Microbiology for Allied Health
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an introduction to the principles of microbiology with an emphasis on topics relevant to allied health professions. Students will explore the structure, classification, and physiology of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The course covers mechanisms of microbial pathogenicity, the bodys defenses against infection, the principles of asepsis, and the use of antimicrobial agents. Through laboratory exercises and case studies, students will gain practical skills and an understanding of the clinical significance of microorganisms in human health and disease, preparing them for careers in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 4th Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Q1) What were Rosalind Franklin's contributions toward discovering the structure of DNA, and why wasn't she one of the recipients of the Nobel Prize for this discovery?
Answer: She was an X-ray crystallographer who studied the structure of DNA. Her X-ray micrographs showed for the first time that DNA was a double helix. A colleague showed her micrographs to James Watson, who was also studying the structure of DNA. Watson and Francis Crick published their model of the structure of DNA in the journal Nature and denied that they had used Franklin's micrographs. Franklin also died before the awarding of the prize.
Q2) Describe the discoveries of Louis Pasteur while working with the French beer and wine manufacturers in assessing alcohol versus vinegar production during fermentation. Answer: Previously, it was believed that the conversion of grapes and grain to wine and beer was a spontaneous chemical process. Pasteur discovered that this fermentation was caused by living yeast, which did not require oxygen for growth. He also discovered that when the grapes or grain are contaminated with bacteria instead of yeast, acetic acid is produced instead of alcohol.
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Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Q1) Malachite green is commonly used to stain
A) eukaryotic cells.
B) Gram-negative cells.
C) Gram-positive cells.
D) bacterial endospores.
E) acid-fast cells.
Answer: D
Q2) List three different differential stains used in microbiology. What can be detected with each?
Answer: The most common differential stain is the Gram stain. This procedure allows one to distinguish between cells having one membrane (Gram-positive) and two membranes (Gram-negative). Another common differential stain is the acid-fast stain.
Carbolfuchsin stains the mycolic acid-containing acid-fast cells of the genus Mycobacterium. The endospore stain is a differential stain that stains endospores with malachite green. Negative staining and antibody staining are also included in the text.
Q3) List and describe three common shapes of bacteria.
Answer: Bacilli (bacillus in the singular) are rod-shaped bacteria. Cocci (singular, coccus) are spherical-shaped bacteria. Spirochetes are tightly coiled spirals or corkscrew-shaped bacteria.
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Cell wall growth patterns of a variety of bacteria have been studied using fluorescently labeled D-amino acids. This approach has worked because
A) fluorescent amino acids block further cell wall synthesis and thus provide a snapshot of the cell wall at a particular time.
B) ribosomes cannot incorporate any fluorescence and thus cannot use fluorescent amino acids; it all goes to cell wall.
C) vancomycin can block the incorporation of D-alanine into protein and thus force it into the cell wall.
D) the labeled amino acids are D-amino acids, not L-amino acids.; thus, they only were incorporated into cell wall.
E) This approach has not worked.
Answer: D
Q2) Explain how bacteria can produce proteins more quickly than eukaryotes do.
Answer: Bacteria have no membrane around the nucleoid. This transcription and translation can be coupled with no need to transport the mRNA out of a nucleus.
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Q1) During the stationary phase, E. coli reprograms itself. What does it do to protect itself?
Q2) A problem with ________ of cell number is that dead cells also scatter light.
A) direct microscopic counts
B) viable counts
C) spread plate counts
D) pour plate counts
E) optical density measurements
Q3) Which term refers to the condition in which a culture growth covers the entire agar surface?
A) dilution streaking
B) spread plate
C) confluent
D) microcolony
E) colony
Q4) Why can't most organisms use the nitrogen gas that is so prevalent in the atmosphere? How do these organisms acquire a usable form of nitrogen?
Q5) Why is iron so often a limiting nutrient, when it seems to be so abundant in the environment, and how can organisms overcome this problem?
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) Which of the following are commonly used to control microbial growth in foods?
A) weak acids
B) strong acids
C) weak bases
D) strong bases
E) enzymes
Q2) An organism that grows at the top of a tube of medium containing thioglycolate is probably a(n)
A) strict aerobe.
B) facultative anaerobe.
C) aerotolerant anaerobe.
D) microaerophile.
E) strict anaerobe.
