Course Introduction
Molecular Biology Test Preparation
Molecular Biology explores the structure, function, and interactions of biological macromolecules essential to life, including DNA, RNA, and proteins. The course covers the molecular mechanisms underlying processes such as DNA replication, transcription, translation, gene regulation, and genetic mutation. Students will gain a deeper understanding of how cells store, transmit, and express genetic information, and examine experimental techniques and technologies such as PCR, recombinant DNA, and gene editing that have revolutionized modern biology and medicine.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Molecular Virology 2nd Edition by Nicholas H. Acheson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Virology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses play a major role in the ecology of the ocean by doing which of the following?
A) By infecting photosynthetic bacteria and increasing their growth.
B) By infecting harmful bacteria found in the ocean and limiting their growth.
C) By killing off fish and preventing them from becoming too plentiful.
D) By lysing unicellular organisms and releasing carbon and oxygen back into the ocean.
E) All of the above statements are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) The particle to plaque ratio for most animal viruses is much greater than one.What are the reasons why not 100% of animal virus particles, as seen under the electron microscope, can productively infect cells?
Answer: Not all virus particles as seen under the electron microscope are intact virions capable of binding and entering a host cell.Some virus particles contain defective genomes that lack one or more critical genes necessary for viral replication.Some viral particles contain empty capsids, which means that there is not genome inside the virion.Finally, cells have many antiviral defense mechanisms that can shut down a virus infection before it can be completed.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Virus Structure and Assembly
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Sample Questions
Q1) The capsid of SV40 contains 360 protein copies.Why is this unusual?
A) There is only 1 kind of protein in this capsid.
B) 360 is not the correct number of protein capsids for a T = 6 capsid.
C) Six is not a mathematically allowed triangulation number.
D) The proteins have equivalent interactions.
E) The capsid is not large enough to hold the entire genome.
Answer: C
Q2) It is possible to get high resolution images of enveloped virus particles using x-ray diffraction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A scaffolding protein is important for assembly of an icosahedral capsid ..
A) but does not bind to the viral genome.
B) but does not become part of the final virion.
C) and helps to cut the genome into unit lengths.
D) and binds to the host cell receptor.
E) and assists the virion in exiting the host cell.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Virus Classification: The World of Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viroids do not require a helper virus in order to replicate and cause disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Most viruses that infect plants have the following type of genome?
A) ssDNA, positive sense
B) ssDNA, negative sense
C) ssRNA, positive sense
D) ssRNA, negative sense
E) None of the above.
Answer: C
Q3) An interesting observation is that many highly pathogenic and deadly human viruses have the following type of genome?
A) ssDNA, positive sense
B) ssDNA, negative sense
C) ssRNA, positive sense
D) ssRNA, negative sense
E) dsRNA
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Virus Entry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most DNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm of the host cell, since the ribosomes they need to translate their mRNAs are located in this cellular compartment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because of the rigid plant cell wall, the entry of plant viruses is difficult.Which of the following is a description of how plant viruses move between individual cells within in a whole plant?
A) They move between cells using plasmodesmata.
B) They cause the formation of syncytia.
C) They use the receptor mediated endocytosis pathway.
D) They rely on insect vectors to transfer virions between the cells in a single host.
E) They produce movement proteins that can create holes in the plant cell wall, allowing movement of the virions between cells.
Q3) It would be correct to say that in a topological sense the nucleocapsid of an enveloped virion has never left the cytoplasm of a host cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Single-Stranded RNA Bacteriophages
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why must the ssRNA phage, like MS2 and Qb, prevent the viral genome from simultaneously being translated by a ribosome and replicated by the replicase enzyme?
Describe the mechanism that these viruses use to prevent this from happening.
Q2) Site directed mutagenesis of the MS2 genome was carried out to abolish the MJ stem structure that is just upstream of the start codon of the replicase gene.Which of the following describes the result of this experiment?
