Microbiology Question Bank - 733 Verified Questions

Page 1


Microbiology Question Bank

Course Introduction

Microbiology is the scientific study of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, and algae. This course explores the morphology, physiology, genetics, and ecology of these microscopic organisms and examines their roles in health, disease, environmental processes, and industry. Students will learn about microbial growth, metabolism, genetics, pathogenicity, and the principles of immunology. Laboratory components provide hands-on experience in microbial cultivation, identification, control methods, and experimental techniques, equipping students with foundational knowledge relevant to medicine, biotechnology, and environmental science.

Recommended Textbook

Biochemistry 4th Edition by Christopher K. Mathews

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29 Chapters

733 Verified Questions

733 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: The Scope of Biochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following organelles is found in plant cells, but not in animal cells

A)chloroplast

B)Golgi apparatus

C)mitochondrion

D)smooth endoplasmic reticulum

E)rough endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: A

Q2) Of Koshland's "pillars of life," which deals specifically with the structure and function of DNA?

A)program

B)compartmentation

C)energy

D)regeneration

E)adaptability

Answer: A

Q3) The molecule pyruvic acid is found at the crossroads of several biochemical pathways. Pyruvic acid is also known as 2-oxopropanoic acid. Based upon this name, draw the molecule.

Answer: 11ea7cd4_c4a7_7062_a2ab_79f56db8dc5b_TB2679_00

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Page 3

Chapter 2: The Matrix of Life: Weak Interactions in an Aqueous Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Given the pK<sub>a</sub> values for phosphoric acid of 2.14, 6.86 and 12.4, what is the ratio of HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>/H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup> in a typical muscle cell where the pH is 7.2?

A)0.46

B)2.2

C)6.3 * 10<sup>-6</sup>

D)1.1 * 10<sup>5</sup>

E)none of the above

Answer: B

Q2) If a buffer is made with the pH below the pK<sub>a</sub> of the weak acid, the ratio of [base]/[acid] will be:

A)less than 1

B)greater than 1

C)equal to 1

D)equal to 0

E)cannot be determined

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: The Energetics of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following represents an apparent violation of the second law of thermodynamics?

A)the organization of free amino acids into a protein

B)the tendency for dead cells to break down to smaller molecules

C)the hydrolysis of nucleic acids into nucleotides

D)the conversion of the polymer cellulose into glucose

E)the tendency for a professor's desk to become cluttered

Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following would be considered a closed system?

A)a human living alone on a small island

B)the planet Earth

C)a fish living in a fish bowl

D)a bacteria living in the large intestine

E)a bacteria living in a Petri dish

Answer: B

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5

Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is correctly paired?

A)adenine: pyrimidine

B)RNA: ribose containing nucleic acid

C)thymine: purine

D)uracil: purine

E)DNA: ribose containing nucleic acid

Q2) While RNA is often single stranded, transfer RNA (tRNA)is usually found with some double stranded structure. Which of the following explains this?

A)tRNAs contain self-complimentary stem-loop structures

B)after synthesis, tRNA molecules are hydrolyzed in specific places to allow double stranded structures to form

C)regions of tRNAs become supercoiled, thus forcing formation of double stranded regions

D)tRNAs adopt a form much like Z-DNA allowing double stranded regions to form E)none of the above

Q3) Draw the two forms of a phosphodiester bond that can occur under physiological pH. If the pK<sub>a</sub> for this conversion is 6.2, what form predominates in the lysosome where the pH is about 5?

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Chapter 5: Introduction to Proteins: the Primary Level of

Protein

Structure

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following events occurs after the formation of disulfide bonds during the conversion of preproinsulin to mature insulin?

A)folding of proinsulin into a stable conformation

B)transport of the molecule through the membranes

C)cleavage of the peptide sequence that joins the A and B chains

D)cleavage of the leader sequence

E)posttranslational modification of specific proline residues

Q2) Which of the following amino acids is derived from another amino acid by the addition of an amine group?

A)lysine

B)asparagine

C)arginine

D)histidine

E)none of the above

Q3) Of the following amino acids, which will have a pI closest to 3?

A)Cys

B)His

C)Gly

D)Asp

E)Lys

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Chapter 6: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins

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Sample Questions

Q1) The two amino acids most often found in a polyproline II helix are proline and

A)alanine

B)glycine

C)serine

D)lysine

E)histidine

Q2) Which of the following is true regarding \(\beta\)-sheet structures?

