Microbiology for Health Sciences
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Microbiology for Health Sciences provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts of microbiology with a focus on microorganisms relevant to human health. The course covers the structure, classification, physiology, and genetics of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. Emphasis is placed on the mechanisms of pathogenicity, host-microbe interactions, principles of infection control, immunological response, and the role of microorganisms in disease transmission. Students will also explore the application of microbiology in healthcare settings, including diagnostics, sterilization techniques, antimicrobial agents, and emerging infectious diseases, preparing them for clinical practice and public health challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience 1st Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Sample Questions
Q1) The discovery of ________ first stimulated the funding of millions of dollars into medical research.
A) penicillin
B) the structure of DNA
C) DNA sequencing
D) vaccines
Answer: A
Q2) Consider the statement below.Evaluate whether you agree or disagree with this statement and provide evidence supporting your position. "Microorganisms are dangerous to human existence."
Answer: A variety of answers are acceptable so long as they mention the positive and negative effects of microorganisms and provide appropriate evidence to support their claim.
Q3) Which scientist is credited with constructing the first microscope?
A) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
B) Catherine of Siena
C) Robert Hooke
D) Louis Pasteur
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Q1) A fever is often a host response to a pathogen.As such,fever is an example of
Answer: immunopathology
Q2) The most dangerous potential bioterrorism agents have what portal of entry into the human body?
A) respiratory
B) urogenital
C) parenteral
D) fecal
Answer: D
Q3) Infectious dose is measured by determining how many microbes are required to cause
A) disease symptoms in half of an experimental group of hosts.
B) death in half of an experimental group of hosts.
C) disease symptoms in all of an experimental group of hosts.
D) death in all of an experimental group of hosts.
Answer: A
Q4) A disease that can spread to humans from nonhuman animals is known as a ________ disease.
Answer: zoonotic
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is FALSE about a properly completed Gram stain?
A) It is a key tool used in the identification of bacterial species.
B) It is reliable only for fresh cultures.
C) It differentiates bacteria based on their cell wall components.
D) At the completion of the stain, Gram-negative cells stain purple.
Answer: D
Q2) Compare and contrast darkfield,phase-contrast,and fluorescence microscopy.
Answer: Darkfield,phase-contrast,and fluorescence microscopy are all types of light microscopy.Darkfield uses a special condenser that blocks out transmitted light from the specimen;therefore,the image appears light against a black background.Phase-contrast also uses light;however,because of the high concentration of solutes,the light is refracted differently throughout the cell.Fluorescence microscopy allows the visualization of specific cellular molecules within the sample.Visible light is used along with fluorescent dyes,which stain the specimen.These fluorophores are excited with different wavelengths of light and emit colors.
Q3) In an acid-fast stain,carbolfuchsin specifically stains ________ of Mycobaterium tuberculosis.
Answer: mycolic acid
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) A molecule of ATP undergoes hydrolysis yielding AMP and two molecules of phosphate.Which of the following is true of this reaction?
A) The entropy has decreased.
B) The change in free energy, DG, is positive.
C) The change in free energy, DG, is negative.
D) The reaction is endergonic.
Q2) The molecular formula of the amino acid glycine is C H NO .What is the molecular formula of a glycine pentapeptide?
Q3) An exergonic reaction may still be slow if
A) the activation energy is high.
B) an enzyme is present.
C) product concentrations are low.
D) reactant concentrations are high.
Q4) The second law of thermodynamics states that
A) energy is neither created nor destroyed.
B) matter is neither created nor destroyed.
C) in energy transformations, disorder tends to increase.
D) in energy transformations, disorder tends to decrease.
Q5) ________ is the general name for a six-carbon sugar.
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) Which of the following helps compact bacterial DNA?
A) the origin of replication site
B) supercoils
C) porins
D) pilins
Q2) What is the cellular target of penicillin (the first antibiotic discovered)?
A) the DNA genome
B) the cell wall
C) ribosomes
D) ABC transporters
Q3) In Gram-negative bacteria,peptidoglycan is found in the A) cytoplasm.
B) inner membrane.
C) outer membrane.
D) periplasm.
Q4) Describe the two types of energy cells used to move molecules across membranes against their concentration gradients.
Q5) In the process of ________,a vesicle fuses with the cell membrane,releasing vesicle contents into the extracellular environment.
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) Within aquatic environments,bacteria are mainly found associated with surfaces in the form of a ________.
Q2) Which of the following could describe the relationship between the cyanobacterium Nostoc and E.coli related to the carbon cycle?
A) Nostoc produces carbohydrates from lithotrophy, and E. coli breaks down the carbohydrates to generate CO .