Q3) A measure of the number of solute molecules in solution and is inversely related to water activity is known as
A) osmolarity.
B) hypertonic.
C) hypotonic.
D) isotonic.
E) d-value.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) All of the following criteria are used to classify viruses according to the International Committee on Taxonomy of Viruses EXCEPT
A) genome composition.
B) size of the virus particle.
C) envelope.
D) capsid symmetry.
E) mutation rate.
Q2) Tissue cultures are more feasible than whole animals for viral growth because they A) can develop vaccines.
B) can test a multitude of chemical and antibiotic agents.
C) are more time-consuming.
D) are less expensive.
E) are more expensive.
Q3) What viruses are classified by using the suffix viridae?
A) genera
B) families
C) species
D) orders
E) classes
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) DNA and RNA polymerases can only synthesize in the ________ direction.
A) forward
B) 3'-to-5'
C) 5'-to-3'
D) reverse
E) 5'-to-3' or 3'-to-5'
Q2) Which molecule is responsible for removing torsional stress during DNA replication?
A) DNA primase
B) single-stranded binding proteins
C) RNase H
D) DNA gyrase
E) DNA ligase
Q3) Bacteria and archaea that grow at extreme pH or temperature possess which feature to protect their DNA from denaturation?
A) pseudogenes
B) Okazaki fragments
C) DNA-binding proteins
D) major grooves
E) minor grooves
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) At times a ribosome may get stuck with an mRNA that has been damaged so that there is no stop codon. What happens to this ribosome to fix this problem?
Q2) How are folded and unfolded proteins moved from the cytoplasm to the periplasm?
Q3) Name two antibiotics that affect translation and explain their modes of action.
Q4) Post-translational modification to achieve function does NOT involve A) adenylation.
B) phosphorylation.
C) acetylation.
D) removal of formylmethionine.
E) ubiquitination.
Q5) Which of the following may serve as a molecular clock that measures the approximate time since two related species diverged?
A) tRNA
B) mRNA
C) rRNA
D) sRNA
E) tmRNA
Q6) Every mRNA has three possible reading frames. How does the ribosome find the correct reading frame?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) Describe two processes that may happen during the evolution toward pathogenicity.
Q2) The main components of CRISPR anatomy include
A) methylation sites on palindromic sequences.
B) int genes with att sites for homology.
C) inverted repeats and genes encoding transposase.
D) short direct repeats, spacers, and genes encoding cas proteins.
E) cell surface receptors.
Q3) Why does a genetic experiment using recombination generally involve screening hundreds of millions of cells to find a few recombinants that form visible colonies?
Q4) Bacteria have developed a "Halt! Who goes there?" approach to gene exchange to prevent unrestricted incorporation of DNA into the cell. It is called ________ and
A) conjugation; recombination
B) transformation; transposition
C) restriction; modification
D) transduction; Hfr
E) mobilizable; F plasmid
Q5) What is transcription-coupled repair and why is it important for the cell?
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) The role of a leader sequence is to
A) directly control transcription.
B) determine whether transcription can proceed through the genes in the operon.
C) determine whether RNA polymerase can bind.
D) terminate transcription.
E) direct the looping of the DNA that prevents transcription initiation.
Q2) In some, but not all, instances, ________ molecules bind RNA transcripts and help or hinder degradation.
A) tsRNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) sRNA
E) mRNA
Q3) Which of the following is a second messenger that helps to regulate biofilm production?
A) ppGpp
B) ATP
C) cAMP
D) cGMP
E) cdiGMP
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) Glycosylation and packaging of the HIV env proteins occur in the A) endoplasmic reticulum.
B) nucleus.
C) membrane.
D) Golgi.
E) cytoplasm.
Q2) Herpes simplex virus 1 capsids receive a primary envelope from ________, whereas secondary enveloping uses ________.
A) Golgi; the plasma membrane
B) the outer nuclear membrane; endoplasmic reticulum
C) vacuoles; lysosomes
D) lysosomes; the plasma membrane
E) endoplasmic reticulum; Golgi
Q3) Describe the replication process of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
Q4) Viruses that specifically infect and lyse tumor cells are called A) transfer vectors.
B) temperate.
C) lytic.
D) lysogenic.
E) oncolytic.
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Chapter 12: Biotechniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) What kind of mutation is produced by transposable elements?