A) The coat protein was unable to bind to the viral genome.
B) The maturation protein was unable to bind to the stem-loop.
C) The ribosome could no longer bind to the start codon for the replicase gene.
D) The replicase protein was unable to bind to the viral genome.
E) Translation of replicase gene increased in the absence of coat protein translation.
Q3) The RNA phages do not use a tail assembly to inject their genome through the cell wall of the host cell.How do they get their genome into the host cell?
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Chapter 6: Microviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following was used to distinguish different bacteriophages before the development of the electron microscope in the 1930's?
A) Western blot
B) DNA sequence
C) DNA restriction analysis
D) X-ray crystallography
E) Plaque morphology
Q2) The scaffolding proteins of the bacteriophage X174 remain as part of the final mature capsid structure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When is the external scaffolding protein D removed from the procapsid?
A) After lysis of the host cell
B) During packaging of the viral DNA into the procapsid.
C) When the internal scaffolding protein B is removed from the procapsid.
D) Before the viral DNA is package into the procapsid
E) During entry into the next host cell
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Chapter 7: Bacteriophage
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is interesting about the promoters that direct transcription of the Class II and Class III genes from bacteriophage T7?
A) They are very rich in GC basepairs.
B) They are much longer and more complex than the host gene promoters.
C) They can only be recognized by the viral RNA polymerase.
D) They can be recognized by either the host or viral RNA polymerase.
E) They are not very highly conserved.
Q2) The bacteriophage T7 produces a protein with an array of acidic amino acids that acts as a DNA mimic.Which of the following describes the function of this protein?
A) It competitively inhibits the host restriction endonucleases.
B) It binds to the viral genome and helps to package it into the head.
C) It acts as a primer for DNA replication.
D) It assists the entry of the viral genome into the host cell.
E) It binds to the host cell RNA polymerase and directs it to transcribe viral genes.
Q3) The removal of the RNA primer leaves a gap in the newly synthesized viral genomic DNA.How does the bacteriophage T7 solve this problem?
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9
Chapter 8: Bacteriophage Lambda
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cIII protein from phage inhibits cellular proteases that would degrade the cII protein.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is binding of the phage cI repressor to O<sub>R</sub>1 and O<sub>R</sub>2 necessary for transcription from P<sub>RM</sub>?
A) It facilitates binding of the RNA polymerase to PRM.
B) It blocks transcription from P<sub>L</sub> which competes for the RNA polymerase.
C) It prevents transcription of an antisense RNA.
D) It stabilizes the transcript from P<sub>RM</sub>.
E) It allows read through a transcriptional terminator.
Q3) Which of the following terms describes a bacterial cell that has a repressed copy of a bacteriophage genome integrated into its chromosome?
A) Lysogenic
B) Temperate
C) Prophage
D) Lytic
E) Lysogen
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Chapter 9: Viruses of Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Archaea are singled-celled microorganisms that share which of the following characteristics with eukaryotic cells?
A) Initiate translation of proteins with a methionine, not N-formyl-methionine.
B) Contain histone-like proteins to condense their genomic DNA.
C) Use a TATA-binding protein to initiate transcription of their genes.
D) Have similar enzymes involved in DNA replication .
E) All of the above are correct.
Q2) Most archaea viruses resemble bacteriophages with an icosahedral head and a helical tail.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some of the viruses that infect archaeal cells have linear dsDNA genomes with covalently closed ends.What is a major advantage of this feature?
A) It makes the genome more stable under low pH conditions.
B) It allows the genome to be more easily packaged into the virion
C) It allows the genome to be more easily integrated into the host cell genome.
D) It allows the genome to use a self-priming mechanism for DNA replication.
E) All of the above are correct.
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11
Chapter 10: Cucumber Mosaic Virus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about cucumber mosaic virus is FALSE?
A) It has an enveloped helical nucleocapsid.
B) It has a wide range of host species that it can infect.