B) Nostoc produces carbohydrates from phototrophy, and E. coli breaks down the carbohydrates to generate CO .
C) Nostoc produces CO that E. coli turns into carbohydrates.
D) E. coli produces carbohydrates that Nostoc uses as energy to produce more carbohydrates.
Q3) What is a batch culture? Describe how it can be used to illustrate the bacterial growth curve.
Q4) What is the correct term for the chemical conversion shown below? N NH
A) phototrophy
B) nitrification
C) denitrification
D) nitrogen fixation
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) During photosynthesis,ATP is produced via
A) oxidation of glucose.
B) transfer of a phosphate from NADPH onto ADP.
C) ATP synthase powered by a pmf.
D) ATP synthase powered directly by light.
Q2) Which of the pathways below are in the correct order for the flow of electrons from glucose to oxygen in aerobic respiration?
A) glycolysis, ETS, TCA
B) glycolysis, fermentation, TCA
C) TCA, glycolysis, ETS
D) glycolysis, TCA, ETS
Q3) Photosynthesis helps mitigate global warming by
A) adding O to the atmosphere.
B) removing O from the atmosphere.
C) removing CO from the atmosphere.
D) adding CO to the atmosphere.
Q4) Biosynthetic reactions are also known as ________ reactions.
Q5) Why does sugar production from CO require NADPH in addition to ATP? In other words,why is ATP not sufficient?
Page 9
Q6) The ultimate goal of the Calvin cycle is to produce ________.
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Q1) Proteins that assist the folding of newly formed proteins are known as ________.
Q2) Which repair process leads to an abasic site as part of the repair pathway?
A) base excision repair
B) methyl mismatch repair
C) recombination
D) SOS repair
Q3) Plasmids usually contain genes that are
A) important for cell survival in all environments.
B) important for cell survival in particular environments.
C) not important for cell survival in any environments.
D) composed of single-stranded DNA.
Q4) Which of the following is found in eukaryotic but not prokaryotic genomes?
A) promoters
B) operons
C) introns
D) genes
Q5) Why might the insertion or deletion of three base pairs in a gene be less harmful than the insertion or deletion of only one or two base pairs?
Q6) Transcription of genes starts at regions of the genome called ________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) The marine organism Chromohalobacter salexigens contains two homologous genes responsible for the conversion of a-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA.A third gene contains a similar sequence and appears to have evolved from the other two genes to complete a different function.This is an example of ________ genes.
A) paralog
B) ortholog
C) degenerate
D) nonfunctional
Q2) Renaming Pasteurella pestis to Yersinia pestis alters the ________ of the organism.
A) classification
B) nomenclature
C) identification
D) homology
Q3) Describe how horizontal gene transfer could lead to the emergence of a new bacterial pathogen.
Q4) ________ is important for analyzing and comparing the genomic sequences of organisms.
Q5) The enzyme ________ is important for generalized recombination.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Many Proteobacteria are referred to as ________ because they oxidize minerals for energy.
Q2) Which of the following pathogens would most likely thrive in a growth media with an extremely low pH?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Moraxella catarrhalis
D) Helicobacter pylori
Q3) Which of the following characteristics is associated with bacteria in the phylum Firmicutes and most likely helps them survive dryness?
A) a thick waxy coat that excludes Gram stain
B) horizontal gene transfer between two cells
C) thick cell walls with multiple layers of peptidoglycan
D) an ability to ferment sugars to lactic acid
Q4) Which of the following is considered metabolically INACTIVE?
A) an elementary body of Chlamydia trachomatis
B) a reticulate body of Chlamydophila pneumonia
C) a vegetative Bacillus anthracis cell
D) a biofilm containing Bacteroides
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Q1) Why is perianal itching significant in the life cycle of pinworms?
A) When a host scratches the anus, pinworm larvae enter the bloodstream.
B) Eggs are trapped under fingernails and transferred to new hosts.
C) Scratching allows mature worms to break through the surface of the skin.
D) Transmission of pinworms ends when the host scratches the anus.
Q2) The parasite that causes malaria has a complex life cycle involving both a definitive and an intermediate host.This parasitic protist also contains an elaborate cortex.This parasite is best categorized as a(n)
A) fungus.
B) trypanosome.
C) alveolate.
D) alga.
Q3) Describe how the parasites that cause malaria are able to evade an immune response during an infection.
Q4) What distinguishing characteristic places helminths and arthropods under the category of "eukaryotic microbiology" and outside of the category of "true" microbes?
Q5) Obligate parasites with a single flagellum,a complex life cycle,and unique organelles called "kinetoplasts" are known specifically as ________.
