Microbiology for Health Sciences
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Course
Introduction
Microbiology for Health Sciences introduces students to the fundamental principles of microbiology with an emphasis on topics relevant to healthcare. The course covers the structure, function, and diversity of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, as well as their roles in human health and disease. Students will explore the mechanisms of microbial pathogenesis, the basics of infection control, microbial genetics, and host immune responses. Practical applications such as aseptic technique, specimen collection, and the use of antimicrobial agents are also addressed, preparing students for clinical environments and emphasizing the importance of microbiology in preventing and managing infectious diseases.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology 9th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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1932 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right):
A)family, order, class
B)family, genus, species
C)genus, species, family
D)class, phylum, order
E)kingdom, domain, phylum
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method?
A)belief in a preconceived idea
B)formulate a hypothesis
C)systematic observation
D)laboratory experimentation
E)development of a theory
Answer: A
Q3) Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's 5 kingdoms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If carbon has an atomic number of 6 and an atomic mass of 14, how many neutrons does it have?
A)6
B)7
C)8
D)14
E)impossible to determine
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds?
A)triglycerides
B)monosaccharides
C)polypeptides
D)polysaccharides
E)ATP
Answer: D
Q3) Elements have predictable chemical properties.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of certain microbes in order to facilitate the growth of other microbes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct?
A)resolving power
B)magnification
C)refraction
D)All of the choices are correct
E)None of the choices are correct
Answer: A
Q3) _____ dyes have a negative charge on the chromophore and are repelled by bacterial cells.
Answer: acidic
Q4) Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed _____.
Answer: fastidious
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of bacterial endospores is
A)to convert gaseous nitrogen to a usable form for plants.
B)for reproduction and growth.
C)for protection of genetic material during harsh conditions.
D)the storage of excess cell materials.
E)to have sites for photosynthesis.
Q2) Bacterial endospores are not produced by A)Staphylococcus.
B)Sporosarcina.
C)Bacillus.
D)Clostridium.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Sarcinae refers to A)cocci in pairs.
B)a cuboidal packet of cells.
C)groups of endopsores.
D)coffee-bean shaped rods in pairs.
E)vibrios in threes.
Q4) The chemical components of ribosomes are proteins and _____.
Q5) Movement of a cell toward a chemical stimulus is termed _____.
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biologists have found evidence that eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic organisms by a process of intracellular _____.
Q2) Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of A)protozoa.
B)algae.
C)fungi. D)bacteria.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Chromosomes are not visible in the nucleus unless the cell is undergoing nuclear division.
A)True B)False
Q4) There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of _____ found inside eukaryotic flagella and cilia.
Q5) Compare and contrast the physical characteristics of protozoans, yeasts, and algae.
Q6) During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a _____.
Q7) Discuss the role of specific algal and fungal toxins in human disease.
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they
A)are gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane.
B)are gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane.
C)contain special virus proteins.
D)help the virus particle attach to host cells.
E)are located between the capsid and nucleic acid.
Q2) Viruses are ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How do enveloped animal viruses exit their host?
A)Budding or exocytosis
B)Bursting the host cell
C)Rupturing the virus
D)Endocytosis
E)None of these are correct
Q4) Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a _____ cell culture.
Q5) A naked virus does not have a(n) _____.
Q6) Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called _____.
Q7) Compare and contrast viruses, prions, and viroids.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial biofilms stimulate the immune system differently than planktonic bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The term chemotroph refers to an organism that
A)Uses CO<sub>2</sub> for its carbon source
B)Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C)Gets energy from sunlight
D)Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E)Does not need a carbon source
Q3) The term phototroph refers to an organism that
A)Uses CO<sub>2</sub> for its carbon source
B)Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C)Gets energy from sunlight
D)Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E)Does not need a carbon source
Q4) Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not involved in the step that occurs between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?
A)Reduction of NAD
B)Decarboxylation of pyruvic acid
C)Coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group
D)Dehydrogenation of pyruvic acid
E)Pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH
Q2) Exoenzymes from pathogens are called virulence factors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The step involving ATP, hexokinase and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is
A)The final step of the Krebs cycle
B)The first redox reaction of the electron transport system
C)An example of oxidative phosphorylation
D)An example of substrate-level phosphorylation
E)An example of photophosphorylation
Q4) Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts of prokaryotes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In bacteria, initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A screening system called the _____ test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential.
A)Koch
B)Ames
C)Mutation
D)Cancer
E)Iowa
Q3) The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called A)Histones
B)Amino acids
C)Nucleotides
D)mRNA
E)Polymerases
Q4) Transcription occurs in the nucleus or at the nucleoid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Geneticists can make complimentary DNA copies of messenger, transfer, and ribosomal RNA by using A)palindromes.
B)reverse transcriptases.
C)restriction endonucleases.
D)ligases.
E)DNA polymerases.
Q2) The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.
Q3) When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Western Blot technique detects A)DNA.
B)RNA.
C)proteins.
D)recombinant DNA.
E)specific genetic marker sequence on genes.
Q5) The two common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are _____ and _____.
Q6) Two different nucleic acids can _____ by uniting at their complementary sites. Page 12
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Iodophors include:
A)Chloramines.