C) Its genome is composed of positive-strand RNA.
D) It is transmitted by aphids.
E) It can cause asymptomatic infections in some plants.
Q2) Which of the following describes a feature of plant viruses, like cucumber mosaic virus, that is rare or absent in animal viruses?
A) Segmented genomes are each packaged into a single virion.
B) Viral particles are transmitted to new hosts via an insect vector.
C) Viral genomes are composed of ssRNA with a negative sense.
D) Viral genomic RNA has a 5' cap.
E) Segmented genomes are each packaged into separate virions.
Q3) In cucumber mosaic virus, productive infection requires simultaneous entry of all three major RNA segments, each packaged into a separate virion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe how satellite RNAs of the cucumber mosaic virus are act as parasites of the virus.
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Chapter 11: Picornaviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 5' end of the poliovirus genomic RNA contains all of the following EXCEPT
A) A 5' cap
B) An unusually long noncoding region
C) A pyrimidine-rich tract
D) A high degree of RNA secondary structure
E) Multiple AUG start codons
Q2) Explain how the rhinovirus capsid can evolve to evade the immune system yet can still bind and recognize the same host cell receptor.
Q3) Which of the following describes the last step in the maturation of the picornavirus capsid?
A) Assembly of the 5S protomer
B) Packaging of the viral genome.
C) Cleavage of P1 polyprotein into VP0, VP1 and VP3.
D) Cleavage of VP0 into VP2 and VP4.
E) Assembly of the 14S pentamer.
Q4) The 3C proteinase from picornaviruses can cleave itself out of the intact polyprotein.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Flaviviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the final processing steps that the flavivirus virion goes through in order to be converted from an immature virion into a mature infectious virion.
Q2) Which of the following statements comparing flaviviruses with picornaviruses is FALSE?
A) They both use an IRES to initiation translation of the viral genome.
B) They both have enveloped virions
C) They both encode the structural proteins at the 5' end of the genome.
D) They both produce their proteins from a single open-reading frame.
E) They both produce viral proteases to cleave the polyprotein.
Q3) Which of the following describes the primary mechanism of transmission of the flavivirus Hepatitis C?
A) Mosquito bites
B) Contaminated blood transfusions
C) Aerosols
D) Contaminated food and water
E) Animal bites
Q4) Describe the events that events that lead West Nile virus from moving from a local epidemic to becoming endemic in the United States.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Togaviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Translation of the subgenomic mRNA from togaviruses occurs on ribosomes that are located on or in which of the following cellular compartments?
A) Mitochondria
B) Nucleus
C) Cytoplasm
D) Trans-Golgi vesicle
E) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q2) What is the definition of a "dead-end" host for an arbovirus?
A) A vertebrate host that does not transmit the virus efficiently.
B) An insect vector that dies before it can transmit the virus.
C) A vertebrate host that does not get sick when infected with the virus.
D) An insect vector that poorly replicates the virus.
E) A virus that can not replicate in the lungs of the host
Q3) One of the advantages of the alphavirus vector that uses a double subgenomic RNA for expressing foreign proteins is that it does NOT need a helper virus to produce virions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Coronaviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are diseases which can be caused by members of the coronavirus family EXCEPT:
A) Bronchitis
B) Hepatitis
C) Arthritis
D) Gastroenteritis
E) Encephalitis
Q2) Unlike the other positive-strand RNA viruses that have simpler genomes, coronaviruses produce a nested set of sub-genomic mRNAs, each of which is translated into a single protein.Explain why the virus needs to produce so many subgenomic mRNAs.
Q3) Which of the following have made it difficult to create a cDNA clone of the entire coronavirus genome that can be used in reverse genetics experiments?
A) The genome is too short to be cloned.
B) The genome contains regions that are resistant to cloning.
C) The viral RNA can not be converted to DNA.
D) The viral RNA from coronaviruses is not infectious.
E) Reverse genetics does not work with coronaviruses.