A)hydrogen bonds in an parallel sheet are non-linear

B)hydrogen bonds in an antiparallel sheet are non-linear

C)the rise per residue is greater for a parallel sheet than for an antiparallel sheet

D)\(\beta\)-sheets are an n=3 helix with each residue rotated 120<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> with respect to its neighbors

E)none of the above

Q3) Draw a section of antiparallel \(\beta\)-sheet showing two sheets with three residues in each sheet. Clearly show the hydrogen bond pattern between the two sheets.

Q4) Show the most likely interaction that would occur between a serine residue and a glutamine residue.

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Protein Function and Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following mutations is correctly defined?

A)silent: change of a single base in the non-coding intron region of a gene

B)missense: substitution of a single base results in a premature stop codon

C)nonsense: substitution of a single base results in a complete change of amino acid sequence

D)frameshift: deletion of a single base results in a single amino acid change

E)permissive: results in a protein that has greater thermodynamic stability

Q2) Which of the following is true regarding the effectors of hemoglobin-oxygen binding?

A)an increase in blood pH will cause hemoglobin to bind more tightly to oxygen

B)increased CO<sub>2</sub> from increased muscle activity will result in an increase in the R state of hemoglobin

C)increased Cl<sup>-</sup> will cause the formation of a salt bridge between two Lys residues, one on an \(\alpha\) subunit, the other on a \(\beta\) subunit

D)the binding site of 2,3-BPG contains several Asp and Glu residues which are repelled by the similar charge, pushing the two \(\beta\) subunits away from each other E)all of the above

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Chapter 8: Contractile Proteins and Molecular Motors

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the energy source for flagellum?

A)ATP hydrolysis

B)GTP hydrolysis

C)proton gradient

D)sodium ion gradient

E)none of the above

Q2) In a typical cell, the use of proton gradient to power ATP synthesis requires about 3 protons for each ATP. Based on this, what is the energy expenditure, in ATP/minute, of a typical flagellum if it is running at 120 revolutions per second and requires 1000 protons to make one revolution?

Q3) Which of the following proteins is found in a bacterial flagellum?

A)actin

B)myosin

C)flagellin

D)dynein

E)all of the above

Q4) Under typical conditions within a muscle cell, the \(\Delta\)G for hydrolysis of ATP is about -51 kJ/mol. If the energy required to move through one power stroke is 1.2 * 10<sup>-20</sup> J, what is the percent utilization of the energy from ATP hydrolysis?

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Chapter 9: Carbohydrates: Sugars, Saccharides, Glycans

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following formulas would be a carbohydrate A)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>5</sub> B)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>6</sub> C)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>10</sub>O<sub>6</sub> D)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>3</sub> E)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>

Q2) The source of nitrogen for the synthesis of glucosamine-6-phosphate from fructose-6-phosphate is the amino acid ___________.

A)aspartate

B)asparagine

C)glutamate

D)glutamine

E)lysine

Q3) The reaction of a cyclic monosaccharide with an alcohol converts a(n)_________ into a(n)________.

A)acetal; hemiacetal

B)hemiacetal; acetal

C)acetal; ether

D)hemiacetal; ether

E)alcohol; ether

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Chapter 10: Lipids, Membranes and Cellular Transport

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following correctly relates the status of the sodium channel during an action potential cycle? (m-gate = activation gate, h-gate = inactivation gate)

A)while resting, both the m-gate and h-gate are closed

B)during depolarization, both the m-gate and h-gate open allowing Na<sup>+</sup> to exit the cell

C)during repolarization, only the m-gate is closed

D)during the refractory period, both the m-gate and h-gate are closed

E)none of the above

Q2) The transient association of lipid rafts is thought to play a significant role in which of the following?

A)cell signaling

B)bacterial entry into host cells

C)protein trafficking

D)membrane receptor dimerization

E)all of the above

Q3) Draw the following fatty acid: 18:3c\(\Delta\)9,12,15 as it would appear at physiological pH. With reference to the omega carbon, what type of fatty acid is this? Draw the result if this fatty acid underwent partial hydrogenation to produce 18:1t\(\Delta\)11

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Enzymes: Biological Catalysts

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Sample Questions

Q1) An enzyme that catalyzes the intramolecular movement of a functional group from one carbon atom to another would be called a(n)____________.

