria (PKU)is an important health concern during pregnancy because:
A) it is a recognized cause of preterm labor.
B) the fetus may develop neurologic problems.
C) a pregnant woman is more likely to die without dietary control.
D) women with PKU are usually retarded and should not reproduce.
Q3) A new mother with which of these thyroid disorders would be strongly discouraged from breastfeeding?
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Phenylketonuria (PKU)
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Thyroid storm
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Q1) Decreased placental perfusion in supine position
A)Increased oxygen consumption
B)Increased heart rate
C)Decreased gastric motility
D)Displacement of abdominal viscera
E)Increase in clotting factors
Q2) Because pregnant women may need surgery during pregnancy,nurses should be aware that:
A) the diagnosis of appendicitis may be difficult because the normal signs and symptoms mimic some normal changes in pregnancy.
B) rupture of the appendix is less likely in pregnant women because of the close monitoring.
C) surgery for intestinal obstructions should be delayed as long as possible because it usually affects the pregnancy.
D) when pregnancy takes over, a woman is less likely to have ovarian problems that require invasive responses.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four
A)Flexion
B)Internal rotation
C)External rotation
D)Expulsion
E)Engagement
F)Descent
G)Extension
Q2) To teach patients about the process of labor adequately,the nurse knows that which event is the best indicator of true labor?
A) Bloody show
B) Cervical dilation and effacement
C) Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet
D) Uterine contractions every 7 minutes
Q3) Signs that precede labor include: (Select all that apply.)
A) lightening.
B) exhaustion.
C) bloody show.
D) rupture of membranes.
E) decreased fetal movement.
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Q1) Nurses should be aware of the differences experience can make in labor pain such as:
A) sensory pain for nulliparous women often is greater than for multiparous women during early labor.
B) affective pain for nulliparous women usually is less than for multiparous women throughout the first stage of labor.
C) women with a history of substance abuse experience more pain during labor.
D) multiparous women have more fatigue from labor and therefore experience more pain.
Q2) The role of the nurse with regard to informed consent is to:
A) inform the patient about the procedure and have her sign the consent form.
B) act as a patient advocate and help clarify the procedure and the options.
C) call the physician to see the patient.
D) witness the signing of the consent form.
Q3) Reduced length of labor,increased satisfaction of pain relief.
A)Walking
B)Massage
C)Acupuncture
D)Water immersion
E)Aromatherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peaking at 40 to 70 mm Hg in the first stage of labor.
A)Frequency
B)Duration
C)Strength
D)Resting tone
E)Relaxation time
Q2) As a perinatal nurse you realize that a fetal heart rate that is tachycardic,is bradycardic,or has late decelerations or loss of variability is nonreassuring and is associated with:
A) hypotension.
B) cord compression.
C) maternal drug use.
D) hypoxemia.
Q3) The nurse providing care for the laboring woman realizes that variable fetal heart rate (FHR)decelerations are caused by:
A) altered fetal cerebral blood flow.
B) umbilical cord compression.
C) uteroplacental insufficiency.
D) fetal hypoxemia.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Concerning the third stage of labor,nurses should be aware that:
A) the placenta eventually detaches itself from a flaccid uterus.
B) an expectant or active approach to managing this stage of labor reduces the risk of complications.
C) it is important that the dark, roughened maternal surface of the placenta appear before the shiny fetal surface.
D) the major risk for women during the third stage is a rapid heart rate.
Q2) Which description of the phases of the second stage of labor is accurate?
A) Latent phase: Feeling sleepy, fetal station 2+ to 4+, duration 30 to 45 minutes
B) Active phase: Overwhelmingly strong contractions, Ferguson reflux activated, duration 5 to 15 minutes
C) Descent phase: Significant increase in contractions, Ferguson reflux activated, average duration varied
D) Transitional phase: Woman "laboring down," fetal station 0, duration 15 minutes
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Q1) While caring for the patient who requires an induction of labor,the nurse should be cognizant that:
A) ripening the cervix usually results in a decreased success rate for induction.
B) labor sometimes can be induced with balloon catheters or laminaria tents.
C) oxytocin is less expensive than prostaglandins and more effective but creates greater health risks.
D) amniotomy can be used to make the cervix more favorable for labor.