A) inversion
B) point
C) insertion
D) substitution
E) transposition
Q2) The phenomenon that allows a quencher dye to reduce the fluorescence of the reporter dye in real-time PCR techniques is called
A) nuclear magnetic resonance.
B) fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET).
C) atomic force tunneling.
D) magnetic resonance imaging.
E) random nicking.
Q3) Noise in synthetic biology is a result of the A) ara operon.
B) lac operon.
C) dual-feedback oscillator.
D) fluctuation of gene expression among single-cells in a population.
E) oscillatory genetic circuit.
Q4) What is the conceptual basis of the primer extension technique?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) In most environments, the nutrient concentrations outside the cell are lower than inside the cell. If the concentration gradient is NOT favorable, a microbial cell obtains nutrients through
A) active, energy-dependent transport.
B) facilitated diffusion.
C) swim and tumble.
D) forming biofilms.
E) simple diffusion.
Q2) Clostridium acetobutylicum has been used to produce which solvents?
A) acetate and butyrate
B) acetone and butanol
C) methanol and ethanol
D) formate and ethanol
E) propanol and mixed acids
Q3) What is mixed-acid fermentation? Provide examples of industrial uses of its products.
Q4) Escherichia coli degrades human waste in the colon using mixed-acid fermentation. Why is this a factor of concern in some medical procedures, such as colonoscopy?
Q5) What are the differences among DG, DG°, and DG°'?
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
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Q1) Which of the following substrates is an electron donor in organotrophy?
A) Fe2+
B) succinate
C) NO
D) H
E) H O
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP)?
A) It is an uncoupler.
B) It can be used to measure pH.
C) Unprotonated DNP can cross the membrane.
D) Protonated DNP can cross the membrane.
E) It dissipates the proton motive force.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT correct about the process of methanogenesis?
A) CO and H O are weak electron acceptors, whereas CH4 and H are strong electron donors.
B) CH4 synthesis from CO releases energy for growth.
C) CH4 and water can be formed from CO and 4H from a hydrogen donor.
D) Oxygen atoms in CO are reduced one at a time.
E) Oxygen atoms in CO are reduced to water at the same time.
Q4) What is photoheterotrophy? Give examples of photoheterotrophic organisms.
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) The bacterial enzyme nitrogenase performs the reduction of N gas using a large amount of energy and reducing power. Describe the nitrogen reduction steps during nitrogenase activity and write the overall reaction.
Q2) All microorganisms require all of the following for biosynthetic purposes EXCEPT A) phosphorous.
B) reduction.
C) energy.
D) carbon.
E) nitrogen gas.
Q3) Which of the following are unique in that they fix CO as their sole carbon source?
A) organotrophs and iron oxidizers
B) photoheterotrophs and chemiolithotrophs
C) photoautotrophs and lithotrophs
D) heterotrophs and methanogens
E) methanogens and photoheterotrophs
Q4) Briefly describe the biosynthetic pathway for arginine.
Q5) How do cyanobacteria benefit from their heterocysts attracting heterotrophic bacteria?
Q6) What are nonribosomal peptide antibiotics? How are they synthesized?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) What are the three stages in the fermentation of cocoa beans for chocolate (in order)?
A) 1) Bacillus, 2) lactic acid bacteria, 3) yeasts
B) 1) acetic acid bacteria, 2) yeasts, 3) lactic acid bacteria
C) 1) yeasts, 2) lactic acid bacteria, 3) acetic acid bacteria
D) 1) Leuconostoc, 2) Bacillus, 3) Rhizopus
E) 1) Leuconostoc, 2) Bacillus, 3) yeasts
Q2) Describe the primary and secondary fermentations involved in winemaking.
Q3) What are two types of mushrooms that are both cultures of Agaricus bisporus that are harvested at different stages?
A) portobello and shiitake
B) morel and truffle
C) button and portobello
D) shiitake and truffle
E) nori and morel
Q4) What makes a company dealing with industrial microbiology a success?
Q5) Bacteria generally can't be eaten as isolated organisms. Why is Spirulina an exception? What is Spirulina and what are its health benefits?
Q6) Explain the difference between food spoilage and food poisoning.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) Evidence in the study of adaptive evolution CANNOT be obtained from A) comparisons of gene sequences within a genome.
B) comparisons of gene sequences between genomes.
C) the study of microorganisms growing in strongly selective environments.
D) sequencing a single genome several times (deep sequencing).