B)Betadine.
C)Tincture of iodine.
D)Alcohols.
E)Chlorhexidine.
Q2) Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is:
A)disinfection.
B)sterilization.
C)antisepsis.
D)sanitization.
E)degermation.
Q3) Commercial products containing which types of chemicals are more effective at killing microorganisms?
A)bacteriostatic
B)bacteriocidal
C)carbohydrate
D)lead
E)None of these are correct.
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host-The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is mismatched?
A)Fleming - penicillin
B)Domagk - sulfonamide
C)Ehrlich - tetracycline
D)Florey and Chain - penicillin
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Drug susceptibility testing
A)determines the patient's response to various antimicrobics.
B)determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics.
C)determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobics.
D)determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient.
E)determines the pathogen's identity.
Q3) Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for AZT?
A)It is a thymine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis.
B)It directly binds to reverse transcriptase and prevents reverse transcription of HIV RNA.
C)It inhibits the assembly of HIV particles.
D)It inhibits fusion of the viral envelope and host cell envelope.
E)It prevents the viral DNA from integrating in the host chromosome.
Q4) _____ are plasmids that contain genes for resistance to a drug.
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection,
Disease, and Epidemiology
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Q1) Infection occurs when
A)contaminants are present on the skin.
B)a person swallows microbes in/on food.
C)a person inhales microbes in the air.
D)pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Sentinel animals are monitored for specific diseases in order to determine the potential for human exposure to a disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a A)fomite.
B)carrier.
C)vector.
D)reservoir.
E)source.
Q4) When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Components of the first line of defense include all the following, except A)the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin.
B)nasal hairs.
C)flushing action of tears and blinking.
D)flushing action of urine.
E)phagocytic white blood cells.
Q2) All of the following are types of granulocytes because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules when stained, except A)Eosinophils.
B)Monocytes.
C)Neutrophils.
D)Basophils.
E)They are all granulocytes.
Q3) Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called _____ because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic colors.
Q4) Certain complement components stimulate inflammation and phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells.
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Properties of effective antigens include all the following, except
A)foreign to the immune system.
B)molecular complexity.
C)large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000.
D)large polymers made up of repeating subunits.
E)cells or large, complex molecules.
Q2) All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except
A)a higher titer of antibody is produced than the primary response.
B)a longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response.
C)a quicker rate of antibody synthesis than the primary response.
D)it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced.
E)it is also known as the anamnestic response.
Q3) All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except
A)it should have a relatively long shelf life.
B)it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response.
C)it should protect against wild forms of the pathogen.
D)it should not require numerous boosters.
E)it should be easy to administer.
Q4) During presentation of APC-bound antigen, macrophages secrete the cytokine, _____, that activates T helper cells.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ___________ theory explains that during embryonic growth, some tissues are immunologically privileged.
Q2) Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type I hypersensitivity?
A)rhinitis
B)rashes
C)sneezing
D)diarrhea
E)contact dermatitis
Q3) Allergic _________ is a seasonal reaction to inhaled pollen or molds.
Q4) The heart of a baboon transplanted to a human would be a A)xenograft.
B)autograft.
C)allograft.
D)heterograft.
E)homograft.
Q5) Write a definition for immunopathology and discuss the four major categories of immune system responses with specific examples for each.
Q6) An _____ is any chronic local allergy.
Q7) The antigens to which allergic individuals are sensitive are termed _____.
19
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Flowcharts that offer two choices at each identifying level are called ___ keys.
Q2) The Widal test is used for diagnosing salmonellosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Precipitation tests involve all of the following, except:
A)they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection.
B)they include the VDRL test for syphilis.
C)they are often performed in agar gels.
D)they can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution.
E)a cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react
Q4) Describe the indirect ELISA test that is used as a screening test for HIV (AIDS) and include the following: a) sequence of procedures, b) reagents used, and c) detection and interpretation of a positive test.
Q5) In indirect fluorescent testing, fluorescent _____ are used to react with the Fc region of another, specific, serum antibody.
Q6) Describe three possible sampling sites and methods of collection for clinical laboratories.
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Q7) Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are enzymes used in _____ tests.
Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci
of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scarlet fever involves:
A)high fever.
B)bright red rash on face, trunk, inner arms and legs, and tongue.
C)eventual desquamation of epidermis.
D)septicemia as a complication.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis
C)Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Streptococcus agalactiae
Q3) Pneumovax is a vaccine for prevention of disease caused by strains of Neisseria meningitidis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the transmission of the meningococcus, and discuss the pathogenesis of meningococcal disease in the body including associated signs and symptoms.
Page 21
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Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true about diphtheria?
A)it is a zoonosis
B)humans can be healthy carriers
C)it is prevented with the DTaP vaccine
D)it is an upper respiratory infection
E)it can be transmitted via contaminated milk
Q2) Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of:
A)Clostridium botulinum.
B)Clostridium perfringens.
C)Clostridium difficile.
D)Clostridium tetani.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Botulism will always be a threat for people who:
A)are meat eaters.
B)are vegetarians.
C)have a weakened immune system.
D)consume home-preserved foods.