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Chapter 15: Paramyxo-Viruses and Rhabdoviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutation of the RNA editing site in the genome of a paramyxovirus will have which of the following effects?
A) It eliminates the production of the P protein.
B) It eliminates the production of the V protein.
C) It causes the production of the P protein.
D) It causes the production of the V protein
E) It eliminates mRNA splicing.
Q2) All of the following viruses are members of the order Mononegavirales EXCEPT .
A) Rabies
B) Influenza
C) Measles
D) Ebola
E) Sendai virus
Q3) The order of the genes in the genomes of paramyxoviruses and rhabdoviruses is highly conserved.Is there a benefit to the virus for this specific gene order?
Q4) Describe two major differences between transcription and genome replication in paramyxoviruses.
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Chapter 16: Filovirouses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marburg virus is named after which of the following?
A) A river in Africa.
B) A country in Africa.
C) A town in Africa.
D) A town in Germany.
E) A country in Europe.
Q2) All of the following are similarities between filoviruses and paramyxoviruses EXCEPT .
A) They have enveloped virions.
B) They have negative-strand RNA genomes.
C) They have long thin virions.
D) They encode the nucleocapsid gene at the 3' end of the genome.
E) They encode the polymerase gene at the 5' end of the genome.
Q3) Which of the following animals appears to be the reservoir for filovirus infections?
A) monkeys and primates
B) bats
C) racoons
D) domestic livestock
E) insects
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18
Chapter 17: Bunyaviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do bunyaviruses use to prime the transcription of their viral mRNAs?
A) A cellular protein
B) A viral protein
C) Fragments of cytoplasmic capped mRNAs.
D) Fragments of nuclear capped mRNAs.
E) The do not use primers for mRNA transcription.
Q2) Which of the following is a type of human illness NOT caused by a member of the bunyavirus family?
A) fever
B) encephalitis
C) hemorrhagic fever
D) fatal respiratory syndrome
E) arthritis
Q3) In the RNA viruses with segmented genomes, which of the following explains antigenic shift?
A) Lack of RNA editing by the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
B) Lack of proof-reading by the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
C) Exchange of the glycoproteins between two virions.
D) Exchange of genome segments between two virions.
E) All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 18: Influenza Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What function does the neuraminidase protein of influenza virus carry out?
A) It binds to sialic acid and helps the virus enter the host cell.
B) It helps release virions from virus producing cells.
C) It is involved in the glycosylation process of the NA protein.
D) It cleaves the HA protein into two functional domains.
E) It helps the virus evade the immune system.
Q2) While often confused with milder upper-respiratory infections caused by rhinoviruses and coronaviruses, the symptoms of influenza infection are more severe.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During an influenza virus infection, the spliced mRNAs are produced in higher abundance than the unspliced mRNAs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Prophylatic treatment of a patient with an antiviral drug to influenza is the best way to prevent infection.
A)True
B)False
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Reoviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reovirus capsid proteins assemble around positive-strand RNA segments before completion of genome replication.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following factors affect the abundance of the viral proteins produced during infection with a reovirus?
A) Length of the mRNA.
B) Sequences surrounding the start codon.
C) Length of the 5' noncoding sequences.
D) Secondary structure in the 5' noncoding sequences.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q3) All of the following are enzymatic activities found within the virion core of reoviruses EXCEPT .
A) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity.
B) RNA helicase activity
C) Phosphatase to remove 5' end of mRNAs
D) Methyltransferase.
E) Peptidyl transferase.
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Chapter 20: Parvoviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Rep78 protein from the parvovirus adeno-associated virus has all of the following protein domains or enzymatic functions EXCEPT .
A) DNA binding domain.
B) Helicase domain.
C) Coiled-coil domain.
D) Actin binding domain.
E) Zinc finger domain.
Q2) Which of the following steps has been shown to be blocked in cells that are nonpermissive for parvoviruses?