E) experimental evolution.
Q2) Explain how banded iron formations could arise in the geologic record due to photoferrotrophy.
Q3) "Incompletely described," emerging organisms are on their way to be established as new species. In the meantime, they can be designated as all of the following EXCEPT a(n)
A) unclassified organism.
B) uncultured organism.
C) environmental sample
D) type species.
E) candidate species.
Q4) Explain how studying the evolutionary rate of RNA viruses in comparison to DNA viruses can help explain the evolutionary rate in early Earth.
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) In what environment does Savagella form filaments through the production of intracellular offspring?
A) aquatic, high salinity environments
B) hydrothermal springs
C) surgical wounds
D) mammalian skin tissue
E) mammalian gut epithelium
Q2) Which of the following is NOT correct about the outer membrane of Gram-negative proteobacterial cell wall?
A) It has receptor proteins and porins.
B) In pathogens, lipopolysaccharide facilitates phagocytosis.
C) Lipopolysaccharide is toxic when released by dying cells.
D) It is a lipid bilayer membrane.
E) Lipopolysaccharide is absent in the cytoplasmic membrane.
Q3) Dehalobacter restrictus conducts anaerobic respiration by
A) reducing aromatic rings of lignin-derived compounds.
B) donating electrons to Fe3+, converting it to Fe2+ in mine ores.
C) donating electrons to Cl atoms, effectively performing dechlorination.
D) donating electrons to NO3-, yielding NO -.
E) donating electrons to SO <sup>2-</sup>, yielding HS-.
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) ________-branched chains increase membrane stability.
A) Isoprenoid
B) Ester
C) Ether
D) Diether
E) Phospholipid
Q2) Methanogens are classified within how many major orders?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
Q3) Nanoarchaeum equitans is a hyperthermophilic symbiont of A) Ignicoccus.
B) Sulfolobus.
C) Halobacterium.
D) Methanococcus.
E) Thermoplasma.
Q4) Describe the physiological adaptations found in haloarchaea that compensate for the high internal potassium chloride concentrations.
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fungi?
A) They are chemolithotrophs.
B) Most multicellular forms grow by extending multinucleate cell filaments called hyphae.
C) Membrane lipids include ergosterol, an analog of cholesterol.
D) Cell walls contain chitin.
E) They engage in absorptive nutrition.
Q2) A major group of marine phytoplankton that is essential to the marine food chain includes
A) microsporidia.
B) dinoflagellates.
C) apicomplexan.
D) metamonads.
E) yeasts.
Q3) Why are sponges, jellyfish, worms, reptiles, humans, yeast, and microsporidia placed in the same eukaryotic clade?
Q4) The Rhodophyta alga Porphyra is known to colonize aquatic environments deeper than the Chlorophyta algae Spirogyra. Why does this happen? What advantages does Porphyra have by inhabiting this niche?
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) Lakes that have dilute concentrations of nutrients are termed A) eutrophic.
B) syntrophic.
C) aphotic.
D) oligotrophic.
E) atrophic.
Q2) Which of the following is responsible for the characteristic odor of soil?
A) Vibrio sp.
B) Bacillus sp.
C) Streptomyces sp.
D) Staphylococcus sp.
E) Pseudomonas sp.
Q3) The relationship among endosymbiotic microbes in the termite gut that results in complex metabolic fluxes with a negative DG, which would NOT happen for individual members, is called
A) mutualism.
B) parasitism.
C) exothermic association.
D) predation.
E) syntrophy.
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) Marine dead zones are characterized as being
A) hypoxic.
B) aerated.
C) devoid of nitrogen fixation.
D) dangerous for ship sail.
E) usually naturally occurring.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a reduced form of carbon in the carbon cycle?
A) methane
B) biomass
C) hydrocarbons
D) carbon dioxide
E) methanol
Q3) Explain how the Mississippi River drainage into the Gulf of Mexico off the coast of Louisiana leads to a large dead zone.
Q4) Some bacteria are responsible for degrading concrete. How do they accomplish this?
Q5) How are wetlands similar to or different from commercial wastewater treatment plants?
Page 24
Q6) Discuss how human activities have perturbed the nitrogen cycle.
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Describe how natural killer cells work in response to a bacterial infection.
Q2) Are the Langerhans cells of skin-associated lymphoid tissue (SALT) related to the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas that secrete insulin? What is the function of Langerhans cells?