Q2) Prepidil (prostaglandin gel)has been ordered for a pregnant woman at 43 weeks of gestation.The nurse recognizes that this medication will be administered to:
A) enhance uteroplacental perfusion in an aging placenta.
B) increase amniotic fluid volume.
C) ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction.
D) stimulate the amniotic membranes to rupture.
Q3) The least common cause of long,difficult,or abnormal labor (dystocia)is:
A) midplane contracture of the pelvis.
B) compromised bearing-down efforts as a result of pain medication.
C) disproportion of the pelvis.
D) low-lying placenta.
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Q1) Unusually high epidural or spinal block
A)Elevated temperature within the first 24 hours
B)Rapid pulse
C)Elevated temperature at 36 hours after birth
D)Hypertension
E)Hypoventilation
Q2) With regard to the after birth uterus,nurses should be aware that:
A) at the end of the third stage of labor it weighs approximately 500 g.
B) after 2 weeks after birth it should not be palpable abdominally.
C) after 2 weeks after birth it weighs 100 g.
D) it returns to its original (prepregnancy) size by 6 weeks after birth.
Q3) Which condition,not uncommon in pregnancy,is likely to require careful medical assessment during the puerperium?
A) Varicosities of the legs
B) Carpal tunnel syndrome
C) Periodic numbness and tingling of the fingers
D) Headaches
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Q1) Under the Newborns' and Mothers' Health Protection Act,all health plans are required to allow new mothers and newborns to remain in the hospital for a minimum of _____ hours after a normal vaginal birth and for _____ hours after a cesarean birth.
A) 24, 73
B) 24, 96
C) 48, 96
D) 48, 120
Q2) In the recovery room,if a woman is asked either to raise her legs (knees extended)off the bed or to flex her knees,place her feet flat on the bed,and raise her buttocks well off the bed,most likely she is being tested to see whether she:
A) has recovered from epidural or spinal anesthesia.
B) has hidden bleeding underneath her.
C) has regained some flexibility.
D) is a candidate to go home after 6 hours.
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Q1) During a phone follow-up conversation with a woman who is 4 days' after birth,the woman tells the nurse,"I don't know what's wrong.I love my son,but I feel so let down.I seem to cry for no reason!" The nurse would recognize that the woman is experiencing:
A) taking-in.
B) postpartum depression (PPD).
C) postpartum (PP) blues.
D) attachment difficulty.
Q2) The mother-baby nurse is able to recognize reciprocal attachment behavior.This refers to:
A) the positive feedback an infant exhibits toward parents during the attachment process.
B) behavior during the sensitive period when the infant is in the quiet alert stage.
C) unidirectional behavior exhibited by the infant, initiated and enhanced by eye contact.
D) behavior by the infant during the sensitive period to elicit feelings of "falling in love" from the parents.
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Q1) Anxiety disorders are the most common mental disorders that affect women.While providing care to the maternity patient,the nurse should be aware that one of these disorders is likely to be triggered by the process of labor and birth.This disorder is:
A) phobias.
B) panic disorder.
C) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).
Q2) A woman who has recently given birth complains of pain and tenderness in her leg.On physical examination the nurse notices warmth and redness over an enlarged,hardened area.The nurse should suspect __________ and should confirm the diagnosis by ___________.
A) disseminated intravascular coagulation; asking for laboratory tests
B) von Willebrand disease; noting whether bleeding times have been extended
C) thrombophlebitis; using real-time and color Doppler ultrasound
D) coagulopathies; drawing blood for laboratory analysis
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Q1) How the infant responds when aroused
A)Habituation
B)Orientation
C)Range of state
D)Autonomic stability
E)Regulation of state
Q2) Ability to attend to visual and auditory stimuli while alert
A)Habituation
B)Orientation
C)Range of state
D)Autonomic stability
E)Regulation of state
Q3) Which statement describing physiologic jaundice is incorrect?
A) Neonatal jaundice is common, but kernicterus is rare.
B) The appearance of jaundice during the first 24 hours or beyond day 7 indicates a pathologic process.
C) Because jaundice may not appear before discharge, parents need instruction on how to assess it and when to call for medical help.
D) Breastfed babies have a lower incidence of jaundice.