A)isomerase

B)transferase

C)oxidoreductase

D)kinase

E)ligase

Q2) In a Lineweaver-Burke plot, what does the slope represent?

A)K<sub>M</sub>

B)V<sub>max</sub>

C)V<sub>max</sub>/K<sub>M</sub>

D)K<sub>M</sub>/V<sub>max</sub>

E)none of the above

Q3) Which of the following cofactors is used during the activation and transfer of carbon dioxide?

A)nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)

B)thiamine pyrophosphate

C)biotin

D)coenzyme A

E)tetrahydrofolate

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Chapter 12: Chemical Logic of Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) The phosphorylation of creatine (Cr)by ATP forming creatine phosphate (Cr-P)is rather endergonic (\(\Delta\)G°´ = + 12.6 kJ/mol). Which of the following explains how this reaction proceeds in a typical muscle cell?

A)in the cytosol, [ATP] is high and [Cr] is high allowing the reaction to proceed

B)in the mitochondria, [ATP] is high and [Cr-P] is low allowing the reaction to proceed

C)Cr-P is rapidly transported across the cellular membrane allowing for high levels of Cr-P in the cytosol

D)in the mitochondria, [ADP] is high allowing phosphorylation of Cr to occur

E)none of the above

Q2) Of the following, which would have the most reduced state of carbon, and therefore, would yield the largest amount of energy per gram?

A)glucose

B)glycogen

C)alanine

D)stearic acid

E)all of the above would have identical energy yields

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Carbohydrate Metabolism: Glycolysis,

Gluconeogenesis, Glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose

Phosphate Pathway

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Sample Questions

Q1) The conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate and ADP to pyruvate and ATP occurs in two distinct steps, first the transfer of the phosphate from PEP to ADP, then the conversion of enolpyruvate to pyruvate. Which of the following describes the reversibility of this process?

A)both steps are freely reversible

B)step 1 is freely reversible, step 2 is irreversible

C)step 1 is irreversible, step 2 is freely reversible

D)both steps are irreversible

E)the reversibility of the reaction depends completely upon the concentrations of products and reactants

Q2) In the vertebrate liver, which major regulatory point is bypassed during fructose metabolism, often leading to conversion of excess fructose into fat?

A)hexokinase

B)phosphofructokinase

C)glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase

D)pyruvate kinase

E)none of the above

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Chapter 14: Citric Acid Cycle and Glyoxylate Cycle

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an enzyme-bound intermediate in the reaction catalyzed by succinyl-CoA synthetase?

A)succinyl phosphate

B)glutamyl-CoA

C)N-phosphohistidine

D)N-ADP-histidine

E)none of the above

Q2) Which of the following reactions is commonly used to replenish intermediates of the citric acid cycle?

A)citrate \(\rarr\)oxaloacetate + acetyl CoA

B)oxaloacetate \(\rarr\) aspartate

C)glutamate \(\rarr\) \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate

D)malate \(\rarr\) pyruvate

E)all of the above

Q3) What is the source of acetyl-CoA for the glyoxylate cycle?

A)pyruvate

B)amino acids

C)fatty acids

D)cholesterol

E)all of the above

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Chapter 15: Electron Transport, Oxidative Phosphorylation, and Oxygen Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following steps in the catalytic cycle of the F<sub>1</sub> component is the most energetically unfavorable?

A)binding of ADP

B)binding of P<sub>i</sub>

C)formation of ATP from ADP and P<sub>i</sub>

D)release of ATP

E)all of the above are equally energetically unfavorable

Q2) In addition to iron, what metal is found in certain cytochromes?

A)manganese

B)copper

C)chromium

D)cobalt

E)zinc

Q3) Which of the reactive oxygen species is thought to damage lipid membranes?