Q3) Which condition is NOT related to obesity?
A) diabetes
B) cardiovascular disease
C) cancer
D) nonalcoholic fatty liver disease
E) alcoholism
Q4) The microbiome can influence obesity through
A) regulating energy metabolism.
B) increasing intestinal inflammation.
C) creating a more diverse gut microbiome.
D) It does not influence obesity.
E) no bacterial interactions.
Q5) How does Propionibacterium acnes-an anaerobic Gram-positive normal flora of the skin-cause acne, especially in teenagers?
Q6) Why can acne be treated with antibiotics?
Q7) Explain the distinguishing characteristics of innate and adaptive immunity.
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) RAG1 and RAG2 are enzymes that control gene splicing on B-cell antibody genes. Which order are segments worked on in the creation of the heavy-chain gene segment?
A) VD spliced together, then J, then C
B) DJ spliced together, then V
C) VJ spliced together, then D
D) VC spliced together, then D, then J
E) VDJ segments are all spliced together simultaneously.
Q2) A complete T-cell receptor on a helper T cell contains both the antigen-binding receptor molecule and a ________ protein for signal transduction.
A) CD8
B) CD3 complex
C) MHC I
D) MHC II
E) CD28
Q3) Describe the structure of a typical IgG antibody, including the F(ab') and Fc portions.
Q4) Would taking probiotic health supplements be good for the average person's immunity?
Q5) Detail the benefits and predict possible risks of vaccinations.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Pathogenicity islands include all of the following EXCEPT that A) genes are not expressed as operons.
B) GC/AT ratio differs from the rest of the genome.
C) residual phage genomes flank the island.
D) they are often linked to tRNA.
E) they encode the type III protein secretion (T3SS) export systems.
Q2) The disease filariasis, commonly known as elephantiasis, is caused by a(n) A) ectoparasite.
B) endoparasite.
C) insect.
D) bacterium.
E) fungus.
Q3) Multivalent adhesion molecule 7, or MAM7, is a unique adhesion because it
A) is expressed late in an infection.
B) is found only in Gram-positive organisms.
C) is important in initiating infection.
D) decreases the LD50 of an organism.
E) acts as a toxin.
Q4) What characteristics of a pathogen distinguish it from a commensal, in terms of its ability to infect and replicate within a eukaryotic host?
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following pathogens is an intracellular agent?
A) chlamydia
B) rickettsia
C) prion
D) chlamydia and rickettsia
E) None of these pathogens is an intracellular agent.
Q2) People who come down with STDs and do not get treated, frequently end up with co-STD infections. Why is this? Explain.
Q3) A clinician would most likely treat MRSA with A) penicillin G.
B) tetracycline.
C) vancomycin.
D) ciprofloxacin. E) amoxicillin.
Q4) A chancre is the initial symptom of A) gonorrhea. B) chlamydia.
C) syphilis.
D) chancroid.
E) genital warts.
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) A negative structural mutation in the norA gene in Staphylococcus aureus could have the effect of
A) decreased protein synthesis.
B) increased bacterial conjugation.
C) decreased drug resistance.
D) increased uptake of beta-lactams.
E) decreased rate of clonal division.
Q2) One of the leading sources of human infection by antibiotic-resistant organisms is ________ infections.
A) farm animal
B) locker room
C) dental surgery
D) nosocomial
E) food recall
Q3) Bacterial peptidoglycan formation uses all of the following components EXCEPT
A) N-acetylmuramic acid.
B) uridine diphosphate.
C) bactoprenol.
D) hopanoid.
E) N-acetylglucosamine.
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tuberculosis has become a reemerging pathogen today in large part due to
A) increased incidence of HIV infection.
B) airline travel reducing geographical distances.
C) surge in reservoir animal populations carrying the disease to humans.
D) strict compliance with drug regimens.
E) concurrent increases in hepatitis C infection.
Q2) Collection of specimen samples from places on or in the body that contain normal flora usually requires
A) initial plating on nonselective media.
B) direct Gram staining.
C) initial plating on selective media.
D) direct PCR identification.
E) immunofluorescent staining.
Q3) A person exhibiting glomerular nephritis and rheumatic fever must have had what type of previous infection?
A) Shigella sonnei
B) Escherichia coli
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Treponema pallidum
E) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
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