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Q1) At 1 minute after birth,the nurse assesses the infant and notes a heart rate of 80 beats/min,some flexion of the extremities,a weak cry,grimacing,and a pink body with blue extremities.The nurse would calculate an Apgar score of ________.
Q2) A newborn is jaundiced and receiving phototherapy via ultraviolet bank lights.An appropriate nursing intervention when caring for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia and receiving phototherapy by this method would be to:
A) apply an oil-based lotion to the newborn's skin to prevent dying and cracking.
B) limit the newborn's intake of milk to prevent nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
C) place eye shields over the newborn's closed eyes.
D) change the newborn's position every 4 hours.
Q3) Early this morning,an infant boy was circumcised using the PlastiBell method.The nurse tells the mother that she and the infant can be discharged after:
A) the bleeding stops completely.
B) yellow exudate forms over the glans.
C) the PlastiBell rim falls off.
D) the infant voids.
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Q1) Examples of appropriate techniques to wake a sleepy infant for breastfeeding include: (Select all that apply.)
A) unwrapping the infant.
B) changing the diaper.
C) talking to the infant.
D) slapping the infant's hands and feet.
E) applying a cold towel to the infant's abdomen.
Q2) The nurse is discussing storage of breast milk with a mother whose infant is preterm and in the special care unit.What statement would indicate that the mother needs additional teaching?
A) "I can store my breast milk in the refrigerator for 3 months."
B) "I can store my breast milk in the freezer for 3 months."
C) "I can store my breast milk at room temperature for 8 hours."
D) "I can store my breast milk in the refrigerator for 3 to 5 days."
Q3) To initiate the milk ejection reflex (MER),the mother should be advised to:
A) wear a firm-fitting bra.
B) drink plenty of fluids.
C) place the infant to the breast.
D) apply cool packs to her breast.
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Q1) A pregnant woman at 37 weeks of gestation has had ruptured membranes for 26 hours.A cesarean section is performed for failure to progress.The fetal heart rate (FHR)before birth is 180 beats/min with limited variability.At birth the newborn has Apgar scores of 6 and 7 at 1 and 5 minutes and is noted to be pale and tachypneic.On the basis of the maternal history,the cause of this newborn's distress is most likely to be:
A) hypoglycemia.
B) phrenic nerve injury.
C) respiratory distress syndrome.
D) sepsis.
Q2) When assessing the preterm infant the nurse understands that compared with the term infant,the preterm infant has:
A) few blood vessels visible through the skin.
B) more subcutaneous fat.
C) well-developed flexor muscles.
D) greater surface area in proportion to weight.
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Q1) From a worldwide perspective,infant mortality in the United States:
A) is the highest of the other developed nations.
B) lags behind five other developed nations.
C) is the lowest infant death rate of developed nations.
D) lags behind most other developed nations.
Q2) The major cause of death for children older than 1 year is:
A) cancer.
B) infection.
C) unintentional injuries.
D) congenital abnormalities.
Q3) The nurse is preparing staff in-service education about atraumatic care for pediatric patients.Which intervention should the nurse include?
A) Prepare the child for separation from parents during hospitalization by reviewing a video.
B) Prepare the child before any unfamiliar treatment or procedure by demonstrating on a stuffed animal.
C) Help the child accept the loss of control associated with hospitalization.
D) Help the child accept pain that is connected with a treatment or procedure.
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Q1) In which cultural group is good health considered to be a balance between yin and yang?
A) Asians
B) Australian aborigines
C) Native Americans
D) African-Americans
Q2) A Chinese toddler has pneumonia.The nurse notices that the parent consistently feeds the child only the broth that comes on the clear liquid tray.Food items such as Jell-O,Popsicles,and juices are left.What would best explain this?
A) The parent is trying to feed child only what child likes most.
B) The parent is trying to restore normal balance through appropriate "hot" remedies.
C) Hispanics believe that the "evil eye" enters when a person gets cold.
D) Hispanics believe that an innate energy called chi is strengthened by eating soup.
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Q1) Lymphoid tissues in children such as lymph nodes are:
A) adult size by age 1 year.
B) adult size by age 13 years.
C) half their adult size by age 5 years.
D) twice their adult size by age 10 to 12 years.
