Microbiology for Allied Health Test Preparation
Course Introduction
This course provides an introduction to microbiology with a focus on its relevance to allied health professions. Students will study the structure, function, and genetics of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, emphasizing their role in human health and disease. The course covers fundamental topics such as microbial metabolism, growth, and control, as well as principles of infection, immunity, and antimicrobial therapy. Practical applications in clinical and healthcare settings, including aseptic techniques and the prevention of infectious diseases, are explored to prepare students for roles in various health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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1101 Verified Questions
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Bacillus anthracis - respiratory disease
B)Escherichia coli - bloody diarrhea
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis - food poisoning
D)Avian influenza - human flu
E)Yersinia pestis - plague
Answer: C
Q2) In early June of 2013,people in the Middle East were worried about a new coronavirus which at that time had led to about 50 confirmed cases,30 of whom had died.The virus could spread from patient to patient in hospitals and soon patients arriving from the Middle East were spreading it to Europe.Give your best guess as to the means by which the virus is transmitted.
Answer: The coronavirus in this case was Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MERS-Cov).Some transmission possibilities include hand-to-hand contact,droplets in coughs and sneezes,close contact such as kissing,and through inanimate objects like door knobs and toys.
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3
Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical bonding between two different atoms always occurs between their
A)Unfilled outer orbital
B)Nuclei
C)First shells
D)Cores
E)Third shells
Answer: A
Q2) The components of ATP include
A)Adenine, ribose sugar, and three phosphates
B)Amino acid and three phosphates
C)Adenine, triglycerols, and one phosphate
D)Adenine, deoxyribose sugar, and three phosphates
Answer: A
Q3) Animals store carbohydrates in the form of
A)Monosaccharide's
B)Glycogen
C)Starch
D)Disaccharides
E)Cellulose
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Q1) During alcoholic fermentation the intermediate _____ is synthesized from pyruvic acid.
A)NAD?
B)Acetaldehyde
C)Lactic acid
D)ATP
E)Acetyl CoA
Answer: B
Q2) The location where a substrate fits into an enzyme is known as the
A)Cofactor site
B)Plebi site
C)Polar site
D)Active site
E)Carrier site
Answer: D
Q3) Nearly all infectious organisms are chemoheterotrophs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Q1) Which of the following explains why it is necessary to use safranin in the Gram stain?
A)Gram-positive bacteria do not have a strong affinity for crystal violet, but do bind well to safranin
B)Gram-negative bacteria are rendered colorless after the decolorizer is added, and need to be counterstained to be visible under the microscope
C)Safranin is the mordant needed to set the crystal violet color and make it permanent
D)Gram-variable cells do not bind to crystal violet and need to be counterstained to be visible under the microscope
E)None of the choices are true
Q2) Flagella are very difficult to observe microscopically because
A)They are very thin
B)They resist basic dyes
C)They resist acidic dyes
D)They do not adhere to glass slides
Q3) What is a biofilm and why are biofilms clinically problematic? Provide a specific example.
Q4) Describe three types of endocytosis in eukaryotic cells.
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Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anthrax toxin is made up of
A)Cell binding protective antigen
B)Edema and lethal factors
C)Lethal factor
D)Hyaluronidase
E)Edema factor, lethal factor, and protective antigen
Q2) A dose of 1000 bacteria can kill 50% of the animals and a dose of 2400 can kill 70% of the animals.What is the approximate LD<sub>50</sub>?
A)1000
B)2400
C)150
D)1700
Q3) Which of the following made by bacteria destroys red blood cells in the host?
A)Coagulase
B)Hyaluronidase
C)Leukocidin
D)Collagenase
E)Hemolysin
Q4) How does tooth brushing protect teeth from cavity formation?
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Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the difference between descriptive and analytical epidemiological studies.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of direct contact transmission?
A)A housefly transfers pathogens from cow manure to the conjunctiva of a human host
B)HIV is transmitted from a contaminated needle
C)Influenza is acquired by breathing in airborne droplets
D)A college student acquires mononucleosis after kissing someone infected with Epstein-Barr virus
Q3) What are potential sources of nosocomial infections? List at least six.
Q4) What is achieved when widespread vaccination is administered to a population as a means of protecting unvaccinated potential hosts?
A)Immunosuppression
B)Super-vaccination
C)Multi-drug resistance
D)Quarantine
E)Herd immunity
Q5) Explain why patients with malignant tumors who are receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy are more susceptible to infections.
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Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Q1) The whole body microbiome is different from the biomes of its organs.For example,Staphylococcus is part of the normal microflora in all of the regions of the body but is rarely found in the
A)Urogenital tract
B)Large intestine
C)Conjunctiva
D)Skin
E)Nose and throat
Q2) If pathogens spread to the bloodstream or lymphatics and disseminate to other parts of the body,a(n)_____ occurs.
