

Microbiology for Pre-Health Students
Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction
This course offers an in-depth introduction to the fundamental principles of microbiology with a focus on topics relevant to pre-health students. It covers the biology of microorganisms including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa their structure, function, genetics, and roles in health and disease. Students will explore microbial pathogenesis, the immune response, mechanisms of infection, antimicrobial control, and epidemiology. Emphasis is placed on understanding how microorganisms interact with the human body, disease prevention, laboratory diagnostics, and implications for public health and clinical practice. The course includes both lecture and hands-on laboratory components to develop essential skills for future healthcare professionals.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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22 Chapters
1728 Verified Questions
1728 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbes and Their Building
Blocks
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84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium,Bacillus anthracis?
A)Joseph Lister
B)Ignaz Semmelweis
C)Robert Koch
D)Louis Pasteur
E)Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
Answer: C
Q2) Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right):
A)family,order,class
B)family,genus,species
C)genus,species,family
D)class,phylum,order
E)kingdom,domain,phylum
Answer: B
Q3) The names of the three domains are: Bacteria,Protista,and Eukarya (Eukaryota).
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

Page 3
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Chapter 2: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing and Microscopic Analysis
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) No ferning of the vaginal fluid is detected,and you reassure your patient that her membranes have not ruptured.You explain that the laboratory technicians will use which five basic techniques (in order)to manipulate,grow,examine,and characterize any microorganisms present in the collected specimens?
A)isolation,incubation,inspection,identification,and inoculation
B)inspection,identification,isolation,incubation,and inoculation
C)identification,isolation,incubation,inspection,and inoculation
D)inoculation,incubation,isolation,inspection,and identification
Answer: D
Q2) A reducing medium contains
A)sugars that can be fermented.
B)extra oxygen.
C)hemoglobin,vitamins,or other growth factors.
D)substances that remove oxygen.
E)inhibiting agents.
Answer: D
Q3) Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

Page 4
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Chapter 3: Bacteria and Archaea
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88 Verified Questions
88 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell _____ can be composed of three layers: the cytoplasmic membrane,the cell wall,and the outer membrane.
A)glycocalyx
B)envelope
C)pathogenic package
D)slime coat
E)None of the choices is correct.
Answer: B
Q2) All bacterial cells have
A)one or more chromosomes.
B)one or more fimbriae.
C)the ability to produce endospores.
D)capsules.
E)flagella.
Answer: A
Q3) Pili used for conjugation are only found on gram-negative bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5

Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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77 Verified Questions
77 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All algae have chloroplasts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You look closely and see that some of the cells are producing filamentous structures called hyphae.A term referring to a yeast able to exist in a yeast or hyphal form is A)dioecious.
B)dimorphic.
C)dichotomous.
D)diurnal.
Q3) There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of _____ found inside eukaryotic flagella and cilia.
A)filaments
B)microtubules
C)flagella
D)cilia
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q4) Algae are classified into divisions based principally on their type of motility.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Viral Structure and Life Cycles
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the principal capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a(n)_____ capsid.
A)spiked
B)complex
C)icosahedral
D)helical
E)buckeyball
Q2) Host range is limited by
A)type of nucleic acid in the virus.
B)age of the host cell.
C)type of host cell receptors on cell membrane.
D)size of the host cell.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The development of antiviral drug therapy is difficult because
A)viruses are obligate intracellular parasites so the host cell can be harmed by the drug.
B)viruses do not have specific replication cycles that can be targeted.
C)viruses do not contain genetic material.
D)their life cycles do not have distinctive stages.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except A)psychrophiles.
B)anaerobes.
C)facultative anaerobes.
D)mesophiles
E)capnophiles.
Q2) Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement across the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A microaerophile
A)grows best in an anaerobic jar.
B)grows with or without oxygen.
C)needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen.
D)requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q4) Anaerobes can be cultured in a CO<sub>2</sub> environment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Microbial Metabolism
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following are denaturing agents except A)high temperature.
B)low temperature.
C)high pH.
D)low pH.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called A)substrates.
B)apoenzymes.
C)catalysts.
D)cofactors.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub> molecules are oxidized in which step of the aerobic respiration process?
A)electron transport system
B)Krebs cycle
C)glycolysis
D)step before Krebs cycle
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9

Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering
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111 Verified Questions
111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks _____ from initiating transcription.
A)DNA polymerase I
B)DNA polymerase III
C)RNA polymerase
D)mRNA
E)rRNA
Q2) A permanent,inheritable change in the genetic information is called
A)translation.
B)transcription.
C)mutation.
D)alteration.
E)regeneration.
Q3) Which of the following statements,by the patient's daughter,demonstrates her understanding of the function of tRNA?
A)"tRNA possesses an anticodon complementary to an mRNA codon."
B)"tRNA is an exact copy of a gene's DNA sequence."
C)"tRNA is a structural component of the ribosome."
D)"tRNA is responsible for regulating transcription and translation."
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Page 10

Chapter 9: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process called _____ will remain preserved and viable for years.
A)desiccation
B)flash freeze
C)lyophilization
D)pasteurization
E)sterilization
Q2) Ethylene oxide is
A)sporicidal.
B)only effective with high heat.
C)the active agent in household bleach.
D)used as an antiseptic against anaerobes.
E)a halogen.
Q3) Sterilization is achieved by A)flash pasteurization.
B)hot water.
C)boiling water.
D)steam autoclave.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Treatment
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78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobial required to inhibit the growth of the microbe.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Drug susceptibility testing determines
A)the patient's response to various antimicrobials.
B)the pathogen's response to various antimicrobials.
C)if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobials.
D)if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) Which antimicrobial does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
A)gentamicin
B)vancomycin
C)cephalosporins
D)penicillins
E)bacitracin
Q4) Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans
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98 Verified Questions
98 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sign is
A)an objective indication of disease.
B)a subjective indication of disease.
C)measurable by health care personnel.
D)temperature.
E)Both objective indication of disease and measurable by health care personnel are correct.
Q2) Infection occurs when
A)contaminants are present on the skin.
B)a person swallows microbes in/on food.
C)a person inhales microbes in the air.
D)pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are
A)fomites.
B)aerosols.
C)mechanical vectors.
D)droplet nuclei.
E)biological vectors.
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Chapter 12: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hematopoiesis is the
A)loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
B)production of only red blood cells.
C)production of white blood cells,red blood cells,and platelets.
D)plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
E)migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
Q2) Keratin is an important aspect of nonspecific defense because it
A)is toxic to pathogens.
B)creates a physical barrier against pathogens.
C)destroys pathogens.
D)physically restricts pathogens to a specific region.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) Which of the following is not an event of phagocytosis?
A)diapedesis
B)chemotaxis
C)phagolysosome formation
D)destruction
E)ingestion
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Chapter 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called A)antibodies.
B)sensitized T cells.
C)activated macrophages.
D)plasma cells.
E)bursa cells.
Q2) The major histocompatability complex is
A)glycoproteins,called MHC antigens,found on all body cells.
B)a set of genes that code for MHC glycoproteins.
C)found on the third chromosome.
D)located in the thymus gland.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a(n) A)PAMP.
B)marker.
C)hapten.
D)antibody.
E)antigen.
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Chapter 14: Disorders in Immunity
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?
A)degranulation
B)bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C)binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D)histamine acts on smooth muscle
E)prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Q2) Corticosteroids will
A)inhibit the activity of lymphocytes.
B)bind to histamine receptors on target organs.
C)block synthesis of leukotrienes.
D)relieve inflammatory symptoms.
E)reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles.
Q3) Fungal spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen?
A)ingestant
B)inhalant
C)injectant
D)contactant
E)None of the choices is correct.
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Chapter 15: Diagnosing Infections
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urine and fecal specimens require
A)sterile collection conditions.
B)incubation in differential media.
C)incubation in selective media.
D)both sterile collection conditions and incubation in differential media.
E)both incubation in differential media and incubation in selective media.
Q2) The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen,and not to react with any others is
A)cross reaction.
B)agglutination.
C)precipitation.
D)specificity.
E)sensitivity.
Q3) It is necessary to do lab tests to diagnose all diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents,a false positive result can occur.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is
A)enterotoxin.
B)hemolysin.
C)toxic shock syndrome toxin.
D)exfoliative toxin.
E)erythrogenic toxin.
Q2) Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?
A)pulmonary
B)gastrointestinal
C)cutaneous
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) What group of microorganisms do not usually call the skin "home"?
A)Streptococcus
B)Corynebacterium
C)Propionibacterium
D)yeasts
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Page 18