Q2) A 13-year-old girl asks the nurse how much taller she will become.She has been growing about 2 inches per year but grew 4 inches this past year.Menarche recently occurred.The nurse should base her response on knowing that:
A) growth cannot be predicted.
B) the pubertal growth spurt lasts about 1 year.
C) mature height is achieved when menarche occurs.
D) approximately 95% of mature height is achieved when menarche occurs.
Q3) Step 4
A)Crawl
B)Creep
C)Stand
D)Walk
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Q1) What type of breath sound is normally heard over the entire surface of the lungs,except for the upper intrascapular area and the area beneath the manubrium?
A) Vesicular
B) Bronchial
C) Adventitious
D) Bronchovesicular
Q2) The nurse has a 2-year-old boy sit in "tailor" position during palpation for the testes.The rationale for this position is that:
A) it prevents cremasteric reflex.
B) undescended testes can be palpated.
C) this tests the child for an inguinal hernia.
D) the child does not yet have a need for privacy.
Q3) Kimberly is having a checkup before starting kindergarten.The nurse asks her to do the "finger-to-nose" test.The nurse is testing for:
A) deep tendon reflexes.
B) cerebellar function.
C) sensory discrimination.
D) ability to follow directions.
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Q1) The nurse is monitoring a patient for side effects associated with opioid analgesics.Which side effects should the nurse expect to monitor for? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diarrhea
B) Respiratory depression
C) Hypertension
D) Pruritus
E) Sweating
Q2) An appropriate tool to assess pain in a 3-year-old child is the: (Select all that apply.)
A) Visual Analog Scale (VAS)
B) Adolescent and pediatric pain tool
C) Oucher tool
D) FACES pain-rating scale
Q3) A dose of oxycodone (OxyContin)2 mg/kg has been ordered for a child weighing 33 lbs.The nurse should administer ______ mg of OxyContin.(Record your answer as a whole number.)
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Q1) According to Piaget,the 6-month-old infant would be in what stage of the sensorimotor phase?
A) Use of reflexes
B) Primary circular reactions
C) Secondary circular reactions
D) Coordination of secondary schemata
Q2) A nurse is teaching parents about prevention and treatment of colic.Which should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) Avoid use of pacifiers.
B) Eliminate all secondhand smoke contact.
C) Lay infant flat after feeding.
D) Avoid swaddling the infant.
Q3) The nurse assessing a 6-month-old healthy infant who weighed 7 lbs at birth,shares with the parents that the infant should weigh approximately how many pounds?
A) 10 lbs.
B) 15 lbs.
C) 20 lbs.
D) 25 lbs.
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Q1) What is the leading cause of death during the toddler period?
A) Injuries
B) Infectious diseases
C) Congenital disorders
D) Childhood diseases
Q2) Motor vehicle injuries are a significant threat to young children.Knowing this,the nurse plans a teaching session with a toddler's parents on car safety.Which will she teach? (Select all that apply.)
A) Secure in a rear-facing, upright, car safety seat.
B) Place the car safety seat in the rear seat, behind the driver's seat.
C) Harness safety straps should be fit snugly.
D) Place the car safety seat in the front passenger seat equipped with an air bag.
E) After the age of 2 years, toddlers can be placed in a forward-facing car seat.
Q3) Which statement about toilet training is correct?
A) Bladder training is usually accomplished before bowel training.
B) Wanting to please the parent helps motivate the child to use the toilet.
C) Watching older siblings use the toilet confuses the child.
D) Children must be forced to sit on the toilet when first learning.
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Q1) A 4-year-old child tells the nurse,"I do not want another blood sample drawn because I need all my insides,and I do not want anyone taking them out." Which is the nurse's best interpretation of this statement?
A) Child is being overly dramatic.
B) Child has a disturbed body image.
C) Preschoolers have poorly defined body boundaries.
D) Preschoolers normally have a good understanding of their bodies.
Q2) When is a child with chickenpox considered to be no longer contagious?
A) When fever is absent
B) When lesions are crusted
C) 24 hours after lesions erupt
D) 8 days after onset of illness
Q3) Which accomplishment would the nurse expect of a healthy 3-year-old child?
