Microbial Genetics Test Bank
Course Introduction
Microbial Genetics explores the molecular mechanisms by which microorganisms inherit, express, and exchange genetic information. The course covers the structure and function of microbial genomes, gene regulation, mutation, genetic recombination, plasmids, transposons, and the tools of genetic engineering. Students will gain an understanding of classical and molecular genetic approaches used to dissect gene function, microbial evolution, and antibiotic resistance. Real-world applications, including biotechnology, synthetic biology, and public health, are highlighted to illustrate how microbial genetics underpins advances in science and medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology Basic Principles 10th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
27 Chapters
2124 Verified Questions
2124 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3215
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63668
Sample Questions
Q1) When a the results of an experiment support a hypothesis, the hypothesis can now be considered a theory.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on
A)determining evolutionary relatedness.
B)bioremediation.
C)recombinant DNA.
D)nomenclature.
E)determining if that species is the cause of a new disease.
Answer: A
Q3) The fossil record has established that prokaryotes existed on Earth for approximately two billion years before eukaryotes appeared.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63667
Sample Questions
Q1) A newly synthesized polypeptide that will ultimately form a cytoplasmic protein will most likely fold into a tertiary structure with its _____________ amino acid R-groups facing outward.
A)hydrophilic
B)hydrophobic
Answer: A
Q2) One nucleotide contains A)one phosphate.
B)one pentose.
C)one nitrogen base.
D)All of these choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) An amino acid contains all of the following except
A)an amino group.
B)a carboxyl group.
C)a variable R group.
D)a carbon atom.
E)a nitrogenous base.
Answer: E
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 4
Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63666
Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed
Answer: fastidious
Q2) Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct?
A)resolving power
B)magnification
C)refraction
D)All of these choices are correct.
Answer: A
Q3) How will E. coli appear if the mordant is not applied?
A)gram-positive
B)gram-negative
C)gram-variable
D)colorless
Answer: B
Q4) Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63665
Sample Questions
Q1) Magnetosomes are
A)infoldings of the cell membrane.
B)termed metachromatic granules.
C)responsible for the heat resistance of endospores.
D)composed of magnetic iron oxide particles.
E)found in all bacteria.
Q2) A prokaryotic cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is
A)gram-negative.
B)gram-positive.
C)archaea.
D)a spheroplast.
E)acid fast.
Q3) Endospores of certain bacterial species can enter tissues in the human body, germinate, and cause an infectious disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The term diplococci refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells.
A)True B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63664
Sample Questions
Q1) The passageways in the nuclear envelope for movement of substances to and from the nucleus and cytoplasm are called nuclear _____.
Q2) Which of the following is the cause of malaria?
A)Toxoplasma gondii
B)Plasmodium
C)Giardia
D)Leishmania
E)Trypanosoma
Q3) Discuss in detail, at least four reasons why fungi belong in their own kingdom instead of the kingdoms Plantae or Protista.
Q4) All algae have chloroplasts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When buds remain attached, they form a chain of yeast cells called A)pseudohyphae.
B)septa. C)molds.
D)dimorphic.
E)mycelium.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63663
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is incorrect about prophages?
A)present when the virus is in lysogeny
B)formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome
C)replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny
D)always lyse the host cells
E)occur when temperate phages enter host cells
Q2) Compare and contrast the steps of viral multiplication cycles in bacteriophages and animal viruses.
Q3) The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is
A)adsorption to the host cells.
B)injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell.
C)host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins.
D)assembly of nucleocapsids.
E)replication of viral nucleic acid.
Q4) A common method for cultivating viruses in the lab is to use in vitro systems called _____ cultures.
Q5) Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient's blood for specific _____ that the immune system produced against the virus.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63662
Sample Questions
Q1) Which two enzymes catalyze the steps converting the toxic superoxide ion to less harmful oxygen gas?
A)catalase and hydrogen peroxidases
B)superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidase
C)superoxide dismutase and catalase
D)catalase and oxidase
E)superoxide dismutase and oxidase
Q2) An organism that can exist in both oxygen and oxygen-free environments is a(n) A)aerobe.
B)obligate aerobe.
C)facultative anaerobe.
D)microaerophile.
E)obligate anaerobe.
Q3) A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with A)carbon dioxide.
B)oxygen.
C)high salt.
D)temperatures above 37°C.
