Microbial Pathogenesis
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Microbial Pathogenesis explores the mechanisms by which various microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, cause disease in humans and other hosts. The course examines the strategies pathogens employ to invade host tissues, evade immune responses, and damage host cells, alongside the molecular and cellular foundations of host-pathogen interactions. Key topics include virulence factors, host immune defenses, epidemiology of infectious diseases, and emerging trends in antimicrobial resistance. Emphasis is placed on integrating theoretical knowledge with clinical examples to illuminate the processes underlying infection, disease progression, and public health implications.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology With Diseases By Taxonomy 5th Edition Robert W. Bauman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Brief History of Microbiology
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Q1) Use the basic steps of the scientific method to describe Pasteur's experiments to investigate spontaneous generation.
Answer: The observation that life seemed to appear from non-life led some scientists to believe in the theory of spontaneous generation.However,Pasteur among others believed in biogenesis: that life must come from life.The question Pasteur hoped to answer was "where do microbes come from?" (step 1).Pasteur's hypothesis (step 2)was that the "parents" of microbes were present in the air on dust particles.In his experiments (step 3),he used swan-necked flasks,which were designed to prevent microbes from entering the sterile broth inside them.He observed that the broth remained sterile in the control flask even though air could move into and out of the flask.The experimental flasks were also swan-necked,but they were tilted to allow the dust that had settled to enter the flask.The control flasks stayed sterile,and the experimental flasks became cloudy.These observations led Pasteur to accept his hypothesis (step 4).He concluded that the microbes came from the dust and that spontaneous generation was therefore not a valid theory.
Q2) A scientist conducts experiments to test a(n)(observation/hypothesis/theory).
Answer: hypothesis
Q3) Microbes that cause infectious disease are called (pathogens/germs/viruses).
Answer: pathogens
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Microbiology
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Q1) Organisms use carbohydrates in all of the following ways EXCEPT
A) as a component of cell walls.
B) as a long-term energy source.
C) as a short-term energy source.
D) to keep membranes flexible at low temperatures.
E) as a building block of DNA and RNA molecules.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is found in RNA but not DNA?
A) adenine
B) cytosine
C) deoxyribose
D) guanine
E) uracil
Answer: E
Q3) Jim adds an acid to a solution,but finds the pH has not changed afterward.This suggests the solution contains a(n)(anion/buffer/salt).
Answer: buffer
Q4) The DNA double helix is held together by (covalent/ionic/hydrogen)bonds.
Answer: hydrogen
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Describe how the structure of the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane relates to its function of selective permeability.
Answer: The structure and function of the cytoplasmic membrane are explained in the fluid mosaic model.The cytoplasmic membranes of bacterial cells are composed of phospholipids,which create a semipermeable barrier to the cell's outer environment.The only molecules that can easily cross the membrane are small,lipid soluble molecules.Other types of molecules must use the wide variety of transport proteins embedded in the phospholipid bilayer to cross the membrane.In this way,the cell can control the concentration of both its nutrients and its waste products.The cytoplasmic membrane can also be used for energy production and for photosynthesis in prokaryotic cells.
Q2) Which of the following processes requires a carrier protein?
A) diffusion only
B) facilitated diffusion only
C) active transport only
D) endocytosis only
E) both facilitated diffusion and active transport
Answer: E
Q3) Golgi bodies are examples of a (membranous/non-membranous/cellular)organelle.
Answer: membranous
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Microscopy, Staining, and Classification
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Q1) Carbolfuchsin is the ________ in the acid-fast stain.
A) primary stain
B) mordant
C) decolorizer
D) counterstain
E) fixing reagent
Q2) What role does safranin play in the Gram stain procedure?
A) primary stain
B) mordant
C) decolorizing agent
D) counterstain
E) negative stain
Q3) Why are modern light microscopes better than the ones Leeuwenhoek used?
A) Modern microscopes have a fivefold better resolution.
B) Modern microscopes are compound instead of simple.
C) Modern microscopes have lenses with smaller numerical apertures.
D) Modern lenses are made of prisms.
E) Modern microscopes are compound and have fivefold better resolution.
Q4) In a compound microscope,the lens that directs light into the eye is the (ocular/condenser/objective)lens.