A) Binding of the virion to the correct receptor.
B) Uncoating of the virion.
C) Transcription of viral mRNAs.
D) Synthesis of viral proteins.
E) Replication of the viral genome.
Q3) The dependoviruses, which are a group of parvoviruses, require coinfection with an adenovirus or herpesvirus to undergo a productive infection.
A)True
B)False
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22
Chapter 21: Polyomaviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under which of the following conditions do polyomaviruses cause tumors in their hosts?
A) Injection of high titers in young animals.
B) Injection of high titers in older animals.
C) Exposure to the virus via an aerosol.
D) Exposure to particularly tumorigenic strains of the virus.
Q2) The SV40 middle T antigen can activate cell metabolism and the cell cycle by doing which of the following?
A) Binding to MAP kinase and activating it.
B) Interacting with the cellular c-Src protein.
C) Inactivating the PP2A phosphatase.
D) Interacting with the pRb protein.
E) Binding to and cleaving the p300 protein.
Q3) Most individuals who were born in the US between 1941 and 1961 have been accidentally injected with SV40 contaminated poliovirus vaccine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) While SV40 can not cause tumors in monkeys or humans, it can transform rodent cells.Explain the molecular mechanisms that cause this to happen.
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Chapter 22: Papillomaviruses
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Q1) Which of the following describes the form that the papillomavirus genome is found in most cervical cancer cells?
A) The entire viral genome is integrated into the genome of the host cell.
B) A fragment of the genome is integrated into the genome of the host cell.
C) The intact viral genome remains an episomal plasmid.
D) A fragment of the viral genome remains as an episomal plasmid.
E) Multiple copies of the genome are arranged in concatamers.
Q2) The currently available HPV vaccines contain virus-like particles composed of which of the following?
A) L1 protein alone
B) L1 protein and viral DNA
C) L1 and L2 proteins.
D) L1 and L2 proteins and viral DNA.
E) E6 and E7 proteins.
Q3) Very few cases of cervical cancer are caused by infection with papillomavirus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the roles that plasmid replication and vegetative replication play in the life cycle of papillomaviruses as they infect stratified epithelium.
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Chapter 23: Adenoviruses
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Q1) All of the following are involved in determining the type of mRNAs produced during adenovirus infection EXCEPT ..
A) Transcription initiation by RNA polymerase II.
B) Location of the transcriptional promoters.
C) Location of the start codons.
D) Alternative mRNA splicing.
E) Alternative polyadenylation sites.
Q2) Adenovirus has a linear double-stranded DNA genome.Describe how adenovirus DNA is replicated so that the "end problem" is solved.
Q3) If the E1A gene is transfected into cultured cells, it causes an abortive transformation and the cells die.If the E1B gene is included with E1A, then cells become fully transformed and survive.What critical function does the E1B gene provide?
A) The E1B proteins suppress apoptosis.
B) The E1B proteins prevent the degradation of the p53 protein.
C) The E1B proteins assist with transport of mRNAs out of the nucleus.
D) The E1B proteins bind to Rb and cause the cell to enter S phase.
E) The E1B proteins activate transcription from p53 inducible promoters.
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Chapter 24: Herpesviruses
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Q1) From an evolutionary perspective, herpesviruses have been very successful pathogens in the human population since they are so widely distributed and only cause severe disease in rare circumstances.Describe some of the biological characteristics of herpesviruses that have allowed them to be so successful.
Q2) Epstein-Barr virus particles released from infected B lymphocytes have reduced infectivity for B lymphocytes but enhanced infectivity for epithelial cells.Which of the following explains this phenomenon?
A) Epithelial cells have higher levels of the HVEM receptor protein.
B) B lymphocytes do not contain the correct host cell receptor.
C) B lymphocytes have MHCII protein, which binds to the viral gp42 protein.
D) The viral envelope glycoproteins are not processed correctly in B lymphocytes.
