Microbiology for Health Sciences
Review Questions
Course Introduction
This course introduces students to the fundamental concepts of microbiology with a strong emphasis on their relevance to health sciences. Topics include the structure and function of microorganisms, microbial genetics, the role of microbes in health and disease, immunology, and mechanisms of infection and immunity. Students will explore the impact of microorganisms on human health, methods for controlling microbial growth, and principles of aseptic technique. The course prepares students pursuing health-related careers with the foundational knowledge necessary to understand infectious diseases and their prevention, diagnosis, and treatment.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th Edition by Cowan
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25 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which scientific name is written correctly?
A) S. aureus
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Staphylococcus Aureus
D) staphylococcus aureus.
E) Staphylococcus aureus..
Answer: E
Q2) The majority of oxygen in earth's atmosphere is a product of photosynthesis by ______.
A) rain forests
B) microorganisms
C) green plants
D) agricultural lands
Answer: B
Q3) Archaeal cells are about ______ bacterial cells.
A) ten times smaller than
B) the same size as
C) ten times larger than
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds?
A) Monosaccharides
B) Polypeptides
C) Triglycerides
D) ATP
E) Polysaccharides
Answer: E
Q2) The alpha (\(\alpha\))helix is a type of _____ protein structure.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
Answer: B
Q3) The purine ______ always hydrogen bonds with the pyrimidine ______ in double-stranded DNA.
A) cytosine; guanine
B) thymine; guanine
C) guanine; cytosine
D) adenine; guanine
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A differential interference contrast microscope uses dyes to give colored,three-dimensional images.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A scanning confocal microscope
A) produces specimen images on electron micrographs.
B) uses dyes that emit visible light when excited by ultraviolet radiation.
C) uses ultraviolet light to form a specimen image.
D) scans narrow planes and can build a three-dimensional image of the specimen.
Answer: D
Q3) The procedures for culturing a microorganism require the use of a microscope.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Fixed smears of specimens are required to perform the Gram stain or the endospore stain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemotaxis refers to the ability of a cell to
A) move in response to light.
B) move in response to a chemical.
C) transport desired molecules into a cell.
D) halt movement in response to a chemical.
Q2) Which is the correct order for the application of reagents in the Gram stain?
A) Crystal violet, iodine, alcohol/acetone, safranin
B) Iodine, safranin, crystal violet, alcohol/acetone
C) Crystal violet, alcohol/acetone, iodine, safranin
D) Crystal violet, safranin, iodine, alcohol/acetone
E) Safranin, crystal violet, alcohol/acetone, iodine
Q3) An irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells is termed ______.
A) staphylospirillum
B) streptobacillus
C) staphylobacillus
D) streptococcus
E) staphylococcus
Q4) The bacterial cell membrane is a site for many enzymes and metabolic reactions.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of ______.
A) helminths
B) protozoa
C) fungi
D) yeasts
E) algae
Q2) Fungi can reproduce both sexually and asexually.
A)True
B)False
Q3) After returning from a trip to Africa,Tom feels tired and weak and has severe anemia.A blood smear reveals a protozoan in his blood and the health care provider diagnoses malaria.Which of the following could be the causative agent of this disease?
A) Plasmodium vivax
B) Giardia lamblia
C) Trichophyton rubrum
D) Taenia solium
E) HIV
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viral nomenclature uses the same system as living organisms; a genus and specific epithet is designated for each virus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except
A) gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane.
B) gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane.
C) contain special virus proteins.
D) help the virus particle attach to host cells.
E) located between the capsid and nucleic acid.
Q3) The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is
A) penetration, uncoating, synthesis, adsorption, assembly, and release.
B) uncoating, penetration, synthesis, assembly, absorption, and release.
C) adsorption, penetration, uncoating, synthesis, assembly, and release.
D) assembly, synthesis, uncoating, release, penetration, and adsorption.
E) adsorption, release, synthesis, uncoating, assembly, and penetration.
Q4) Viruses are not filterable.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called ______.
A) lithoautotrophs
B) parasites
C) autotrophs
D) saprobes
E) phototrophs
Q2) The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the ______.
A) death phase
B) lag phase
C) prophase
D) exponential phase
E) stationary phase
Q3) The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Phosphorus is one of the major elements needed in larger quantities by microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: The Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a process that regenerates ATP?
A) Oxidative phosphorylation
B) Reductive phosphorylation
C) Substrate-level phosphorylation
D) Photophosphorylation
Q2) A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called ______.
A) substrates
B) apoenzymes
C) catalysts
D) cofactors
E) ribozymes
Q3) Cells generate ATP from the release of chemical energy from nutrients,whereas chlorophyll-containing organisms generate ATP via the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis as well as from the oxidation of nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ATP is composed of deoxyribose,adenine,and three phosphate groups.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each nucleotide is composed of
A) one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar.
B) one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars.
C) two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar.
D) two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars.
E) one phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, and one sugar.
Q2) Which of the following is not associated with a bacterial ribosome?
A) It is a 70s holoenzyme.
B) It has a peptide (P) site.
