Microbiology for Allied Health
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of microbiology with a focus on their relevance to allied health professions. Topics include the structure, physiology, and classification of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa; microbial growth and metabolism; disease transmission; host immune responses; and the prevention and control of infectious diseases. Emphasis is placed on pathogens of clinical significance, laboratory diagnostic techniques, antimicrobial agents, and the roles that microbes play in both health and disease. The course prepares students for understanding infection control, patient care, and the implications of microbiology within healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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25 Chapters
2233 Verified Questions
2233 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assigning a scientific name to an organism,
A)the species name is placed first.
B)the species name can be abbreviated.
C)both genus and species names are italicized or underlined.
D)both genus and species names are capitalized.
E)the species name is capitalized.
Answer: C
Q2) The three cell types discussed, eukaryotes, archaea, and bacteria, all derived from ______.
A)cells with a true nucleus
B)the last universal common ancestor
C)photosynthetic bacteria
D)archaea
Answer: B
Q3) A hypothesis must be tested many times before it can be considered a theory.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrons that participate in chemical bonding are typically located closest to the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which pertains to DNA but not to RNA?
A)Contains ribose
B)Contains nucleotides
C)Contains thymine
D)Contains adenine
E)Contains uracil
Answer: C
Q3) All proteins are enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Water molecules are nonpolar molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of medium would be the best choice when shipping a sample of bacteria from a clinic to a laboratory for testing?
A)Thioglycolate medium
B)Eosin-methylene blue agar
C)Transport medium
D)Blood agar
Answer: C
Q2) Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed ______.
A)fermentative
B)hemolytic
C)fastidious
D)aerobic
E)anaerobic
Answer: C
Q3) Fixed smears of specimens are required to perform the Gram stain or the endospore stain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of bacteria?
A)Ribosomes are present as the site of protein synthesis.
B)Organelles termed mitochondria are the site of ATP production.
C)The cell wall is made of peptidoglycan or other distinct polysaccharides.
D)DNA is free in the cytoplasm.
Q2) Mycobacterium and Nocardia are different from most gram-positive bacteria in that their cell walls
A)contain a layer of lipopolysaccharide.
B)contain more peptidoglycan.
C)are easily decolorized during staining.
D)contain unique, waxy lipids.
Q3) The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called ______.
A)periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)
B)fimbriae
C)sex pili
D)cilia
E)flagella
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are helminths except ______.
A)tapeworms
B)flukes
C)trypanosomes
D)roundworms
E)pinworms
Q2) Protozoan cells do not exhibit ______.
A)motility
B)a cell wall
C)heterotrophic nutrition
D)cyst formation
E)ectoplasm and endoplasm
Q3) A protozoan having a flagellum would be classified in the genus ______.
A)Entamoeba
B)Toxoplasma
C)Trypanosoma
D)Enterobius
E)Plasmodium
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Satellite viruses are
A)also called viroids.
B)dependent on other viruses for replication.
C)the cause of spongiform encephalopathies.
D)significant pathogens of plants.
Q2) Viral classification has changed over the years and while they are given genus names, the use of species names has not been widely accepted.This is because A)viruses are not organisms.
B)viruses change over time making species characteristics difficult to stabilize.
C)viruses that could be classified into a single species may have many, but not all, properties in common.
D)All of the above are arguments against using species designations for viruses.
Q3) Mammalian viruses capable of starting tumors are ______.
A)chronic latent viruses
B)oncoviruses
C)syncytia
D)inclusion bodies
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The production of antibiotics is a form of antagonism called ______.
A)symbiosis
B)synergism
C)antibiosis
D)mutualism
Q3) A loopful of bacteria containing 1000 bacterial cells is inoculated into a nutrient broth and incubated.After a negligible lag phase, the culture goes into exponential growth for two hours.The generation time for the bacterium is fifteen minutes.Which equation is the correct one to determine the number of cells present after two hours of log phase growth?
A)1000 X 2 X 2 X 15
B)1000 X 2<sup>8</sup>
C)1000 X 16
D)1000 X 2<sup>2</sup>
Q4) A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: The Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your bacterium is growing on a type of medium called casein agar, which contains milk protein (casein).There is a clear zone around the growth area of the bacterium, showing that it is synthesizing the enzymes needed to catalyze the breakdown of casein.These enzymes are considered ______.
A)apoenzymes
B)exoenzymes
C)ribozymes
D)endoenzymes
Q2) Which of the following is not a photosynthetic pigment?
A)Carotenoid
B)Leukophyll
C)Phycobilin
D)Chlorophyll
Q3) Each of the following are electron carriers except ______.
A)NAD
B)FAD
C)NADP
D)FADP
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a _____ for synthesis of new DNA strands.
A)copy point
B)template
C)comparison molecule
D)scaffold
E)reservoir
Q2) Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination?
A)Transformation
B)Conjugation
C)Mitosis
D)Transduction
Q3) DNA polymerase III
A)is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis.
B)synthesizes new DNA only in the 5'to 3'direction.
C)cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand.