E) Lymphocytes have different lipids in their membranes, which inhibit fusion of the viral envelope.
Q3) Both herpes simplex virus and Epstein-Barr virus have multiple mechanisms to suppress both cellular antiviral pathways as well as allow latently infected cells to hide from the adaptive immune system.Describe two of these mechanisms used by either virus.
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Chapter 25: Baculoviruses
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Q1) Which of the following observations was the MOST crucial in the development of recombinant baculoviruses that can express large amounts of foreign proteins?
A) Baculoviruses can enter mammalian cells but can not replicate.
B) The polyhedrin gene is not essential for virus replication in cell culture.
C) Viruses missing the polyhedrin gene can be distinguished from wild-type viruses microscopically.
D) Recombinant viruses can produce large amounts of a foreign protein when introduced into insect cells in culture.
E) The polyhedrin gene has a very strong promoter that produces large amounts of mRNA late in the infection.
Q2) Describe some of the characteristics of baculoviruses that make them able to be used as safe pesticides to kill insects that are agricultural pests.
Q3) The tubular nucleocapsids of baculovirus allows the virion to accept a longer genome than normal.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Poxviruses
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Q1) Because poxviruses replicate exclusively in the cytoplasm of the host cell, they must encode which of the following enzymes?
A) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
B) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
C) mRNA processing enzymes.
D) Enzymes to produce deoxoynucleotides.
E) All of the above are encoded.
Q2) The mRNAs of poxviruses do not undergo splicing.Which of the following explains why?
A) Poxvirus genomes are small and they need to conserve genome space.
B) Poxviruses replicate in the cytoplasm of infected cells.
C) They do not need to regulate gene expression through alternative splicing.
D) They do not encode the proteins that carry out mRNA splicing.
E) Poxvirus mRNAs do not contain exons.
Q3) Intermediate and late gene transcription of poxviruses does NOT require any host cell proteins.
A)True
B)False
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28
Chapter 27: Viruses of Algae and Mimivirus
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Q1) Which of the following describes the primary distinguishing feature of the prasinoviruses?
A) They have the largest virions of any known virus.
B) They have the largest genome of any known virus.
C) They produce more virions per round of replication than any known virus.
D) They infect the smallest free-living eukaryotic cell.
E) They only replicate inside the nucleus of their host cell.
Q2) The primary capsid protein of the phycodnavirus PBCV-1, Vp54, is glycosylated.Which of the following describes how the viral protein is thought to acquire its sugar residues?
A) The sugars are added to the protein inside the lumen of the rough ER.
B) Cellular enzymes in the cytoplasm add the sugars to the capsid protein.
C) Viral enzymes add the sugars directly to the capsid protein.
D) The sugars are added to the protein in the Golgi of the host cell.
E) The sugars are added by viral enzymes after release of the virion from the host cell.
Q3) Chloroviruses, like PBCV-1, encode enzymes which can produce hyaluronan and chitin, two different saccharide polymers.
A)True
B)False
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Retroviruses
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Q1) The Gag and Pol proteins are coded for in two different reading frames in the avian retroviruses.Which of the following mechanisms is used to produce the Pol proteins?
A) Alternative mRNA splicing.
B) RNA editing.
C) Read through of a translational stop codon.
D) Ribosomal frameshifting.
E) Initiation of translation at a downstream start codon.
Q2) All of the following features are associated with the incoming RNA genomes of retroviruses EXCEPT:
A) 5' cap structures
B) 3' poly(A) tails
C) Repeated (R) sequence at each end of the genome.
D) A single open reading frame.
E) Unique sequences at each end of the genome.
Q3) Explain the different mechanisms used by acute transforming viruses and nontransforming retroviruses to cause tumor formation.Why does transforming by the acute transforming viruses take less time than the nontransforming retroviruses?