E)high acidity.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
88 Verified Questions
88 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63661
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following occur during the light-independent reactions EXCEPT A)carbon fixation.
B)reduction of intermediates by NADPH.
C)phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP.
D)regeneration or RuBP.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?
A)They occur in the thylakoid membranes.
B)They generates NADPH.
C)They generate glucose from CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O.
D)Photons cause magnesium to release electrons.
E)ATP is generated by a chemiosmotic mechanism.
Q3) ATP molecules are catalysts that lower the activation energy needed to initiate a reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Building block molecules for biosynthetic pathways come from the cell's catabolic pathways and from the environment.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
93 Verified Questions
93 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63660
Sample Questions
Q1) The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is A)transduction. B)conjugation.
C)transformation. D)transmission. E)mitosis.
Q2) The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called A)histones.
B)amino acids.
C)nucleotides. D)mRNA.
E)polymerases.
Q3) A screening system called the _____ test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential.
A)Koch
B)Ames
C)mutation
D)cancer
E)Iowa
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 11
Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63659
Sample Questions
Q1) The primers in PCR are
A)synthetic DNA oligonucleotides.
B)bacterial enzymes.
C)short RNA strands.
D)DNA polymerases.
E)reverse transcriptases.
Q2) When DNA is heated to just below boiling (90°C-95°C),
A)the sugar phosphate backbone of the DNA strands breaks.
B)the sugar, phosphate, and base come apart in each nucleotide.
C)the helix unwinds but hydrogen bonds between the bases remain intact.
D)the two DNA strands separate completely.
E)nothing happens until the boiling point is reached (100<sup>o</sup>C).
Q3) When determining the sequence of nucleotides in an unknown sample of DNA, which method is used to sequence the DNA?
A)PCR
B)Cloning
C)The Sanger Method
D)Southern blot hybridization
E)Microarray analysis
Q4) Compare and contrast recombinant DNA and gene therapy.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial Control
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63658
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not contain a heavy metal?
A)tincture of iodine
B)merthiolate
C)silver nitrate solutions
D)zinc
E)mercurochrome
Q2) Which of the following chemicals is a disinfectant for soft contact lenses?
A)hydrogen peroxide
B)alcohol
C)hexachlorophene
D)glutaraldehyde
E)hypochorites
Q3) Explain why boiling water is considered disinfection, not a sterilization method.List three materials commonly disinfected by boiling water.
Q4) Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is
A)disinfection.
B)sterilization.
C)sanitization.
D)degermation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host--The Elements of Chemotherapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63657
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except
A)they are broad spectrum.
B)they include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.
C)they are nephrotoxic.
D)they are used to treat respiratory, urinary, and sexually-transmitted infections.
E)they work by inhibiting bacterial DNA replication.
Q2) The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause
A)bacterial chromosomal mutations.
B)synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure.
C)removal of drugs from the cell.
D)alteration of drug receptors on cell targets.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat
A)influenza A virus.
B)HIV.
C)herpes zoster virus.
D)respiratory syncytial virus.
E)hepatitis C virus.
Q4) Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit _____ synthesis.
Page 14
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63656
Sample Questions
Q1) Which genus is resident flora of the mouth, large intestine, and, from puberty to menopause, the vagina?
A)Lactobacillus
B)Streptococcus
C)Haemophilus
D)Escherichia
E)Mycobacterium
Q2) Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of A)adhesive factors.
B)exotoxins.
C)hemolysins.
D)antiphagocytic factors.
E)exoenzymes.
Q3) Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of A)toxemia.
B)inflammation.
C)sequelae.
D)a syndrome.
E)latency.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63655
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are types of agranulocytes because they do not have prominent granules in their cytoplasm when stained, except
A)T-cells.
B)B-cells.
C)monocytes.
D)lymphocytes.
E)basophils.
Q2) Which is incorrect about complement?
A)Complement is composed of at least 26 blood proteins.
B)Complement proteins only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen.
C)The complement system acts in a cascade reaction.
D)Activation of complement can involve a classical pathway.
E)Activation of complement can involve an alternate pathway.
Q3) The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells.
Q4) All of the following are the results of complement activation, except
A)opsonization which enhances phagocytosis.
B)enhanced inflammation.
C)lysis of bacterial cells.
D)increased antibody production.
Page 16
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
97 Verified Questions
97 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63654
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except
A)they require smaller doses.
B)they require fewer boosters.
C)they confer longer lasting protection.