C) It has an exit site.
D) Its small subunit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds.
E) It has an amino acid (A) site.
Q3) Recombinant organisms are those that have received new DNA in the form of a conjugated plasmid; genetically engineered cells are not considered recombinant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The smallest unit of heredity is a chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Q1) A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is ______.
A) genetic engineering
B) biotechnology
C) recombinant DNA
D) gel electrophoresis
E) gene probes
Q2) Humans display how much DNA similarity with mice?
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
E) 90%
Q3) The study of genomes of a particular community is called ______.
A) metabolomics
B) proteomics
C) genomology
D) genomics
E) metagenomics
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12
Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following except ______.
A) ultraviolet radiation
B) boiling water
C) pasteurization
D) hydrogen peroxide
Q2) _____ radiation excites atoms to a higher energy state within molecules such as DNA,which leads to the formation of pyrimidine dimers.
A) Ultraviolet
B) Ionizing
C) Infrared
D) Gamma
E) Particle
Q3) Pasteurization
A) kills all vegetative forms.
B) reduces the number of vegetative forms.
C) reduces the number of endospores.
D) increases food nutrient value.
E) is used to sterilize food products.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which two antibiotics affect nucleic acids of bacteria?
A) Tetracycline and amphotericin B
B) Trimethoprim and sulfonamides
C) Rifampin and quinolones
D) Tetracycline and bacitracin
E) Penicillin and vancomycin
Q2) Selective toxicity exhibited by a drug means that
A) the drug is effective against the target organism, but not the human host.
B) the drug kills some organisms but not others.
C) the drug is effective against gram-positive bacteria but not gram-negative.
D) the drug is toxic to the human host but ineffective against the organism.
Q3) The use of vaginal inserts of Lactobacillus to restore a healthy acidic environment is an example of ______.
A) prebiotics
B) probiotics
C) lantibiotics
D) phytobiotics
E) riboswitches
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14
Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assume that there are 335,104 new cases of gonorrhea reported among the U.S.population.When calculated,this would be 115.2 per 100,000 or approximately 1 reported case per 1,000 population.The value represents ______.
A) prevalence rate
B) incidence rate
C) morbidity rate
D) mortality rate
Q2) An endotoxin is ______.
A) secreted by pathogenic organisms
B)indicative of gram-negative bacterial infection
C) secreted by gram-positive organisms
D) indicative of fungal infections
E) indicative of viral infections
Q3) Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called ______.
A) syndromes
B) malaise
C) inflammation
D) asymptomatic
E) secondary infections
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Q1) The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation,contain peroxidase and lysozyme,and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are ______.
A) basophils
B) lymphocytes
C) eosinophils
D) monocytes
E) neutrophils
Q2) Which body region is protected by fatty acids,acidic pH,lactic acid,and a tough cell barrier with its own normal biota?
A) Eyes
B) Skin
C) Urinary tract
D) Digestive tract
E) Respiratory tract
Q3) Which of the following fluid compartments is not a partner in immune function?
A) Extracellular fluid
B) Intracellular fluid
C) Blood stream
D) Lymphatic system
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines
A) contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
B) contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
C) utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen.
D) confer passive immunity.
E) are always genetically engineered.
Q2) Which of the following is not a target for T<sub>C</sub> cells?
A) Pig transplanted heart
B) Human transplanted liver
C) Virus-infected cells
D) Cancer cells
E) Bacteria
Q3) Antibody molecules circulate in lymph,blood,and tissue fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q4) After secreting antibodies during an immune response,plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following can result in acquired immune deficiency except ______.
A) enzyme deficiency
B) stress
C) malnutrition
D) radiation treatment
E) bacterial infection
Q2) A xenograft is graft tissue from a donor of one species transplanted to a recipient of another species.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes occurs in
A) hemolytic disease of the newborn.
B) anaphylaxis.
C) serum sickness.
D) delayed hypersensitivity.
Q4) Eczema is an autoimmune disorder.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of test affixes an antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead?
A) Precipitation
B) Cross-reactions
C) Agglutination
D) Sensitivity
E) Specificity
Q2) Microarrays,hybridization tests,and ribotyping are increasing in frequency in their use in clinical labs for diagnosis of infectious diseases and the microorganisms causing them.Why is this?
A) They have greater specificity for the organism because they employ specific antibody.
B) They are cheaper than biochemical tests.
C) The tests are more easily performed in a doctor's office or hospital, right there where the specimens are taken.
D) Genomic testing has less errors compared to biochemical tests and serological tests.
Q3) The polymerase chain reaction requires endonuclease to cut samples of DNA.
A)True
B)False
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19
Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Despite the fact that skin-to-skin contact is important in establishing bonding between babies and their caregivers,that same contact can also expose them to pathogens.You have been asked to teach a short class for child care workers to help them identify highly contagious diseases that can cause outbreaks in their environment.Which two of these conditions are most common and most infectious in babies?
A) Impetigo and ringworm
B) Impetigo and cellulitis
C) Impetigo and conjunctivitis
D) Conjunctivitis and rubella
E) Ringworm and hand, foot, and mouth disease
Q2) Chickenpox is caused by an orthopoxvirus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following skin defenses and its mechanism is mismatched?