E)eat often in restaurants.
Q4) The _____ test injects 0.1 ml of PPD intradermally into the forearm.
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The member of the Enterobacteriaceae that has Enteroinvasive, Enterotoxigenic, Enteropathogenic, and Enterohemorrhagic strains is _____.
E.coli
Q2) Salmonella typhi
A)multiplies within phagocytes.
B)is not a coliform.
C)can be treated with antimicrobics.
D)causes invasive infection of the small intestine.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following is an agent of the sexually transmitted disease chancroid?
A)Haemophilus aegyptius
B)Haemophilus influenzae
C)Haemophilus parainfluenzae
D)Haemophilus ducreyi
E)Haemophilus aphrophilus
Q4) Pseudomonas is an enteric gram negative rod.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast shigellosis and salmonellosis.
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Q1) Control of rodent populations is important for preventing A)tick-borne relapsing fever.
B)ornithosis.
C)epidemic typhus.
D)Q fever.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted by direct sexual activity. A)True
B)False
Q3) Helicobacter pylori causes A)gastritis.
B)duodenal ulcers.
C)stomach ulcers.
D)increased risk for stomach cancer.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Bacteria that lose their cell walls due to penicillin or lysozyme and result in persistent wall-deficient bacteria are called _____.
Q5) Discuss the activities or professions that would increase the risk of contracting Coxiella burnetii.
Q6) Discuss the role of Ixodes scapularis and Ixodes pacificus in Lyme disease.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Q1) Dermatophytoses are
A)fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails.
B)also called ringworm.
C)also called tineas.
D)often time-consuming to eradicate completely.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The primary portal of entry for fungal infections is
A)the urinary tract.
B)through skin.
C)the respiratory tract.
D)the nervous system.
E)the digestive system.
Q3) Which is mismatched?
A)Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard
B)Tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot
C)Tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin
D)Tinea corporis - ringworm of the body
E)Tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails
Q4) Discuss at least 5 factors that predispose certain individuals to opportunistic fungal infections.
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) Transmission of the pathogen of leishmaniasis is by the
A)reduviid, "kissing," bug.
B)tsetse fly.
C)Anopheles mosquito.
D)phlebotomine (sand) fly.
E)hard bodied tick.
Q2) Loa Loa is an intestinal roundworm transmitted by contaminated food.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most cases of toxoplasmosis in patients that are not immunocompromised have the following symptoms:
A)bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss
B)fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain
C)urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge
D)chills, fever, and sweating
E)sore throat, low grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes
Q4) Hermaphroditic helminth species have separate male and female worms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most deadly form of systemic leishmaniasis is called _____.
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the
Dna Viruses
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Q1) Which infection are you likely looking at if you view a direct smear of a cervical scraping and see enlarged (multinucleate giant) cells and intranuclear inclusions?
A)HCV
B)EBV
C)HSV-2
D)VZV
E)HPV
Q2) The patients at greatest risk for severe cytomegalovirus infection include all the following, except:
A)individuals with hypertension.
B)organ transplant patients.
C)infants infected in utero.
D)AIDS patients.
E)bone marrow transplant patients.
Q3) Burkett lymphoma is a B-cell malignancy, usually of the jaw, associated with Epstein-Barr infection or coinfection with other diseases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) Yellow fever and Dengue fever are:
A)caused by arboviruses.
B)caused by viruses that disrupt capillaries and blood clotting.
C)zoonoses.
D)transmitted by a mosquito vector.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Documented transmission of HIV involves:
A)mosquitoes.
B)unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.
C)respiratory droplets.
D)contaminated food.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Symptoms of influenza include:
A)nasal discharge, mild fever, and absence of cough.
B)fever, diarrhea, vomiting.
C)fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, nasal discharge.
D)fever, sore throat, rash, cough.
E)fever and pneumonia.
Q4) Retroviruses have the enzyme _____ that catalyzes the replication of DNA from viral RNA.
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following are sources of greenhouse gases?
A)gastrointestinal tract of ruminants
B)combustion of fossil fuels
C)burning forests to clear agricultural land
D)decaying vegetation in swamps
E)all of these choices
Q2) Potable water is
A)contaminated.
B)polluted.
C)safe to drink.
D)foul testing.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Bacteria can function in all the following roles in an ecosystem, except as a A)primary producer.
B)consumer.
C)decomposer.
D)parasite.
E)Bacteria can function in all the roles listed.
Q4) Differentiate between the following terms and provide an example for each: mutualism, communalism, synergism, parasitism.
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a food intoxication?
A)Salmonellosis
B)Listerosis
C)Campylobacteriosis
D)Staphyloccocal enteritis
E)Vibrio enteritis
Q2) ____________ protein can be produced from waste materials such as molasses or petroleum by-products to be used as a food.
Q3) Regular refrigeration does not inhibit the growth of __________ microbes that can continue to grow and cause food spoilage.
Q4) Describe the major steps in water purification as carried out by a modern municipal treatment plant.
Q5) This organism is used to initiate the fermentation of cabbage to make sauerkraut:
A)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B)Leuconostoc mesenteroides
C)Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus
D)Propionibacterium
E)Spirulina
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