A) Jump rope
B) Ride a two-wheel bicycle
C) Skip on alternate feet
D) Balance on one foot for a few seconds
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Q1) A child has an avulsed (knocked-out)tooth.In which medium should the nurse instruct the parents to place the tooth for transport to the dentist?
A) Cold milk
B) Cold water
C) Warm salt water
D) A dry, clean jar
Q2) What is an important consideration for the school nurse who is planning a class on bicycle safety to consider?
A) Most bicycle injuries involve collision with an automobile.
B) Head injuries are the major causes of bicycle-related fatalities.
C) Children should wear bicycle helmets if they ride on paved streets.
D) Children should not ride double unless the bicycle has an extra-large seat.
Q3) Identify the statement that is the most accurate about moral development in the 9-year-old school-age child.
A) Right and wrong are based on physical consequences of behavior.
B) The child obeys parents because of fear of punishment.
C) The school-age child conforms to rules to please others.
D) Parents are the determiners of right and wrong for the school-age child.
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Q1) A nurse is caring for an adolescent hospitalized for cellulitis.The nurse notes that the adolescent experiences many "mood swings" throughout the day.The nurse interprets this behavior as:
A) requiring a referral to a mental health counselor.
B) requiring some further laboratory testing.
C) normal behavior.
D) related to feelings of depression.
Q2) In girls,what is the initial indication of puberty?
A) Menarche
B) Growth spurt
C) Growth of pubic hair
D) Breast development
Q3) How may anorexia nervosa best be described?
A) Occurring most frequently in adolescent males.
B) Occurring most frequently in adolescents from lower socioeconomic groups.
C) Resulting from a posterior pituitary disorder.
D) Resulting in severe weight loss in the absence of obvious physical causes.
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Q1) Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention to promote normalization in a school-age child with a chronic illness?
A) Give child as much control as possible.
B) Ask child's peer to make child feel normal.
C) Convince child that nothing is wrong with him or her.
D) Explain to parents that family rules for the child do not need to be the same as for healthy siblings.
Q2) What should the nurse identify as major fears in the school-age child who is hospitalized with a chronic illness? (Select all that apply.)
A) Altered body image
B) Separation from peer group
C) Bodily injury
D) Mutilation
E) Being left alone
Q3) Which is the most descriptive of a school-age child's reaction to death?
A) Is very interested in funerals and burials
B) Has little understanding of words such as forever
C) Imagines the deceased person to be still alive
D) Has an idealistic view of the world and criticizes funerals as barbaric
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Q1) A child with autism is hospitalized with asthma.The nurse should plan care so that the:
A) parents' expectations are met.
B) child's routine habits and preferences are maintained.
C) child is supported through the autistic crisis.
D) parents need not be at the hospital.
Q2) What should the nurse keep in mind when planning to communicate with a child who is diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?
A) The child has normal verbal communication.
B) The child is expected to use sign language.
C) The child may exhibit monotone speech and echolalia.
D) The child is not listening if he/she is not looking at the nurse.
Q3) Which teaching guideline helps prevent eye injuries during sports and play activities?
A) Restrict helmet use to those who wear eyeglasses or contact lenses.
B) Discourage the use of goggles with helmets.
C) Wear eye protection when participating in high risk sports such as paintball.
D) Wear a face mask when playing any sport or playing roughly.
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Q1) The nurse needs to take a blood pressure on the child playing in the playroom.Which is the appropriate procedure for obtaining the blood pressure?
A) Take the blood pressure in the playroom.
B) Ask the child to come to the exam room to obtain the blood pressure.
C) Ask the child to return to his or her room for the blood pressure, then escort the child back to the playroom.
D) Document that the blood pressure was not obtained because the child was in the playroom.
Q2) When a preschool child is hospitalized without adequate preparation,what is the child may likely see hospitalization as?
A) Punishment
B) Threat to child's self-image
C) An opportunity for regression
D) Loss of companionship with friends
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Q1) A 6-year-old child is hospitalized for intravenous (IV)antibiotic therapy.He eats little on his "regular diet" trays.He tells the nurse that all he wants to eat is pizza,tacos,and ice cream.Which is the best nursing action?
A) Request these favorite foods for him.
B) Identify healthier food choices that he likes.
C) Explain that he needs fruits and vegetables.
D) Reward him with ice cream at the end of every meal that he eats.