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Chapter 29: Human Immunodeficiency
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Q1) Describe the clinical progress of an HIV infection in a typical patient who has not been treated with anti-HIV drug therapy.What are the other two potential disease courses, which occur in a minority of individuals, that could result from infection with HIV?
Q2) What is unusual about how the tat protein from HIV activates transcription from the LTR?
A) It binds to the tat response element as RNA but not as DNA.
B) It binds directly to the cellular RNA polymerase II.
C) It binds to the reverse transcriptase enzyme and enhances its processivity.
D) It binds next to the TATA box and enhances binding of TBP to the LTR.
E) It inactivates the repressor of NF-kB so that this protein can bind to the LTR.
Q3) The loss of CD4 positive T cells as a result of infection with HIV eventually causes which of the following to happen in an HIV infected person?
A) Loss of immune competency and an increase in other infections.
B) An increase in the number of T cells leading to leukemia.
C) An over activation of the immune system and autoimmune diseases.
D) An increase in the production of cytokines, leading to a "cytokine storm".
E) B cell lymphomas as a direct result of infection of B cells with HIV.
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Chapter 30: Hepadnaviruses
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Q1) The X protein from hepatitis B virus is thought to activate gene transcription because it is found in the nucleus of infected cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms prevents packaging of the preC mRNA into the virion of hepatitis B virus?
A) Binding of the P protein to the packaging site prevents the C protein from binding.
B) Binding of the C protein to the packaging site prevents the P protein from binding.
C) Translation of the C open reading frame blocks the packaging site.
D) Translation of the preC reading frame blocks the packaging site.
E) Translation of the P open reading frame blocks the packaging site.
Q3) Like retroviruses, the genome of hepatitis B virus is integrated into the genome of the host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast the genome replication cycles of retroviruses and hepadnaviruses, like hepatitis B virus.
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Chapter 31: Viroids and Hepatitis Delta Virus
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Q1) Which of the following mechanisms is used to produce the two different forms of the delta antigen from the hepatitis delta virus?
A) RNA editing by the insertion of an extra base into the mRNA.
B) RNA editing by deamination of a specific base in the genome.
C) Alternative mRNA splicing.
D) Translational readthrough of a stop codon.
E) Ribosomal frameshifting.
Q2) There is some controversy about whether the replication of the hepatitis delta virus (HDV)genome is performed by the cellular RNA polymerase I or RNA polymerase
II.Describe the evidence that supports each model.
Q3) The ribozyme function found in virioids and hepatitis delta virus can be used to cleave exogenous RNA molecules.Which of the following is a requirement for the ribozyme to be recycled and cleave more than one substrate?
A) The entire length of the substrate must not be too long.
B) The structure of the ribozyme RNA must be very stable.
C) Only a short region of complementarity between the target and the ribozyme.
D) The level of magnesium ions must be low enough.
E) The temperature of the reaction must be high enough.
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33
Chapter 32: Prions
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Q1) The high proportion of people who are heterozygous at codon 129 of the prion protein gene suggests that ancient humans may have participated in ritualistic cannibalism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mice that lack the gene encoding the normal prion protein have severe neurological defects.
A)True B)False
Q3) Which of the following tests would be most useful to diagnose a prion disease in a patient?
A) MRI of the brain to detect damage.
B) CAT scan of the brain to detect damage.
C) Test for the presence of PrP protein in the tonsils.
D) Microscopically examine a brain biopsy.
E) Sequencing of the patient's prion gene.
Q4) Describe how the prion hypothesis explains how there can be both an acquired and a genetic form of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
Q5) Explain the observations that link new variant CJD with BSE.
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Chapter 33: Intrinsic Cellular Defenses Against Virus
Infection
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Q1) Why is double-stranded RNA such a potent inducer of a cell's antiviral defenses?
Describe one antiviral defense system that requires double-stranded RNA in order to be activated.
Q2) Which of the following is the best-known substrate of the interferon induced PKR?