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Q1) Amino acids are converted to substrates of the Krebs cycle by (beta-oxidation/deamination/transamination).
Q2) The various types of chlorophyll differ in the A) amount of light they can absorb.
B) amount of ATP they produce.
C) number of electrons they release.
D) amount of oxygen they utilize.
E) wavelengths of light they absorb.
Q3) A phosphate group is transferred from an organic compound to ADP during A) oxidative phosphorylation.
B) substrate-level phosphorylation.
C) beta-oxidation.
D) photophosphorylation.
E) anabolic reactions.
Q4) Beta-oxidation of fatty acids produces (acetic acid/acetyl-CoA/glycerol).
Q5) Electrons are transferred in the Krebs cycle in the form of (oxygen/hydrogen)atoms to NAD+ and FAD.
Q6) During chemiosmosis,electrons are pumped across a membrane to produce ATP. A)True B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Q1) During which growth phase are bacteria more susceptible to antimicrobial drugs?
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) stationary phase
D) death phase
E) The susceptibility is the same for all phases.
Q2) The growth of bacterial cultures is best described as
A) arithmetic growth.
B) lag growth.
C) logarithmic growth.
D) cell division.
E) replication.
Q3) A microbe that grows only at the bottom of a tube of thioglycollate medium is probably a(n)
A) obligate aerobe.
B) facultative anaerobe.
C) aerotolerant anaerobe.
D) microaerophile.
E) obligate anaerobe.
Q4) Alkalinophiles can survive in water up to pH (11.5/10/7.0).
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Q1) In conjugation,F+ cells
A) serve as recipient cells.
B) contain an F plasmid.
C) do not have conjugation pili.
D) can transfer DNA only to other F+ cells.
E) contain "jumping genes."
Q2) The effects of a transposition event are equivalent to a(n)
A) nonsense mutation.
B) missense mutation.
C) frameshift mutation.
D) silent mutation.
E) HFR conjugation.
Q3) DNA,which is negatively charged,wraps around positively charged histones as part of the packaging of eukaryotic chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the various types of nucleic acids that are typically found in cells.
Q5) The phenotype of an organism is its set of (genes/traits/chromosomes).
Q6) Compare and contrast the lactose operon with the tryptophan operon.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) Replacing a patient's defective gene with a fragment containing a functional gene is
A) gene therapy.
B) genomics.
C) gene cloning.
D) gene mapping.
E) gene selection.
Q2) The use of microbes to make practical products such as vaccines or hormones is called (genomics/recombination/biotechnology).
Q3) In the 20th century,scientists harnessed the natural metabolic reactions of bacteria to make ________ for the first time in an industrial setting.
A) soy sauce
B) acetone
C) wine
D) cheese
E) alcohol
Q4) Crop plants modified to be resistant to insect damage produce Bt toxin from a (bacterial/fungal/synthetic)gene.
Q5) Compare and contrast the two major categories of restriction enzymes.
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Chapter 9: Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment
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Q1) Which of the following antimicrobial agents is the most toxic to humans?
A) 70% alcohol
B) ethylene oxide
C) quaternary ammonium compounds
D) chloramines
E) iodophors
Q2) The (endospores/cysts/prions)are the infectious agents most resistant to antimicrobial agents or processes.
Q3) Standard pasteurization methods are used to
A) reduce microbes that cause spoilage.
B) remove all thermoduric microbes.
C) reduce microbes that cause disease.
D) remove all microbes.
E) reduce microbes that cause disease or spoilage.
Q4) The compound ethylene oxide is used in
A) sanitization.
B) sterilization.
C) antisepsis.
D) degerming.
E) disinfection.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Organs that are commonly affected by drug toxicity include the kidneys and the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nucleic acid analog drugs have no effect on human cell replication function.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following steps in the folic acid synthesis pathway is specifically inhibited by sulfonamides?
A) the conversion of tetrahydrofolic acid to PABA
B) the conversion of PABA to dihydrofolic acid
C) the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid
D) the conversion of PABA to tetrahydrofolic acid
E) the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to PABA
Q4) Which of the following antifungals works by binding to ergosterol in membranes?
A) fluconazole
B) turbinafine
C) amphotericin B
D) nystatin
E) both amphotericin B and nystatin
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes
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Q1) The ________ are obligately anaerobic bacilli found in human intestines that aid in digestion of plant material.