Q2) What nursing action is appropriate for specimen collection?
A) Follow sterile technique for specimen collection.
B) Sterile gloves are worn if the nurse plans to touch the specimen.
C) Use Standard Precautions when handling body fluids.
D) Avoid wearing gloves in front of the child and family.
Q3) What information should the nurse include when teaching parents how to care for a child's gastrostomy tube at home?
A) Never turn the gastrostomy button.
B) Clean around the insertion site daily with soap and water.
C) Expect some leakage around the button.
D) Remove the tube for cleaning once a week.
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Q1) Which statement best describes why children have fewer respiratory tract infections as they grow older?
A) The amount of lymphoid tissue decreases.
B) Repeated exposure to organisms causes increased immunity.
C) Viral organisms are less prevalent in the population.
D) Secondary infections rarely occur after viral illnesses.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child with carbon monoxide (CO)poisoning associated with smoke inhalation.What intervention is essential in this child's care?
A) Monitor pulse oximetry
B) Monitor arterial blood gases (ABGs)
C) Administer oxygen if respiratory distress develops
D) Administer oxygen if child's lips become bright, cherry red
Q3) A child diagnosed with cystic fibrosis is prescribed recombinant human deoxyribonuclease (rhDNase).What information should be included in the medication education provided the child and family?
A) May cause mucus to thicken
B) May cause minor voice alterations
C) Is given subcutaneously
D) Is not indicated for children younger than 12 years
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Q1) A mother who intended to breastfeed has given birth to an infant with a cleft palate.Which nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
A) Giving medication to suppress lactation.
B) Encouraging and helping mother to breastfeed.
C) Teaching mother to feed breast milk by gavage.
D) Recommending use of a breast pump to maintain lactation until infant can suck.
Q2) Which type of hernia has an impaired blood supply to the herniated organ?
A) Hiatal hernia
B) Incarcerated hernia
C) Omphalocele
D) Strangulated hernia
Q3) What food choice by the parent of a 2-year-old child with celiac disease indicates a need for further teaching?
A) Oatmeal
B) Rice cake
C) Corn muffin
D) Meat patty
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Q1) What is the initial goal for the treatment of secondary hypertension?
A) Weight control and diet
B) Treating the underlying disease
C) Administration of digoxin
D) Administration of b-adrenergic receptor blockers
Q2) Which clinical changes occur as a result of septic shock?
A) Hypothermia
B) Increased cardiac output
C) Vasoconstriction
D) Angioneurotic edema
Q3) The nurse is caring for an infant diagnosed with congestive heart disease (CHD).The nurse should plan which intervention to decrease cardiac demands?
A) Organize nursing activities to allow for uninterrupted sleep
B) Allow the infant to sleep through feedings during the night
C) Wait for the infant to cry to show definite signs of hunger
D) Discourage parents from rocking the infant
Q4) Which is the acceptable mg/dL level,or below this level,low-density lipoprotein (LDL)cholesterol level for a child from a family with heart disease? _____ Record your answer as a whole number.
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Q1) What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a child diagnosed with moderate anemia?
A) Activity intolerance related to generalized weakness
B) Decreased cardiac output related to abnormal hemoglobin
C) Risk for injury related to depressed sensorium
D) Risk for Injury related to dehydration and abnormal hemoglobin
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child with aplastic anemia.Which nursing diagnoses are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
A) Acute Pain related to vaso-occlusion
B) Risk for Infection related to inadequate secondary defenses or immunosuppression
C) Ineffective Protection related to thrombocytopenia
D) Ineffective Tissue Perfusion related to anemia
E) Ineffective Protection related to abnormal clotting
Q3) What is the primary result of anemia?
A) Increased blood viscosity.
B) Depressed hematopoietic system.
C) Presence of abnormal hemoglobin.
D) Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.
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Q1) The nurse is preparing a child for possible alopecia from chemotherapy.Which intervention should be included?
A) Explain to child that hair usually regrows in 1 year.
B) Advise child to expose head to sunlight to minimize alopecia.
C) Explain to child that wearing a hat or scarf is preferable to wearing a wig.
D) Explain to child that when hair regrows, it may have a slightly different color or texture.
Q2) Which is most descriptive of the pathophysiology of leukemia?