A)semiquinone radical

B)superoxide

C)nitric oxide

D)hydrogen peroxide

E)hydroxyl radical

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Chapter 16: Photosynthesis

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Q1) Which of the following depicts the general flow of electrons in the two-photosystem light reactions? (Q = plastoquinone, PC = plastocyanin, Fd = ferredoxin

A)PSI \(\rarr\) Q \(\rarr\) cytochrome b<sub>6</sub>f complex \(\rarr\)PC \(\rarr\) PSII \(\rarr\)0 Fd \(\rarr\)NADP<sup>+</sup>

B)PSI \(\rarr\) cytochrome b<sub>6</sub>f complex \(\rarr\) Q \(\rarr\) PC \(\rarr\) PSII \(\rarr\) Fd \(\rarr\)NADP<sup>+</sup>

C)PSII \(\rarr\) Q \(\rarr\) cytochrome b<sub>6</sub>f complex \(\rarr\) PC \(\rarr\) PSI \(\rarr\) Fd \(\rarr\)NADP<sup>+</sup>

D)PSII \(\rarr\) PC \(\rarr\) Q \(\rarr\) Fd \(\rarr\) PSI \(\rarr\) cytochrome b<sub>6</sub>f complex \(\rarr\) NADP<sup>+</sup>

E)PSII \(\rarr\) Fd \(\rarr\) PC \(\rarr\)cytochrome b<sub>6</sub>f complex \(\rarr\) PSI \(\rarr\)Q \(\rarr\)NADP<sup>+</sup>

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Chapter 17: Lipid Metabolism I: Fatty Acids, Triacylglycerols, and Lipoproteins

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Q1) Which of the following is the major regulation point for transport of fatty acids into the mitochondria?

A)long chain fatty acid specific acyl-CoA synthetase

B)medium chain fatty acid specific acyl-CoA synthetase

C)short chain fatty acid specific acyl-CoA synthetase

D)carnitine acyltransferase I

E)carnitine acyltransferase II

Q2) When comparing the energy in stored fat (triacylglycerols)versus the energy in stored glycogen, what must be taken into account to determine the actual energy available per gram of metabolite?

A)fats are more highly oxidized than glycogen

B)fats are anhydrous while glycogen binds large amounts of water

C)fats are neutral while glycogen is highly charged

D)fats are attached to protein while glycogen is not

E)all of the above

Q3) If gadoleic acid (20:1c\(\Delta\)9)underwent complete mitochondrial oxidation to CO<sub>2</sub>, how many ATP could be produced assuming that all reduced electron carriers are re-oxidized by the mitochondrial electron transport chain?

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Chapter 18: Interorgan and Intracellular Coordination of Energy Metabolism in Vertebrates

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Sample Questions

Q1) The transcription factor PGC-1\(\alpha\) is controlled by two forms of covalent modification. Which of the following correctly identifies a mechanism of control?

A)phosphorylation by AMPK inhibits PGC-1\(\alpha\)

B)dephosphorylation by AMPK activates PGC-1\(\alpha\)

C)acetylation by SIRT1 activates PGC-1\(\alpha\)

D)deacetylation by SIRT1 activates PGC-1\(\alpha\)

E)dephosphorylation by AMPK and deacetylation by SIRT1 activates PGC-1\(\alpha\)

Q2) For skeletal muscle, which of the following correctly pairs the activity state with the source of energy?

A)resting: glucose

B)resting: amino acids

C)exertion: glucose

D)exertion: fatty acids

E)none of the above

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Chapter 19: Lipid Metabolism Ii: Membrane Lipids, Steroids,

Isoprenoids, and Eicosanoids

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Sample Questions

Q1) The enzyme PGH synthase contains two different functionalities, a __________ that uses two molecules of oxygen as substrates and __________ which performs a 2 electron reduction.

A)cyclooxygenase; peroxidase

B)cyclooxygenase; reductase

C)dioxygenase; peroxidase

D)dioxygenase; reductase

E)lipoxygenase; peroxidase

Q2) The synthesis of which of the following molecules would be inhibited by aspirin?

A)prostaglandin F<sub>2</sub><sub>\(\alpha\)</sub>

B)prostaglandin D<sub>2</sub>

C)prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>

D)prostaglandin H<sub>2</sub>

E)all of the above

Q3) Which of the following is the regulatory step in cholesterol synthesis?

A)HMG-CoA synthase

B)HMG-CoA lyase

C)HMG-CoA reductase

D)squalene synthase

E)squalene epoxidase

Page 21

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Chapter 20: Metabolism of Nitrogenous Compounds I:

Principles of Biosynthesis, Utilization, and Turnover

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following reactions is highly active in the liver when large amounts of amino acids are moving from extrahepatic tissue to the liver?