D)synthesizes an RNA primer.
Q4) In bacteria, initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the evolutionary advantage of bacteria producing restriction endonucleases?
A)Bacteria use these enzymes to attack other bacteria and destroy their DNA.
B)They make these enzymes for humans to use in manipulating DNA.
C)These enzymes are a defensive measure of bacteria to defend themselves against invading DNA of bacteriophages.
D)Bacteria use these enzymes to repair their own mistakes made during DNA replication.
Q2) Viruses are often used as cloning hosts in recombinant DNA methods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) SNPs are derived from ______.
A)genetic engineering
B)frameshift mutations
C)gene therapy
D)point mutations
Q4) Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to ______.
A)desiccation
B)ultraviolet light
C)ethyl alcohol
D)hydrogen peroxide
E)gamma rays and X rays
Q2) Bacteriostatic agents kill bacterial cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ionizing radiation is more effective than nonionizing radiation in killing or inactivating microbes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from A)air.
B)liquids.
C)human tissues.
D)medical instruments.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold ______.
A)Penicillium notatum
B)Penicillium chrysogenum
C)Penicillium familiaris
D)Naturally produced penicillin is no longer used.
Q2) Drugs that target the plasma membrane are able to do so because
A)they are able to denature the membrane-associated proteins, creating pores thereby disrupting the integrity.
B)they target the phosphate group on the phospholipids, breaking down the bilayer.
C)they act as enzymes to break down the phospholipids.
D)they contain a lipid part that enables them to act as a detergent.
Q3) The drug that is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses, but can cause aplastic anemia, is ______.
A)chloramphenicol
B)clindamycin
C)ciprofloxacin
D)bacitracin
E)gentamicin
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are studying a newly identified infectious disease within a population.Think of the typical graph of the course of infection--incubation period through to convalescent period.The new disease reveals a course of infection characterized by fluctuating symptoms, with intermittent periods of invasion (acute period) between prodromal periods.The whole course of infection occurs over a period of months or even years.Based upon the information presented, select the statement that most accurately reflects this new infectious disease.
A)This infectious disease exhibits latency.
B)This is not an infectious disease at all.
C)The host has immune problems and this is the typical course of a disease for that population.
D)Viral infections always present with this type of disease course.
Q2) The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the ______ rate.
A)morbidity
B)mortality
C)incidence
D)endemic
E)pandemic
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal human microbiota is considered part of the 1st line of defense because
A)microbial antagonism keeps potential pathogens in check.
B)microbiota cause an inflammatory response, eliminating pathogens.
C)pathogens and normal biota cannot exist in the same location.
D)resident bacterial cells stimulate phagocytosis of pathogens.
Q2) What is the first step in the major events of the inflammatory process?
A)Activation of complement
B)Vascular reactions
C)Injury and mast cells releasing chemical mediators
D)Formation of pus and edema
E)Scar formation and/or resolution
Q3) You have severe itching problems when bitten by an insect.Your friend gives you an ointment to spread on your skin around the bite so that the redness and itching do not bother you.The likely mechanism of this medication would be
A)the inactivation of neutrophils.
B)the destruction of phagocytic cells.
C)to act as an antagonist of histamine.
D)the inhibition of lysozyme.
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the statements below represents the correct order of events in the adaptive immune response?
A)Lymphocyte challenge, antigen presentation, lymphocyte development, lymphocyte response
B)Antigen presentation, lymphocyte development, lymphocyte challenge, lymphocyte response
C)Antigen presentation, lymphocyte challenge, lymphocyte development, lymphocyte response
D)Lymphocyte development, antigen presentation, lymphocyte challenge, lymphocyte response
Q2) The major histocompatibility complex is
A)a set of glycoproteins, called MHC antigens, found on all body cells.
B)a set of genes that code for MHC glycoproteins.
C)found on the third chromosome.
D)located in the thymus gland.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Clonal selection requires the presence of foreign antigens.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of type III hypersensitivity?
A)The Arthus reaction is a local response.
B)Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues.
C)It involves an immune complex reaction.
D)Serum sickness is a systemic response.
E)It involves production of IgE antibodies.
Q2) The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when
A)fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh<sup>+</sup> mother.
B)fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother.
C)maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus.
D)fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother.
E)maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus.
Q3) The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is ______.
A)humoralpathology
B)hemopathology
C)epidemiology
D)immunopathology
E)histopathology
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Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sample is not collected by sterile needle aspiration?
A)Blood
B)Urine
C)Cerebrospinal fluid
D)Tissue fluids
E)All of the choices are collected by sterile needle aspiration.
Q2) Antibiotics are often added to biochemical media to restrict the growth to only those organisms that are being looked for in the specimens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Phage typing is useful in identifying ______.
A)Mycobacterium leprae
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)Clostridium
D)Treponema pallidum
E)Salmonella
Q4) ELISA tests use a fluorescent dye as a label to trace antigen-antibody reactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about blisters is correct?
A)Blisters result from a separation of epidermis from dermis.
B)Blisters originate in the subcutaneous layer.