A) Antimicrobial peptides; disrupt positively charged bacterial membranes
B) Sebum; lipid hydrolysis leads to toxic by-products that inhibit microbial growth
C) Lysozyme; hydrolyzes peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls
D) Keratinized surface; protein that provides waterproofing
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organism responsible for the majority of neonatal meningitis is ______.
A) Listeria monocytogenes
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Neisseria meningitidis
D) Haemophilus influenzae
E) Escherichia coli K1
Q2) Cultivation of Coccidioides species to confirm a diagnosis of Valley Fever is accomplished by plating the samples on ______ agar.
A) birdseed
B) Sabourad's
C) chocolate
D) blood
Q3) Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involves the development of A) fever, headache, and rash.
B) coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases.
C) myalgia and orbital pain.
D) muscle aches and joint stiffness.
E) All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic
Systems
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding sepsis is incorrect?
A) The presence of microbes in the blood results in increased viscosity, and a rise in blood pressure is a hallmark of sepsis.
B) Both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria in the blood can induce sepsis.
C) The Gram-negative cell envelope stimulates an inflammatory response that leads to endotoxic shock.
D) A sample of blood plated on a variety of bacterial media is a good method to identify the causative organism in sepsis.
Q2) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding malaria?
A) Trophozoites develop in red blood cells.
B) Gametocytes enter the mosquito as she draws a blood meal from a human.
C) Merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells.
D) The mosquito inoculates human blood with sporozoites.
Q3) Aedes mosquitoes are the vectors involved in Chikungunya and dengue fever.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lyme disease is only seen in people living in Lyme,Connecticut.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Q1) The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is ______.
A) catalase
B) reverse transcriptase
C) hyaluronidase
D) neuraminidase
E) kinase
Q2) Legionella pneumophila
A) requires special lab growth media.
B) often lives intracellularly in amoebas.
C) causes fever, cough, and diarrhea.
D) always causes a severe pneumonia.
Q3) Of the six Category A diseases listed by the U.S.Public Health Service,which affect/s the respiratory tract?
A) Botulism
B) Pneumonic plague
C) Tularemia
D) Smallpox
E) Both pneumonic plague and tularemia are correct.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements concerning archaea in the microbiome is correct?
A) Archaea evolved under extreme conditions and are not commensal with humans.
B) The human body is a hostile environment for archaea.
C) Methanogens are associated with anaerobic regions of the gut and the gingival pockets.
D) Archaeal infections are treated with translation inhibitors, as their ribosomes are the same as bacterial ribosomes.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding Campylobacter infection is incorrect?
A) It can lead to Guillain-Barre syndrome.
B) It is caused by a shiga toxin.
C) Campylobacter burrows into the mucosa of the ileum and multiplies.
D) It can last over 2 weeks.
E) It can cause acute temporary paralysis.
Q3) The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea in the United States is ______.
A) Campylobacter
B) Salmonella
C) E. coli
D) Shigella
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) A patient in your clinic has tested positive for syphilis,and following his visit,you must prepare the room for future use.To avoid spreading this organism to other patients,the best approach is to
A) contact the CDC for guidance on proper cleaning.
B) clean all surfaces with a common disinfectant.
C) discard all linens and instruments in biohazard containers.
D) lock the room and post a sign that it must be professionally decontaminated.
Q2) Why does the microbiota of the reproductive tract change as the female ages from childhood to adulthood to old age?
A) Her estrogen and progesterone levels change over time.
B) The pH of the vagina changes over time.
C) The microbes in the vagina change the environment, which affects the populations of microbes living there.
D) Post-menopausal women have a stable microbiota.
E) All of these statements are true.
Q3) Chlamydia infection can lead to cervicitis,salpingitis,and pelvic inflammatory disease.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Q1) The thermocline is broken down by temperature changes that allow upwelling to occur.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Methane is a significant part of the carbon cycle in ______ environments dominated by methanogens.
A) autotrophic
B) anaerobic
C) thermophilic
D) oligotrophic
Q3) You are preparing a garden and want to provide the best environment for your plants.Which of the following would you add to the potting soil?
A) Sulfur oxidizers
B) Coliform bacteria
C) Mycorrhizae inoculant
D) Bacteriophage
Q4) The primary role of producers is the recycling of nutrients in an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety
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Q1) A device in which mass cultures are grown,reactions take place,and product develops is a(n)______.
A) fermentor
B) activator
C) incubator
D) sparger
Q2) The final treatment of sewage before release into the environment is ______.
A) aeration
B) filtration
C) skimming
D) sludge digesting
E) chlorination
Q3) Which of the following is not a step in the mass production of an organic substrate in a fermentor?
A) Remove waste products and dispose responsibly.
B) Add enzymes to catalyze all required steps in the process.
C) Inoculate the sterile media in the growth vessel with the microbe of interest.
D) Adjust the environmental conditions for optimal growth of the organism.
E) Harvest cells and purify the product.
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