A)conversion of glutamate to glutamine

B)oxidation of glutamate by glutamate dehydrogenase

C)reduction of \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate by glutamate dehydrogenase

D)transamination of glutamate and pyruvate to \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate and alanine

E)none of the above

Q2) What would be the energy requirements of the urea cycle if both nitrogens of urea came from glutamine (assuming that any NADH made was re-oxidized via electron transport/oxidative phosphorylation)? Explain how this is possible.

Q3) The reaction of ammonia with \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate is catalyzed by _________ and requires _________ as a reactant.

A)glutamate synthetase; ATP

B)glutamate synthetase; NADH or NADPH

C)glutamate dehydrogenase; ATP

D)glutamate dehydrogenase; NADH or NADPH

E)none of the above

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Metabolism of Nitogenous Compounds II: Amino

Acids, Porphyrins, and Neurotransmitters

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Q1) Which of the following molecules derived from tyrosine is correctly defined?

A)dopamine: thyroid hormone

B)dopaquinone: precursor for melanins

C)thyroxine: catecholamine

D)norepinephrine: thyroid hormone

E)all of the above

Q2) Which amino acid utilizes nitrogen and carbon from adenine in the synthesis of its R-group?

A)histidine

B)arginine

C)lysine

D)asparagine

E)all of the above

Q3) The conversion of tryptophan to 5-hydroxytryptophan in the serotonin synthesis pathway is analogous to the conversion of _________ to _________.

A)glycine; serine

B)phenylalanine; tyrosine

C)tyrosine to thyroxine

D)dopa to dopaquinone

E)all of the above

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Nucleotide Metabolism

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Q1) Which of the following coenzymes contains an adenylate group?

A)cobalamin

B)tetrahydrofolate

C)thiamine pyrophosphate

D)pyridoxal phosphate

E)coenzyme A

Q2) Which of the following sequence of events best explains the formation of carbamate in the mechanism of carbamoyl phosphate synthetase?

A)Bicarbonate and ATP form carboxyphosphate, then NH<sub>3</sub> performs a nucleophilic attack on carboxyphosphate to form carbamate

B)Bicarbonate<sub> </sub>is attacked by NH<sub>3</sub> to produce carbamate with ATP hydrolysis occurring solely to drive the reaction to completion

C)Bicarbonate reacts with ATP forming carboxy adenylate and pyrophosphate, then NH<sub>3</sub> performs a nucleophilic attack on carboxy adenylate to form carbamate

D)NH<sub>3</sub> reacts with ATP, which then reacts with bicarbonate followed by loss of phosphate to produce carbamate

E)none of the above

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Mechanisms of Signal Transduction

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Q1) The principle inhibitory neurotransmitter, __________, works by triggering an influx of ______ causing hyperpolarization of nerve cells.

A)\(\gamma\)-aminobutyric acid; K<sup>+</sup>

B)\(\gamma\)-aminobutyric acid; Cl<sup>-</sup>

C)serotonin; K<sup>+</sup>

D)serotonin; Cl<sup>-</sup>

E)none of the above

Q2) A G protein is inactive when the _____ subunit is bound to __________.

A)\(\alpha\); GMP

B)\(\alpha\); GDP

C)\(\beta\); GMP

D)\(\beta\); GDP

E)\(\beta\)/\(\gamma\); GMP

Q3) Most steroid hormones exert their effects by initial binding to which of the following receptors?

A)receptor in cell membrane

B)receptor in cytosol

C)receptor in nuclear membrane

D)receptor in nucleus

E)none of the above

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Chapter 24: Genes, Genomes and Chromosomes

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Q1) What proteins, responsible for specific protein kinase activation, are major control elements in the cell cycle?

A)Rb proteins

B)cyclins

C)p53

D)cohesins

E)nonhistone chromosomal proteins

Q2) What term is used to describe a collection of cloned genomic fragments?

A)sequence

B)repository

C)fragmented genome

D)library

E)none of the above

Q3) Which histone protein is associated with the linker DNA and therefore not actually part of the nucleosome?

A)H1

B)H2A

C)H2B

D)H3

E)H4

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Chapter 25: DNA Replication

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Q1) Which of the subunits of DNA polymerase III is responsible for the high processivity of the enzyme?