A) methanogen
B) mycoplasma
C) bacteroides
D) clostridium
E) cyanobacterium
Q2) The infective stage of chlamydia is called the (elementary/endospore/initial)body.
Q3) The bacterium (Agrobacterium/Cyanobacteria/Rhizobium)is a member of the alphaproteobacteria that forms beneficial relationships with higher plants.
Q4) Some members of the alphaproteobacteria produce a structure called a (filament/prostheca/pilus)to produce extra surface area for nutrient absorption.
Q5) Slow-growing bacteria in the genus (Mycoplasma/Mycobacterium)are able to withstand long exposure to air because of the presence of mycolic acid in their cell wall structure.
Q6) Explain the significance of endospores.
Q7) Describe the similarities and differences observed among phototrophic bacteria.
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Chapter 12: Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes
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Q1) Describe the ways in which algae and fungi are useful microbes.
Q2) Sexual reproduction in unicellular algae is accomplished by the cell acting as a (gamete/spore/zygote).
Q3) The plague is transmitted by (fleas/lice/ticks/mites).
Q4) The Apicomplexa are named for their apical complexes which allow them to
A) be motile by means of multiple flagella.
B) penetrate the cytoplasmic membranes of host cells.
C) undergo schizogony.
D) carry out photosynthesis.
E) attach to surfaces.
Q5) Which of the following has NOT been a basis for classification of the protozoa?
A) means of locomotion
B) genetic sequences
C) photosynthetic ability
D) habitat
E) ability to form a dormant stage
Q6) Conidiospores are the products of mitosis.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Limestone is made up of the shells of (foraminifera/parabasala/radiolarians).
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Chapter 13: Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Q1) Members of a virus family have the same type of nucleic acid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a feature shared by viruses and living organisms?
A) possession of a genome that directs synthesis of materials necessary for replication
B) presence of cytoplasm
C) metabolic capability
D) responsiveness
E) the ability to increase in size
Q3) Budding release of virus may result in long lasting or persistent infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Seven (orders/families/classes)represent the highest level of taxonomic rank used in classifying viruses.
Q5) Why is the synthesis of mRNA a central issue for all viruses? How do different types of viruses achieve this goal?
Q6) All viruses use the host cell's nucleic acid polymerases for replication.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology
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Q1) Which of the following stages of an infectious disease is the most severe?
A) the incubation period
B) the prodromal period
C) the illness period
D) the decline period
E) the convalescence period
Q2) The condition called parasitism is characterized as a(n)
A) relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits and the other is unharmed.
B) relationship between two organisms where both members benefit.
C) nonsymbiotic relationship.
D) unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes.
E) relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other.
Q3) A new influenza strain appears and is spreading rapidly.What measures might be taken by public health agencies to stop the spread?
A) Facilitate access to vaccines.
B) Identify and treat people who are infected.
C) Educate members of the public about ways to protect themselves.
D) Educate the public, promote vaccination, and treat those who are infected.
E) Shut down public transportation.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Innate Immunity
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Q1) The (epithelial/goblet/mucous)cells in the tracheal mucous membrane produce mucus.
Q2) Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is
A) the first line of defense.
B) the second line of defense.
C) the third line of defense.
D) microbial antagonism.
E) innate immunity.
Q3) Which of the following are phagocytic cells descended from monocytes?
A) alveolar macrophages
B) dendritic cells
C) microglial cells
D) alveolar macrophages and dendritic cells
E) alveolar macrophages and microglial cells
Q4) The absence of necessary receptors is the basis of the defense against microbial invasion known as (natural/innate/species)resistance.
Q5) The first and second lines of defense respond to invading microbes by (specific/nonspecific)mechanisms.
Q6) What is phagocytosis? What does it involve?
Q7) What are macrophages,and what are their functions?
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Chapter 16: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) An antigen produced by a pathogen while living inside a cell is known as an (auto-/endogenous/exogenous)antigen.
Q2) The most prevalent type of antibody in the blood is
A) IgD.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgG.
E) IgE.
Q3) What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease?
A) innate immunity
B) naturally acquired passive immunity
C) artificially acquired active immunity
D) artificially acquired passive immunity
E) naturally acquired active immunity
Q4) Which of the following is an exogenous antigen?