Chapter 17: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diseases are you most concerned about,considering the history Raj gave you?
A)meningitis
B)tetanus
C)polio
D)typhoid
Q2) Prions can be destroyed by autoclaving.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is the exotoxin of botulism?
A)hemolysin
B)tetanospasm
C)peroxidases
D)factor V
E)botulinum
Q4) What is the most likely diagnosis for Amanda?
A)prolonged sinus infection
B)meningitis
C)tumor of the cervical spine
D)necrotizing encephalitis
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should Suzanne's newborn baby be tested for HIV,assuming she does not breast-feed?
A)at birth
B)6 months of age
C)at birth and 6 months of age
D)every 6 months for 3 years
Q2) What has been the most successful treatment in reducing transmission of HIV from mother to baby?
A)antiretroviral therapy
B)protease inhibitors
C)transcriptase inhibitors
D)fusion inhibitors
Q3) Which is incorrect about malaria?
A)Merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells.
B)Trophozoites develop in RBCs.
C)The mosquito inoculates human blood with sporozoites.
D)Gametocytes enter the mosquito as she draws a blood meal from a human.
E)Cerebral malaria is a potential serious complication.
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory Systems
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tuberculin skin testing
A)injects PPD intradermally.
B)uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C)will be positive if the person has had previous exposure to TB.
D)will be positive if the person has active TB.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) People who have received the BCG immunization will generally have a negative tuberculin skin test.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following pertains to diphtheria?
A)results in meningitis
B)symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea
C)can be transmitted from mother's birth canal to neonate
D)prevented by the DTaP immunization
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) A paroxysmal cough is associated with Legionnaires' disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of schistosomiasis?
A)It is caused by blood flukes.
B)Larvae called cercariae can invade intact skin.
C)It may cause liver swelling or malfunction.
D)Worms can invade the brain.
E)It can "cloak" itself with proteins in the blood.
Q2) Which of the following is not a normal causative agent of acute diarrhea with vomiting (food poisoning)?
A)Clostridium perfringes
B)Staphylococcus aureus exotoxin
C)Clostridium difficile
D)Bacillus cereus
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which is mismatched?
A)hepatitis A virus - nonenveloped,single-stranded RNA enterovirus
B)hepatitis B virus - enveloped DNA virus
C)hepatitis C virus - RNA virus
D)hepatitis D virus - defective RNA virus that coinfects with HAV
E)hepatitis E virus - self-limiting RNA virus
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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69 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of vaginitis is
A)Candida albicans.
B)Escherichia coli.
C)Staphylococcus aureus.
D)Streptococcus pyogenes.
E)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Q2) The rash of secondary syphilis
A)causes severe itching.
B)is intensely painful.
C)only lasts a few days.
D)usually disappears spontaneously after a few weeks.
E)appears within 1 to 2 days of infection.
Q3) Gardasil prevents infection by group B Streptococcus types 6,11,16,and 18.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chlamydias can cross the placenta and cause intrauterine infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: One Health: The Interconnected Health of the Environment,
humans, and Other Animals
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59 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infectious disease typically seen among animals that may be acquired by humans is referred to as
A)zoophilic.
B)zoonotic.
C)nosocomial.
D)agronotic.
Q2) The activated sludge step in wastewater treatment is an example of the A)primary phase of wastewater treatment.
B)secondary phase of wastewater treatment.
C)tertiary phase of wastewater treatment.
Q3) Use of a trickling filter that sprays wastewater over rocks coated with bioflms which aerobically degrade organic matter is an example of A)primary phase of wastewater treatment.
B)secondary phase of wastewater treatment.
C)tertiary phase of wastewater treatment.
Q4) The reservoirs of West Nile virus are __________ and the vectors are
A)birds;mosquitoes
B)birds;humans
C)humans;birds
D)mosquitoes;birds

Page 24
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