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics do HPV and HIV have in common?
A) They are both retroviruses.
B) They both have overlapping genes.
C) They are both DNA viruses.
D) The have the same tissue tropism.
Q2) If 100% of the DNA contents of a transducing bacteriophage were DNA from the host chromosome,what would happen when the bacteriophage infected a new bacterial cell?
A) More bacteriophage would be synthesized, resulting in death of the new bacterial cell.
B) No more bacteriophage would be synthesized, as there is no bacteriophage genome available to direct synthesis.
C) The new bacterial cell would die.
D) The bacteriophage would be converted from a lysogenic phage to a lytic bacteriophage.
Q3) How is HPV able to keep its genome so small?
A) overlapping reading frames
B) oncogenic transformation
C) antigenic shift
D) HPV does not have a small genome.
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) Drug A has a toxic dose of 17 g/kg of body weight and a therapeutic dose of 8 g/kg of body weight.Drug B has a toxic dose of 6 g/kg of body weight and a therapeutic dose of 4 g/kg of body weight.Which of the following statements is true?
A) Drug B is the safer drug.
B) Drug A is the safer drug.
C) Drug B has a higher therapeutic index.
D) Drug A has a lower therapeutic index.
Q2) Drug sensitivity occurs when a(n)
A) drug is broken down by a pathogenic organism.
B) organism is inhibited by a drug.
C) individual develops an allergic reaction to a drug he or she is taking.
D) drug that is used to inhibit the growth of an organism is no longer capable.
Q3) The cotreatment of septic Enterococcus infections with vancomycin and an aminoglycoside is an example of antibiotic
A) synergism.
B) antagonism.
C) sensitivity.
D) resistance.
Q4) ________ is a category of antifungal agents that inhibits DNA synthesis.
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an accurate description for epithelial cells?
A) interconnected
B) symmetrical
C) held together by tight junctions
D) glycoprotein-covered
Q2) Production of indole by E.coli tells host intestinal epithelial cells to tighten tight junctions and increase production of ________.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a current or possible future fecal transplant method?
A) colonoscopy
B) endoscopy
C) blood infusion
D) capsule ingestion
Q4) Why do individuals take probiotics?
A) to directly kill intestinal pathogens
B) to secrete hormones that lead to weight loss
C) to provide a more fermentative environment
D) to restore balance to the microbial community
Q5) Fecal transplants can be used to treat ulcerative colitis caused by ________.
Q6) Sequestered body sites tend to be ________.
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Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a white blood cell (WBC)?
A) mast cell
B) macrophage
C) monocyte
D) erythrocyte
Q2) Gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)includes all of the following EXCEPT A) tonsils.
B) adenoids.
C) M cells.
D) alveolar macrophages.
Q3) Draw and label the process of phagocytosis.Be sure to speak to the main steps in the pathway (adherence,ingestion,and phagolysome formation/destruction).What would happen if an organism was able to avoid phagocytosis?
Q4) All of the following are true regarding NK cells EXCEPT that they A) are a type of lymphocyte.
B) have the ability to kill infected host cells.
C) destroy cells via phagocytosis.
D) release toxic substances that induce cellular death.
Page 17
Q5) Compare and contrast the innate and adaptive immune responses.
Q6) Toll-like receptors recognize ________ on pathogenic microorganisms.
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Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following scenarios is an example of an allotypic difference?
A) A single amino acid change gives rise to a new form of IgG antibody in humans.
B) Humans and dogs have slightly different immunoglobulins.
C) A human is able to generate antigen specificity by rearranging genes.
D) There are five major classes of immunoglobulins within an individual.
Q2) A newborn receives passive immunity through A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgD.
D) IgE.
Q3) Individuals with bare lymphocyte syndrome lack MHC II proteins.Which of the following could still occur in an individual lacking MHC II proteins?
A) Helper T cells could use T-cell receptors to interact with macrophages.
B) B cells could produce IgM antibodies.
C) Cytotoxic T cells could become activated.
D) B cells could undergo class switching independently.
Q4) Immunoglobulin proteins are also known as ________.
Q5) Explain the role of Class II MHC in B-cell activation.
Q6) Describe the two-step molecular process required to activate TH0 cells.
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) Patients with primary immunodeficiencies and who are immunosuppressed are prone to developing cancers.Which is the most commonly developed cancer for these patients?
A) Epstein-Barr
B) B-cell lymphomas
C) myelomas
D) mononucleosis
Q2) Complement deficiencies are
A) acquired during life.
B) X-linked.
C) inherited autosomal traits.