A)\(\beta\)

B)\(\gamma\)

C)\(\delta\)

D)\(\delta\)'

E)\(\varepsilon\)

Q2) A mutation in a gene results in a mutant phenotype. What occurs if the wild-type phenotype is restored by a mutation at another site in the gene?

A)reversion

B)silent mutation

C)conjugation

D)silent conjugation

E)suppression

Q3) For the following sequence, indicate the RNA primer that would be needed to start synthesis of the Okazaki fragment.

5'-A-A-C-T-A-G-A-C-C-A-G-A-3'

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Chapter 26: DNA Restructuring: Repair, Recombination, Rearrangement, Amplification

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Q1) Which of the following coenzymes forms the photochemical reaction center of DNA photolyase?

A)NADH

B)thiamine pyrophosphate

C)biotin

D)FADH<sup>-</sup>

E)5-methyltetrahydrofolate

Q2) A transposable element in a eukaryotic cell is called a _____________.

A)retrotransposon

B)long terminal repeat

C)oncogene

D)replicative transposon

E)composite transposon

Q3) In order for lysogeny to occur, the enzyme ______________ must insert the phage DNA into a specific site in the bacterial chromosome.

A)ligase

B)lysogenase

C)helicase

D)integrase

E)none of the above

28

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Chapter 27: Information Readout: Transcription and Post-Transcriptional Processing

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/65205

Sample Questions

Q1) Give the mRNA sequence that would result from the following sense strand: 5'-A-T-C-T-C-G-A-T-C-G-T-A-C-G-A-T-G-T-C-A-3'

Q2) What type of RNA is found in the spliceosome?

A)snRNA

B)tRNA

C)rRNA

D)triple-stranded RNA

E)all of the above

Q3) Which of the following is the first event in the post-translational processing of an E. coli tRNA?

A)ribonuclease P cleavage to create the proper 5' end of the molecule

B)methylation of guanine residues

C)conversion of some uridine residues to pseudouridine

D)endonuclease cleavage of about 170 bases from the 3' end of the molecule

E)removal of 9 nucleotides from the 3' end by ribonuclease D

Q4) The figure below shows a newly transcribed mRNA still associated with the template DNA. Draw the stem-loop structure that often forms during termination.

Page 29

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Chapter 28: Information Decoding: Translation and Post-Translational

Protein Processing

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/65206

Sample Questions

Q1) What mRNA modification, just 5'to the start codon, is used by the eukaryotic cell to enable location of the first AUG codon?

A)a sequence of UAUAUA

B)a short sequence that forms a hairpin loop

C)a GC "box" that is recognized by eIFI

D)a string of four to five O-methylguanine residues

E)7-methylguanine cap on the 5' end of the mRNA

Q2) In prokaryotes, mRNA is ____________. In eukaryotes, mRNA is _____________.

A)equally monocistronic and polycistronic; mostly monocistronic

B)equally monocistronic and polycistronic; mostly polycistronic

C)mostly monocistronic; equally monocistronic and polycistronic

D)mostly polycistronic; equally monocistronic and polycistronic

E)mostly polycistronic; mostly monocistronic

Q3) Which position of the anticodon is called the wobble base and with which base of the codon does it pair?

A)the 3' anticodon base which pairs with the first base of the codon

B)the 3' anticodon base which pairs with the last base of the codon

C)the middle anticodon base which pairs with the middle base of the codon

D)the 5' anticodon base which pairs with the first base of the codon

E)the 5' anticodon base which pairs with the last base of the codon

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Chapter 29: Regulation of Gene Expression

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/65207

Sample Questions

Q1) Show how glutamine interacts with an A-T base pair as seen in the cI and Cro repressors.

Q2) An mRNA whose translation is controlled by binding of a metabolic end product such as flavin adenine dinucleotide or adenosylcobalamin is called a____________.

A)ribozyme

B)miRNA

C)riboswitch

D)regulatory RNA

E)none of the above

Q3) In a histone protein, what modification to lysine marks the nucleosome as a transcription target?

A)phosphorylation

B)methylation

C)ubiquitylation

D)ADP-ribosylation

E)acetylation

Q4) Design an antisense RNA that prevents the start of translation for any mRNA in an E. coli cell.

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