A)Acute disease
B)Latent disease
C)Secondary infection
D)Systemic infection
Q3) Escherichia coli cells producing bacteriocins are participating in A)Opportunism
B)Antibiotic resistance
C)Commensalism
D)Parasitism
E)Microbial antagonism
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following groups is susceptible to tuberculosis (TB)?
A)Malnourished individuals
B)AIDS patients
C)Immunocompromised individuals living in long-term care facilities
D)Alcoholics
E)All of the choices
Q2) Could there be a connection between global warming and the dissemination of deadly strains of avian influenza? Explain your answer.
Q3) Which of the following describes the process of reassortment?
A)Synthesis of a nearly perfect copy of a molecule
B)Portions of chromosomes from different pathogens link
C)Single base in genetic material converts to another
D)Two chromosomes from different pathogens form a pair
Q4) Where did the Hantavirus originate and how is it transmitted to humans? Explain the factors that contributed to the outbreak of Hantavirus in the southwestern region of the USA in 1993.
Q5) Identify and explain four different factors that have contributed to the re-emergence of tuberculosis.
Q6) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates recruitment by chemokines?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Q1) Explain why endospores are attractive agents for bioterrorism.Provide an example.
Q2) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates the structure that contains the electron transport system?
Q3) What is the function of the bacterial flagellum? Describe the three components of a flagellum and the four distinct patterns of flagella arrangement.Provide a brief explanation of each pattern.
Q4) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates a Gram-negative cell portion?
Q5) What is clipped from proteins as they are secreted from the cell?
A)Inclusion body
B)Signal sequence
C)Endospore
D)Porin
E)Glycocalyx
Q6) The outer membrane is found in _____ bacteria and is composed of _____.
A)Gram-positive; lipopolysaccharide, lipoprotein, and phospholipid
B)Gram-negative; lipopolysaccharide, lipoprotein, and phospholipid
C)Gram-positive; teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid
D)Gram-negative; teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is required for biosynthesis of cysteine but not other amino acids?
A)Sulfur
B)Carbon
C)Nitrogen
D)Oxygen
E)Phosphorus
Q2) A recent hurricane has disrupted the local sewage facilities in your community.A water sample is filtered to trap suspected fecal contaminants and the filter is transferred to an eosin methylene blue (EMB)agar plate.On the following day you note growth and a bright green sheen on some of the colonies.The green colonies are most likely to be
A)Gram-negative bacteria
B)Gram-positive bacteria
C)Unable to ferment lactose
D)Viruses
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: Pathogens of humans are chemoautotrophs.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the similarities and differences between the repressor proteins of the lactose and tryptophan operons.
Q2) A mutation that reverses the effect of a primary mutation and restores the function of a gene is called a
A)Transition
B)Transposon
C)Suppressor mutation
D)Spontaneous mutation
E)Transversion
Q3) When referring to a primer:template junction,the primer is composed of _____,whereas the template is composed of _____.
A)RNA; protein
B)RNA; single-stranded DNA
C)DNA; protein
D)RNA; double-stranded DNA
E)DNA; double-stranded DNA
Q4) Explain how RNA differs from DNA in structure and function.
Q5) In the figure which letter (A-C)refers to the codon,UAA?
Q6) Discuss five ways in which transcription differs from DNA replication.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Q1) The _____ is the protein that is located between the capsid and the nucleocapsid of some enveloped viruses.
A)Glycoprotein spike
B)Icosahedron
C)Helix
D)Tegument
E)Nucleic acid-binding protein
Q2) Endosomes that assist in the uncoating of non-enveloped viruses function via A)Hydrolytic enzymes
B)An acidic environment
C)Host proteases
D)Virally encoded lipases
E)Fusion pores
Q3) Which of these processes is not used by viruses to spread within a host?
A)Syncytia
B)The production of decoy virions to confuse and distract the host defenses
C)Movement through the apical surface of epithelial cells to spread to neighboring cells
D)Transportation by microtubules
E)Lysis of the host cell
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Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The duration of a rhinovirus infection and an influenza infection is usually only limited to 4-5 days.What type of viral infection does this represent?
A)Acute infection
B)Persistent infection
C)Latent infection
D)Slow infection
Q2) Which of the following explains why some acute viral infections are asymptomatic in individuals exposed to a virus for the first time?
A)Innate immune defenses restrict the spread and severity of viral infections
B)They have a short incubation period
C)The adaptive immune response is deployed quickly
D)Acute viruses become avirulent soon after infection
Q3) Many viruses are able to be reactivated many years after initial entrance into a host.An example of this is the varicella-zoster virus and shingles.This is an example of a(n)
A)Acute infection
B)Persistent infection
C)Latent infection
D)Slow infection
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rearrange the following into the order of events following ingestion of Ascaris eggs.Which is the fifth event?