A) a bacterium inside a cell
B) a virus inside a cell
C) a bacterium outside a cell
D) a noninfected human cell
E) the malaria parasite inside a red blood cell
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Immunization and Immune Testing
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Q1) When vaccines do not provide lifelong immunity,(adjuvants/reinoculations/subunits)must be given to maintain protection.
Q2) A(n)________ assay is used for rapid identification of strep (group A Streptococcus)infections.
A) direct fluorescent antibody
B) immunodiffusion precipitation
C) viral neutralization
D) immunochromatographic
E) immunoblot
Q3) The MMR (measles,mumps,rubella)vaccine requires multiple immunizations in the first year because it is composed of whole killed viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Antisera directed against toxins are known as (antibodies/antitoxins/anti-antibodies).
Q5) Snakebites are treated with (antisera/antitoxins/antivenins).
Q6) How has modern technology helped to produce new types of vaccines?
Q7) An advantage of (attenuated/inactivated/subunit)vaccines is that they usually elicit cell-mediated immune responses.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Immune Disorders
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Q1) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)is a disease resulting from accumulation of immune complexes in various organs and tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Transfusion reactions are the result of antibody reaction to
A) glycolipids and glycoproteins on the surface of red blood cells.
B) MHC molecules on red blood cells.
C) MHC molecules on white blood cells.
D) plasma proteins.
E) foreign antibodies.
Q3) If a T cell is exposed to a "hidden" antigen,what kind of immune reaction will result?
A) an autoimmune disease
B) a delayed hypersensitivity reaction
C) a cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
D) allergic contact dermatitis
E) an allergy
Q4) Binding of IgE to the surface of sensitized cells leads to (activation/degranulation/lysis)of the cell,releasing many inflammatory chemicals.
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Chapter 19: Pathogenic Gram Positive Bacteria
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Q1) A sample of fluid from the lungs contains microbes that grow in filaments or clumps.The cells stain poorly in the Gram stain and are a pink-red when acid-fast stained.The bacteria in the sample are
A) Mycobacterium species.
B) Mycoplasma species.
C) Nocardia species.
D) Actinomyces species.
E) not identifiable with this information.
Q2) Which of the following statements about Bacillus anthracis is FALSE?
A) It is primarily a disease of humans.
B) It produces endospores.
C) It has a capsule.
D) It normally dwells in the soil and can survive in the environment for centuries or longer.
E) It can be lethal even after treatment because antimicrobial drugs do not inactivate accumulated anthrax toxin.
Q3) The ability to produce (hyaluronidase/lipase/proteases)enables Staphylococcus aureus to penetrate and spread through tissues.
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Chapter 20: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci and Bacilli
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Q1) Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by
A) Escherichia coli O157:H7.
B) Serratia marcescens.
C) Proteus mirabilis.
D) Bacteroides fragilis.
E) Salmonella typhi.
Q2) Important members of the intestinal microbiota are the strictly anaerobic
A) Enterobacter.
B) Bacteroides.
C) Pseudomonas.
D) Bordetella.
E) Legionella.
Q3) Which of the following coliforms is the most common cause of non-nosocomial urinary tract infections?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Serratia marcescens
C) Proteus mirabilis
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
E) Enterobacter
Q4) Cat scratch disease is caused by Bartonella (bacilliformis/henselae/quintana).
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Rickettsias, Chlamydias, Spirochetes, and Vibrios
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding trachoma is FALSE?
A) It is the leading cause of nontraumatic blindness in humans.
B) It is most often a disease of adults who suffer from sexually transmitted chlamydia.
C) It leads to corneal scarring.
D) It first infects the conjunctiva and kills cells there.
E) Infants may contract the disease while passing through an infected birth canal.
Q2) If the mother has (chlamydia/syphilis/yaws)at the time of birth,the pathogen can infect the newborn's eyes and may cause blindness.
Q3) Infection with ________ produces symptoms similar to RMSF,except for the rash,making it difficult to diagnose.
A) Anaplasma phagocytophilium
B) Chlamydophila psittaci
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Treponema carateum
E) Vibrio vulnificus
Q4) Untreated syphilis may persist in a latent state for (months/years/decades)before manifesting as tertiary syphilis.