A) Increased blood viscosity occurs.
B) Thrombocytopenia (excessive destruction of platelets) occurs.
C) Unrestricted proliferation of immature white blood cells (WBCs) occurs.
D) First stage of coagulation process is abnormally stimulated.
Q3) What is the most common clinical manifestation(s)of brain tumors in children?
A) Irritability
B) Seizures
C) Headaches and vomiting
D) Fever and poor fine motor control
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Q1) A mother asks the nurse what would be the first indication that acute glomerulonephritis is improving.The nurse's best response should be to identify which occurrence?
A) Blood pressure will stabilize.
B) Child will have more energy.
C) Urine will be free of protein.
D) Urinary output will increase.
Q2) What are the primary clinical manifestations of acute glomerulonephritis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oliguria
B) Hematuria
C) Proteinuria
D) Hypertension
E) Bacteriuria
Q3) Which diagnostic finding is present when a child has primary nephrotic syndrome?
A) Hyperalbuminemia
B) Positive ASO titer
C) Leukocytosis
D) Proteinuria
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Q1) Which term is used when a patient remains in a deep sleep,responsive only to vigorous and repeated stimulation?
A) Coma
B) Stupor
C) Obtundation
D) Persistent vegetative state
Q2) When caring for the child diagnosed with Reye's syndrome,what is the priority nursing intervention?
A) Monitor intake and output
B) Prevent skin breakdown
C) Observe for petechiae
D) Do range-of-motion (ROM) exercises
Q3) Which clinical manifestations would suggest hydrocephalus in a neonate?
A) Bulging fontanel and dilated scalp veins
B) Closed fontanel and high-pitched cry
C) Constant low-pitched cry and restlessness
D) Depressed fontanel and decreased blood pressure
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Q1) The nurse is admitting a toddler with the diagnosis of juvenile hypothyroidism.Which is a common clinical manifestation of this disorder?
A) Insomnia
B) Diarrhea
C) Dry skin
D) Accelerated growth
Q2) A neonate born with ambiguous genitalia is diagnosed with congenital adrenogenital hyperplasia.Therapeutic management includes administration of which medication?
A) Vitamin D
B) Cortisone
C) Stool softeners
D) Calcium carbonate
Q3) A parent asks the nurse why self-monitoring of blood glucose is being recommended for her child with diabetes.The nurse should base the explanation on what information?
A) It is a less expensive method of testing.
B) It is not as accurate as laboratory testing.
C) Children need to learn to manage their diabetes.
D) The parents are better able to manage the disease.
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Q1) A child is upset because,when the leg cast is removed,the skin surface is caked with desquamated skin and sebaceous secretions.What should the nurse suggest to remove this material?
A) Soak in a bathtub
B) Vigorously scrub the leg
C) Apply powder to absorb material
D) Carefully pick material off of the leg
Q2) Discharge planning for the child diagnosed with juvenile arthritis includes the need for which intervention?
A) Routine ophthalmologic examinations to assess for visual problems.
B) A low-calorie diet to decrease or control weight in the less mobile child.
C) Avoiding the use of aspirin to decrease gastric irritation.
D) Immobilizing the painful joints, which are the results of the inflammatory process.
Q3) When does idiopathic scoliosis become most noticeable?
A) Newborn period
B) When child starts to walk
C) During preadolescent growth spurt
D) Adolescence
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Q1) A young boy has just been diagnosed with pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy.The management plan should include which intervention?
A) Recommending genetic counseling
B) Explaining that the disease is easily treated
C) Suggesting ways to limit the use of muscles
D) Assisting the family in finding a nursing facility to provide his care
Q2) Which finding should cause the nurse to suspect a diagnosis of spastic cerebral palsy?
A) Tremulous movements at rest and with activity
B) Positive Babinski reflex
C) Writhing, uncontrolled, involuntary movements
D) Clumsy, uncoordinated movements
Q3) The nurse is caring for a neonate born with a myelomeningocele.Surgery to repair the defect is scheduled the next day.The most appropriate way to position and feed this neonate is to place him:
A) prone and tube feed.
B) prone, turn head to side, and nipple feed.
C) supine in infant carrier and nipple feed.
D) supine, with defect supported with rolled blankets, and nipple feed.
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