A)Invasion of intestinal epithelium
B)Pumped into the lung
C)Conversion to larval stage
D)Coughed into mouth
E)Liver invasion
Q2) Identify and describe three categories of pathogenic fungal infection.
Q3) Which of the following symptoms are common in an infection with Toxoplasma gondii?
A)Pain, vaginal discharge, and dysuria
B)A chancre and swollen lymph nodes
C)Tissue cysts in skeletal muscle
D)Nausea, abdominal pain, and diarrhea
E)Fever accompanied by worms vomited up or passed in the stool
Q4) What special considerations must be taken into account when treating trypanosomiasis if the central nervous system (CNS)is involved? Which drug would be most effective if this were the case,and why?
Q5) Explain how genetic recombination occurs in fungi.
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tears consist of all of the following except
A)Sebum
B)Lipocalin
C)Lysozyme
D)IgA
Q2) Explain how natural killer (NK)cells discriminate healthy cells from target cells.How do NK cells mediate target-cell killing?
Q3) What happens if the bone marrow reserve of neutrophils is depleted during a long-lasting infection?
A)Immature neutrophils are exported from the bone marrow, but they are not as effective as mature neutrophils
B)Tissue macrophages replicate at sites of infection to make up for the numbers needed
C)The adaptive immune response must compensate for the loss
D)The lifespan of previously exported neutrophils is extended
Q4) Answer true or false to the following statement: The epidermis is impenetrable to most microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Which of the following accurately describes the morphological appearance of a mast cell after it has been activated?
A)The presence of large phagolysosomes in the cytoplasm
B)A preponderance of dark granules in the cytoplasm
C)Deterioration of the plasma membrane
D)The absence of dark granules in the cytoplasm
E)Division of the cell
Q2) Which of the following explains why IgM activates complement so effectively?
A)IgM is the principal isotype in the blood
B)Pentameric IgM has five constant regions available to interact with C1
C)IgM is made in the innate immune response and does not require previous exposure to antigen
D)IgM is transported across mucosal epithelium, where antigens are often first encountered by the host
E)IgM binds with high affinity to mast cells in the connective tissue and is strategically located beneath skin and mucosal surfaces
Q3) Explain why dendritic cells are considered "watch dogs" for pathogens.
Q4) Describe the three ways in which antibodies function to protect a host from pathogens.
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) Which of the following is false?
A)Myasthenia gravis results from the formation of autoantibodies specific for neurotransmitter receptors
B)Systemic lupus erythematosus is characterized by the formation of anti-DNA antibodies
C)Rheumatic fever follows influenza infections when antibodies against the virus cross-react with host components
D)Tolerance is the process whereby self-reactive T and B cells are inactivated or eliminated
E)Autoimmune responses are controlled by specialized CD25-positive T cells called regulatory T cells
Q2) During anaphylactic shock,prompt attention is required,and the injection of _____ provides immediate relief from the life-threatening symptoms presented.
A)Anti-histamine
B)Leukotriene
C)Epinephrine (adrenaline)
D)Prostaglandin
E)Cytokine
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19
Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Q1) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Hydrogen peroxide is not useful for the treatment of open wounds because the enzyme,lysozyme,which is released from damaged tissues,quickly neutralizes it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A bacteriostatic agent is one that
A)Kills the microbe
B)Inhibits the growth of the microbe
C)Creates static electricity when used
D)Is chemically unstable
Q3) Degerming is best described as
A)A mechanical process for removing microbes
B)The disinfection of public places
C)The use of heat to kill microbes in food items
D)The use of chemical agents to kill microbes
E)A practice used to maintain a germ-free environment
Q4) Identify and describe five factors that affect the death of microbes by antimicrobial agents.
20
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Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) The treatment of malaria has changed since quinine was first used in the 1600s.What has changed and why?
Q2) Discuss selective toxicity as it relates to antimicrobials.
Q3) Explain how sulfa drugs exert their antimicrobial effects.Why is this lethal to the bacterium and how are these drugs selectively toxic?
Q4) Making semi-synthetic antibiotics in the laboratory by altering the side chains of naturally occurring antibiotics is an important approach for generating new antibiotics.Why is a search for new antibiotics needed? Provide examples of new desirable properties conferred on antibiotics through these types of chemical modification.
Q5) Which of the following antibiotics prevents ?-lactamase cleavage by binding to it?