D) treated with antivirals.
Q3) All of the following regarding immunoprecipitation are correct EXCEPT
A) it is observed both in vitro and in vivo.
B) too many antigens cause the test not to work.
C) too many antibody molecules cause the test not to work.
D) equivalence is the point at which there are roughly the same number of antigenic and antigen-binding sites.
Q4) Antigens that possess structures similar in shape to host structures are called
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)primarily targets which subset of immune cells?
A) CD8+ T cells
B) CD4+ T cells
C) macrophages
D) dendritic cells
Q2) Biofilm infections are important clinically because
A) WBC easily penetrate biofilms.
B) bacteria in biofilms are more susceptible to antimicrobial compounds.
C) bacteria in biofilms can persist against host defenses.
D) bacteria in biofilms do not grown on medical devices.
Q3) Explain the difference between antigenic drift and antigenic shift.How might antigenic shift relate to the generation of a new flu pandemic?
Q4) Draw and label an AB toxin.List two diseases that are caused by AB toxins.
Q5) Which statement about horizontal gene transfer is correct?
A) Few pathogenicity islands are generated by horizontal transmission.
B) Horizontal gene transfers move whole blocks of DNA from one organism to another.
C) Horizontal gene transfer helps pathogens evolve.
D) All genes code for toxins.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) CASE HISTORY
Jennifer remembered the day she was shot,but not the day they had to remove her leg.She was camping in the middle of the Black Hills of South Dakota when an unseen hunter tried to shoot a deer.He missed his prey,but the errant bullet traveled a great distance and tore through Jennifer's thigh.In tremendous pain,Jennifer fashioned a tourniquet to stop the bleeding and then struggled two days to hike the ten miles back to civilization.By the time she arrived at a hospital,the wound and underlying muscle were clearly infected.The area around the wound was reddened and contained fluid-filled blisters,and parts were starting to turn black.The drainage coming from the wound contained pus and was foul smelling,all signs of gas gangrene.The surgical team worked to debride the dead tissue and placed her on intravenous antibiotic therapy (clindamycin).The microbiology laboratory reported finding Clostridium perfringens in the samples sent.Despite treatment,including hyperbaric oxygen,the infection continued spreading further up her leg.The surgeons finally decided that amputation was the only way to save her life.
Why might hyperbaric oxygen have been suggested as a treatment for Jennifer following the return of her lab results?
Q2) Necrotizing fasciitis is often caused by ________.
Q3) Opthalmia neonatorum is a serious eye disease of infants caused by ________.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) A young boy with a sore throat,cervical lymphadenopathy,and a low-grade fever is seen by his physician.Upon examination,his physician notes a thick,grayish membrane that bleeds when scraped covering the boy's tonsils and soft palate.A bacterial culture will most likely reveal the presence of
A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Moraxella catarrhalis.
D) Bordetella pertussis.
Q2) The two bacterial diseases of the respiratory system that are prevented by the DTaP vaccine are ________.
Q3) A young man who enjoys spelunking,the recreational sport of exploring caves,develops a flu-like pulmonary illness along with erythema nodosum and arthralgia.The most likely fungal infection in this man is A) histoplasmosis.
B) coccidioidomycosis.
C) cryptococcosis.
D) blastomycosis.
Q4) Moraxella catarrhalis may cause bacterial ________.
Q5) Coccidioidomycosis is endemic in the ________ United States.
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) Pulmonary arteries carry
A) oxygenated blood toward the heart.
B) deoxygenated blood toward the heart.
C) oxygenated blood toward the lungs.
D) deoxygenated blood toward the lungs.
Q2) The antibiotic most commonly used to treat the major systemic bacterial infections is
A) penicillin.
B) fluoroquinolones.
C) ceftriaxone.
D) tetracycline.
Q3) Which periodontal pathogen has been found within atherosclerotic plaques?
A) Streptococcus mutans
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Chlamydophila pneumoniae
D) Porphyromonas gingivalis
Q4) The herpes virus that initially infects the oropharyngeal epithelium,tonsils,and salivary glands,and is associated with endemic Burkitt's lymphoma,is known as
Q5) The definitive host in the life cycle of lymphatic filariasis is a ________.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Lactobacillus species are a major type of probiotic.Describe one positive aspect of Lactobacillus and one negative aspect.
Q2) The most common sign of a gastrointestinal infection is ________,having three or more loose stools per day.
Q3) Jack presents at the clinic with mild nausea,vomiting,abdominal pain,and jaundice.The most likely cause of Jack's condition is ________.
Q4) What is the problem with antihelminth drugs?
A) They are not able to completely eliminate the worm from the body.