A) Jak kinase
B) Ribonuclease L
C) Translation factor eIF2
D) IRF-3
E) Large ribosomal subunit
Q3) Human herpesvirus 8 produces a viral homologue of the v-IRF protein.Which of the following describes how this viral homologue inhibits the interferon pathway?
A) It binds to the interferon promoter and inhibits transcription.
B) It stimulates the expression of the Mx protein.
C) It blocks the activation of the PKR enzymes by double-stranded RNA.
D) It prevents binding of interferon a to its receptor.
E) It inactivates the caspase enzymes.
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Chapter 34: Innate and Adaptive Immune Responses to
Virus Infection
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Q1) Myxoma virus, a rabbit poxvirus, produces a viroceptor that is a homologue of the interferon-g receptor.What purpose does this serve the virus?
A) It sequesters the interferon-g.
B) It stimulates the host cells to divide.
C) It enhances the release of virus particles from the infected cell.
D) It increases virus replication.
E) It prevents the MHC-I protein from displaying viral peptides.
Q2) What happens when the T cell receptor on a CD8 positive T cell recognizes the peptide displayed in the MHC-I complex on an infected cell?
A) It attracts natural killer cells, which kill the infected cell.
B) It releases interferon g which stimulates macrophages to engulf the cell.
C) It releases IL-4 to stimulate the B cells to release antibodies.
D) It releases proteins that kill the infected cell.
E) It releases IL-12 which stimulates the production of Th1 cells.
Q3) The IgG molecule is the most abundant immunoglobulin produced during an immune response.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 35: Antiviral Vaccines
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Q1) Vaccines will never be able to treat patients chronically infected with hepatitis B virus because they can not break immunological tolerance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For which of the following viruses is a vaccine NOT being currently developed?
A) Human rhinovirus.
B) Hepatitis C virus.
C) Dengue virus.
D) Respiratory syncytial virus.
E) Human immunodeficiency virus
Q3) Why must adjuvants be used when administering a killed or recombinant virus vaccine?
A) These vaccines must be given as injections.
B) These vaccines are less efficient at stimulating the immune system.
C) These vaccines are not as safe as live attenuated vaccines.
D) These vaccines are less stable than live attenuated vaccines.
E) These vaccines must be given in several doses.
Q4) Explain the differences between the Salk and Sabin polio vaccines.Why have most wealthy countries switched from using the Sabin vaccine to using the older Salk vaccine?
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Chapter 36: Antiviral Chemotherapy
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Q1) The anti-influenza drug amantadine blocks entry of the virion by raising the pH of the endosome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The antiviral drug ganciclovir was approved to be used as a treatment for which of the following viruses?
A) HIV
B) Herpes simplex virus
C) Varicella-zoster virus
D) Cytomegalovirus
E) Vaccinia virus
Q3) How does the capsid-binding drug pleconaril inhibit entry of picornavirus particles?
A) It causes antibodies to bind to the capsid and blocks entry.
B) It causes the capsid to become degraded by proteases.
C) It binds to the same location on the capsid as the host cell receptor.
D) It displaces a lipid normally bound to a pocket on the capsid.
E) It binds to the envelope of the virus and prevents it from fusing with the plasma membrane.
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Chapter 37: Eukaryotic Virus Vectors
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Q1) The plasmids that are used to express the retroviral proteins in the packaging cell lines contain the packaging signal (y).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Since vectors based on lentiviruses can infect nondividing cells, they have an advantage over vectors based on the genomes of other retroviruses.
A)True B)False
Q3) SV40 was the first virus used to express a foreign protein in a cultured cell.But SV40 has which of the following limitations?
A) The small genome can only accommodate a small gene.
B) It can only infect monkey cells.
C) It does not integrate its genome into the host cell genome.
D) It replicates very slowly.
E) It does not have a strong promoter/enhancer for gene expression.
Q4) Adeno-associated virus can infect dividing as well as nondividing cells.
A)True
B)False
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