A)Cephalosporins
B)Carbapenems
C)Monobactams
D)Glycopeptide antibiotics
E)Penicillins
Q6) Compare the mechanisms of the anti-trypanosomal drugs eflomithine and melasoprol.
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Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Q1) Identify and describe five factors that contribute to the growing problem of antibiotic resistance in today's world.
Q2) Antibiotic resistance by reduced membrane permeability occurs when
A)Specialized proteins are activated
B)One metabolic pathway is blocked and another is used
C)Porins and membrane channel proteins are not produced
D)An enzyme cleaves a portion of the antibiotic
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: In large cities the transfer of a contagious disease or antibiotic-resistant pathogen is more easily accomplished because the population is more spread out.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Resistance to _____ requires five separate genes to alter peptidoglycan to an insensitive form.
A)Methicillin
B)Tetracycline
C)Erythromycin
D)Vancomycin
E)Penicillin
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following is most appropriate for coccidiodomycosis?
A)Not associated with AIDS
B)Spores are encased in spherules
C)Associated with bird and bat droppings
D)Contains cholesterol in plasma membrane
E)100% mortality when invasion of lung tissue occurs
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Mastoiditis is an uncommon problem but is very dangerous because of the proximity of this cavity to rest of the respiratory tract.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is false?
A)Coccidiomycosis infections usually occur in the lower respiratory tract
B)The lower respiratory tract is a relatively sterile anatomical location compared with the upper respiratory tract
C)Diphtheria and whooping cough are still prevalent in underdeveloped nations despite the availability of effective vaccines
D)Chlamydophila psittaci is transmitted from one human to another
Q4) Identify and describe the three stages of a pertussis infection.
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Domestic pets harbor _____ and are an important reservoir for enteritis caused by this bacterium.
A)Vibrio parahaemolyticus
B)Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi
C)Campylobacter jejuni
D)Helicobacter pylori
E)Shigella boydii
Q2) Unlike most hepatitis viruses,_____ is an enveloped DNA virus.
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis B
C)Hepatitis C
D)Hepatitis D
E)Hepatitis E
Q3) Which family of viruses does Hepatitis C belong to?
A)Hepadnaviridae
B)Flaviviridae
C)Reoviridae
D)Picornaviridae
E)Caliciviridae
Q4) Explain how hepatitis B produces a partly double-stranded DNA genome.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Compare syphilis to gonorrhea in relation to the following statement: A vaccine has been available since 2010.
A)Only syphilis
B)Only gonorrhea
C)Both syphilis and gonorrhea
D)Neither syphilis or gonorrhea
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of pelvic inflammatory disease?
A)Caused by human papillomavirus
B)May cause infertility
C)Can lead to ectopic pregnancy
D)Sometimes causes infection of fetus or newborn
Q3) Answer true or false to whether the following occurs before the multiplication of reticulate bodies during Chlamydia replication: Reticulate bodies are converted to persistent form.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Answer true or false to the following statement: C. trachomatis does not have an outer membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Infant botulism: honey
B)Acute CNS infection: Epstein-Barr virus
C)Tetanus: lockjaw
D)DTaP vaccine: poliomyelitis
E)Viral meningitis: enterovirus
Q2) Which of the following is not a property of prions?
A)Contain single-stranded DNA
B)Transmissible between different species
C)Resistant to proteases
D)Spongiform encephalopathy
E)Are proteins
Q3) Compare abortive to paralytic polio in relation to the following statement: It is essentially nonexistent in developed countries.
A)Abortive
B)Paralytic
C)Both abortive and paralytic
D)Neither abortive or paralytic
Q4) How do the effects on the nervous system differ between botulism and tetanus?
Q5) Describe the three forms of botulism.
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) Rarely is mortality observed in untreated infections caused by
A)Rickettsia rickettsii
B)Rickettsia typhi
C)Francisella tularensis
D)Yersinia pestis
E)Rickettsia prowazekii
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Arbovirus infections can be classified as fever infections because this symptom is always present.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compare the Ebola and Marburg infections.Which is caused by a filovirus?
A)Ebola
B)Marburg
C)Both Ebola and Marburg
D)Neither Ebola or Marburg
Q4) Describe the life cycle of Trypanosoma cruzi.
Q5) What are the most common complications of infectious endocarditis? Identify the four most common bacterial sources of infectious endocarditis.
Q6) Explain the difference between bubonic plague and pneumonic plague.
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Folliculitis caused by _____ is associated with infections derived from hot tubs.
A)Candida albicans
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Propionibacterium acnes
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Because of the close proximity to the respiratory tract,eye infections can become life threatening.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: HPV infection is a lifelong infection even after wart removal because the virus is still associated with the tissue adjacent to where a wart was removed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe five mechanisms by which the skin provides an important first line of defense to the host.
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