B) They are not able to kill the worm.
C) They are not able to starve the worm.
D) There is no problem with antihelminth drugs.
Q5) A recall on spinach potentially contaminated with Yersinia enterocolitica occurs.Sally hears about the recall but has kept her spinach in the refrigerator.She figures that even if her spinach had been contaminated,the organism will not grow in the refrigerator.Therefore,the number of organisms present will be so small that even if her spinach is contaminated,she will not be affected.Is Sally correct? Explain.
Q6) ________ can result from overcrowding/bad hygiene as well as eating undercooked seafood.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen?
A) genital herpes
B) gonorrhea
C) candidiasis
D) chancroid
Q2) The observation of a "strawberry" cervix is a symptom of
A) lymphogranuloma venereum.
B) candidiasis.
C) genital herpes.
D) trichomoniasis.
Q3) What is the purpose of the fimbriae on the end of the fallopian tube?
A) to help the fallopian tube move into position
B) performs a sweeping motion to capture the ovum
C) to keep microbes out of the fallopian tube
D) helps to fertilize the ovum
Q4) The urinary tract is composed of all of the following EXCEPT the A) vagina.
B) kidneys.
C) bladder.
D) urethra.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) poliomyelitis - respiratory route
B) meningococcal meningitis - respiratory route
C) rabies - direct contact
D) listeriosis - ingestion
Q2) Which of the following is true about CSF?
A) Inflammatory cells are found in both healthy and unhealthy CSF.
B) It helps to diagnose infections of the central nervous system.
C) The identification of PMNs in CSF indicates a viral infection.
D) CSF is collected via the placement of a shunt in the vertebral column.
Q3) Explain the transmission,etiologies,and diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
Q4) Which of the following is treated with antibiotics?
A) botulism
B) tetanus
C) streptococcal pneumonia
D) polio
Q5) Inflammation of the meninges is called ________,while inflammation of the brain is called ________.
Q6) One of the complications of poliomyelitis is damage to the ________ nerve,which interferes with breathing.
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) Lumbar puncture is the most common method for obtaining a sample of A) blood.
B) cerebrospinal fluid.
C) synovial fluid.
D) peritoneal fluid.
Q2) A point-of-care (POC)assay that fails to identify 50% of individuals with a disease has low ________.
Q3) Ten patients are diagnosed with shigellosis.Explain the importance of having a clinical laboratory identify the strains of Shigella in each patient.
Q4) Biochemical tests would most likely be used to diagnose A) whooping cough.
B) strep throat.
C) HIV.
D) Lyme disease.
Q5) Body sites that contain no microorganisms are considered to be ________.
Q6) Growth of a bacterium in the presence of bile salts indicates the organism is ________.
Q7) Describe the group of bacteria classified by Lancefield classification and explain the differences that define the classifications.
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) One potential bioweapon is a virus that has been eradicated from natural populations;only two WHO-sanctioned laboratories still maintain vials of this virus.This virus is ____.
Q2) An elderly man is admitted to a hospital after he experiences a heart attack.Four days after his admission he is diagnosed with pneumonia caused by Pseudomonas.Three other patients in the same hospital at the same time also develop pneumonia caused by Pseudomonas.List at least four key questions an infectious disease epidemiologist would want answered as the source of these infections is investigated.
Q3) Explain why it is important to recognize "patient zero" during an epidemic of a disease such as severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).
Q4) Charlotte touches a doorknob after an individual with MRSA touched the doorknob.Immediately after touching the knob,Charlotte scratches her leg and transmits some MRSA cells into a small wound.The doorknob is functioning as a(n)
A) etiologic agent.
B) reservoir.
C) mode of transmission.
D) host.
Q5) A disease transmitted from animals to humans is called a _______ disease.
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe how bacteria such as Lactobacillus species are used to produce yogurt.
Q2) The fixed form of nitrogen (ammonium ion and ammonia)can be oxidized for energy by
A) methanogens.
B) nitrifiers.
C) lithotrophs.
D) fermenters.
Q3) Bacteriocins are molecules that are produced by
A) some bacteria and prevent pathogens from adhering to the gut lining.
B) methanogens and cause flatulence in cows.
C) digestive microbes in termites and allow digestion of cellulose.
D) viruses and increase the virulence of zoonotic diseases.
Q4) If bacteria and archaea are removed from an ecosystem,which of the following environmental services would be absent?
A) nitrogen fixation
B) capture of energy from sunlight
C) decomposition of dead matter
D) dissimilation of biomass by respiration
Q5) List two ways in which food fermentation benefits humans and provide one example for each.
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