C)Blisters are confined to the epidermis.
D)Blisters originate in the dermis.
Q2) Protective features of the skin include all of the following except ______. 7.
A)high pH
B)high salt content
C)lysozyme
D)a keratinized surface
E)resident biota
Q3) Impetigo can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.Culture-based identification of the causative organism can be complicated by
A)the common surface antigens of these two organisms.
B)the ability of S.aureus to kill S.pyogenes.
C)the fastidious nature of both organisms.
D)their common optimal growth temperature, 37°C.
Q4) Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a prion disease?
A)Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease
B)Scrapie
C)Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
D)Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Q2) Agricultural workers and field archaeologists are exposed to this organism which, despite entering via the respiratory tract, can cause meningitis.
A)Cryptococcus neoformans
B)Haemophilus influenzae
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae
D)Coccidioides immitis
E)Neisseria meningitidis
Q3) Prions can be transmitted by all of the following except
A)ingesting brain material.
B)ingesting meat from infected animals.
C)surgical instruments.
D)cornea transplants.
E) All of the choices have been documented as methods of prion transmission.
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following unprotected sex with a guy you met at a party, you are now worried about what you might have been exposed to during this episode.Ten days later, you talk to your doctor about getting an HIV test.What is the doctor's response?
A)HIV infection can be latent and asymptomatic for years, so testing should be postponed until you exhibit symptoms of AIDS.
B)The antibiotic that you have been taking for a urinary tract infection will also destroy HIV, so you don't have to worry about an infection.
C) It's too soon to detect the antibody produced by your immune system in response to HIV exposure, so a test will come back negative.Wait a few more weeks to be tested.
D) The incidence of HIV infection in the United States is at an all-time low level, so transmission was not at all likely, especially after only a single possible exposure.
Q2) The presence of viruses in the blood is called ______.
A)septicemia
B)fungemia
C)viremia
D)hemovirus
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Q1) The most common type of virus leading to rhinitis is _______.
A)coronavirus
B)adenovirus
C)rhinovirus
D)herpes simplex virus
E)retrovirus
Q2) Superantigens
A)include streptolysin O.
B)include erythrogenic toxin.
C)induce production of tumor necrosis factor.
D)are potent stimulators of T cells.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) What features of the respiratory system protect it from infection?
A)Nasal hairs
B)Cilia
C)Mucus
D)Macrophages
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Giardiasis involves
A)a protozoan that does not form cysts.
B)infection of the large intestine.
C)symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea.
D)vector transmission.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of schistosomiasis?
A)Schistosomiasis covers its outer surface with blood proteins to escape detection by the immune system.
B)Schistosomiasis is caused by blood flukes.
C) Schisotosomiasis cases are beginning to appear in the southern U.S., as climate change brings warming waters to the region.
D)Larvae called cercariae can penetrate intact skin through hair follicles.
E)Freshwater snails are the intermediate host.
Q3) Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori?
A)Produces urease to buffer stomach acidity
B)Curved rods
C)Lives in the stomach
D)Produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea
E)Gram-negative
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) You, a 29 year old sexually active male, have discovered some small vesicles on the penis.They are fluid-filled, red, and very painful.This is the second time that you have seen this.The first time around, about 2 months ago, you saw them but managed to ignore them.The lesions went away--no doctor, no treatment.But here they are again.You think that perhaps you picked up this infection six months ago, the last time that you had sex.Identify the likely infection.
A)Chlamydia
B) HSV-2 infection
C) Candidiasis
D) Syphilis
E) HSV-1 infection
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding leptospirosis in incorrect?
A)The causative organism infects the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes.
B)Humans acquire it by contact with abraided skin or mucous membranes.
C)It can be transmitted by animal bites.
D)The causative organism is a spirochete.
E)It is most common in cattle, horses, pigs, and dogs.
Q3) Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted by sexual activity.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Q1) Which of the following statements concerning metagenomic sequencing is incorrect?
A)Software aligns sequences and assemble large portions of genomes.
B)The samples are subject to polymerase chain reaction for amplification.
C)The sequences of the amplified fragments are determined by next-generation methods.
D)Proteins are extracted from an environment, fragmented, and adaptors are added.
Q2) Organisms that inhabit soil or water and breakdown and absorb the organic matter of dead organisms are called ______.
A)autotrophs
B)decomposers
C)secondary consumers
D)primary consumers
Q3) Carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>) is
A)removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis.
B)a source of carbon for autotrophs.
C)returned to the atmosphere during respiration and fermentation.
D)used by marine organisms to make limestone for their hard shells.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety
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Q1) The first product produced by genetic manipulation and recombinant technology was ______.
A)cortisone
B) amylase
C)insulin
D) penicillin
Q2) Primary sewage treatment includes ______.
A)skimming
B)sludge digesting
C)chlorination
D)filtration
E)aeration
Q3) Which bacteria ferment lactose in milk, producing acids that curdle the milk?
A)Spirulina
B)Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus
C)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
D)Pediococcus
E)Leuconostoc mesenteroides
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