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Chapter 22: Pathogenic Fungi
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Q1) Which of the following fungal infections can be contracted through thorn pricks or wood splinters?
A) Sporothrix schenckii
B) Cladophialophora
C) Malassezia furfur
D) Gyromitra esculenta
E) Aspergillus
Q2) Which of the following can establish a subcutaneous infection known as a mycetoma?
A) Microsporum
B) Candida albicans
C) Pneumocystis jirovecii
D) Mucor
E) Pseudoallescheria
Q3) Clusters of budding yeast and branching pseudohyphae are consistent with (candidiasis/dermatophytosis/histoplasmosis).
Q4) Vaccines to prevent fungal infection are widely available because attenuated strains are safe.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Parasitic Protozoa, Helminths, and Arthropod
Vectors
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Q1) Which of the following species of Plasmodium causes cerebral malaria?
A) only P. falciparum
B) P. ovale and P. malariae
C) P. ovale and P. vivax
D) P. vivax and P. malariae
E) P. vivax, P. malariae, and P. vivax
Q2) After a trip to several South American countries,a middle-aged man becomes ill.He becomes anemic,loses weight,and runs a fever.The clinician notes a recently healed sore near his nose.Microscopic examination of a blood smear does not reveal anything other than the anemia.What parasitic infection is consistent with this scenario?
A) malaria
B) leishmaniasis
C) Chagas' disease
D) giardiasis
E) balantidiasis
Q3) All tapeworms are intestinal parasites that completely lack digestive systems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The (brain/heart/liver)is the organ most severely damaged by Trypanosoma cruzi.
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Chapter 24: Pathogenic DNA Viruses
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Q1) Painful,blister-like lesions that progressively become filled with pus suggest infection with a (herpesvirus/poxvirus/papillomavirus).
Q2) Which of the following viruses are oncogenic?
A) parvovirus
B) human herpesvirus 4
C) papillomavirus
D) both human herpesvirus 4 and papillomavirus
E) both parvovirus and human herpesvirus 4
Q3) Which of the following families of DNA viruses is the most prevalent in humans?
A) Poxviridae
B) Herpesviridae
C) Adenoviridae
D) Polyomaviridae
E) Rhinoviridae
Q4) The polyomavirus known as BK may establish latent infection of A) B lymphocytes.
B) liver cells.
C) bone marrow stem cells.
D) nerve cells.
E) kidney cells.
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Chapter 25: Pathogenic RNA Viruses
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Q1) Infection with (astrovirus/norovirus/rotavirus)is the most common cause of diarrhea in children worldwide.
Q2) Which of the following viruses is considered a childhood disease,was first identified by a German physician,and is known to cause "three-day measles"?
A) rubella
B) roseola
C) echovirus
D) coxsackie A virus
E) rhinovirus
Q3) Ebola and Marburg viruses are emerging pathogens that cause life-threatening (encephalitis/diarrhea/hemorrhaging)and can be transmitted in body fluids.
Q4) Jonas Salk developed a(n)(attenuated/inactivated/subunit)polio vaccine in 1955.
Q5) Arboviruses are transmitted by the (contact/enteric/vector)route.
Q6) An RNA that can be used by a ribosome to translate into protein is (double/positive/negative)strand RNA.
Q7) The (hemagglutinin/neuraminidase/reverse transcriptase)of influenza viruses is both a virulence factor and a target for antiviral treatment.
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Chapter 26: Applied and Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following results when ethanol is allowed to oxidize to acetic acid following the fermentation of fruit,grain,or vegetables?
A) beer
B) wine
C) whey
D) vinegar
E) must
Q2) Pickling is an effective means of food preservation involving
A) increasing pH.
B) increasing salt concentration.
C) reducing pH.
D) increasing both salt concentration and pH.
E) increasing salt concentration or reducing pH or both.
Q3) The milk product known as (curd/yogurt/whey)is the basis of cheese production.
Q4) With the (batch/continuous)production technique,organisms are allowed to ferment their substrate until it is exhausted.
Q5) Benzoic acid is largely a(n)(antifungal/antiprotozoal/pickling)agent and does not affect the growth of many bacteria.
Q6) The organic material found in topsoil is called (humus/peat/compost).
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