D)they can be transmitted to other people.
E)they produce infection but not disease.
Q2) Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity?
A)neutralization
B)opsonization
C)complement fixation
D)agglutination
E)anamnestic response
Q3) _____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.
Q4) Variolation involved using A)dried, ground smallpox scabs.
B)a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus.
C)preparations of human cowpox lesions.
D)antibodies to the smallpox virus.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
77 Verified Questions
77 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63653
Sample Questions
Q1) After a bone marrow transplant, the recipient's blood type may change to the blood type of the donor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity, except A)IgM.
B)IgG.
C)IgE.
D)complement.
E)foreign cells.
Q3) The antigens to which allergic individuals are sensitive are termed _____.
Q4) Compare and contrast local atopies and systemic anaphylaxis with regard to: a) events of the hypersensitivity, b) chemical mediators and their effects, c) patient tissues involved, and d) two specific examples of each.
Q5) Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to A)autoantibodies.
B)delayed hypersensitivity.
C)congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland.
D)failure of B cell development and maturity.
E)a genetic defect in the development of both T-cells and B cells.
Page 18
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63652
Sample Questions
Q1) When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents, a false positive result can occur.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A serum titer involves
A)serially diluting a serum sample.
B)determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction.
C)determining the highest dilution of antigen that produces a visible reaction.
D)the Western Blot method.
Q3) All of the following are correct about the indirect ELISA, except
A)it can detect antibodies in a serum sample.
B)it is the common screening test for antibodies to Helicobacter.
C)color development indicates that antibody was not present in the patient's serum.
D)it is the common screening test for antibodies to Hepatitis A.
E)a known antigen is adsorbed to the surface of a well.
Q4) Why do many physicians feel that stool cultures are not necessary, except in certain circumstances when diagnosing GI tract infections?
Q5) An antibody_____ provides a measure of the quantity of antibodies in the serum.
Page 19
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci of Medical Importance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63651
Sample Questions
Q1) Neisseria gonorrhoeae is
A)the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum.
B)the cause of gonorrhea.
C)called the gonococcus.
D)virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Local Staphylococcus aureus infections often involve formation of an abscess.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is
A)enterotoxin.
B)hemolysin.
C)toxic shock syndrome toxin.
D)exfoliative toxin.
E)erythrogenic toxin.
Q4) Discuss how normal flora Staphylococcus epidermidis can cause disease in the body, and describe the diseases that it causes.
Q5) Streptococcus agalactiae is known as Group _____ streptococci.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63650
Sample Questions
Q1) Tetanus can be prevented with the DTaP childhood immunization and boosters of the tetanus toxoid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection, except
A)it is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.
B)it is a colitis that is a superinfection.
C)it often has an endogenous source.
D)it may be on the rise due to increased use of gastric acid inhibitors.
E)it is major cause of diarrhea in hospitals.
Q3) Which of the following would be a significant risk factor for the development of listeriosis?
A)consumption of meat, poultry, eggs, and dairy products.
B)being a vegan.
C)receiving immunosuppressive drugs for treatment of an autoimmne disease
D)consuming home-canned foods.
Q4) Mycobacterium bovis is attenuated and used in the _____ vaccine.
Q5) Compare and contrast primary tuberculosis, secondary tuberculosis, and extrapulmonary tuberculosis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63649
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an agent of the sexually-transmitted disease chancroid?
A)Haemophilus aegyptius
B)Haemophilus influenzae
C)Haemophilus parainfluenzae
D)Haemophilus ducreyi
E)Haemophilus aphrophilus
Q2) Compare and contrast the three forms of plague with regard to: a) pathogenesis, b) transmission, c) symptoms, and d) prevention.
Q3) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is
A)found in soil and water.
B)an opportunist that produces many diverse enzymes.
C)highly chemical resistant.
D)motile.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Fever, vomiting, stiff neck, and neurological impairment are symptoms associated with _____.
Q5) Discuss Legionella pneumophila with regard to: a) reservoir, b) virulence, c) transmission, d) types of diseases, and e) prevention.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63648
Sample Questions
Q1) The causative agent of Lyme disease is
A)Ixodes scapularis.
B)Borrelia hermsii.
C)Borrelia burgdorferi.
D)Ixodes pacificus.
E)Leptospira interrogans.
Q2) Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their A)feces.
B)blood.
C)urine.
D)respiratory secretions.
E)saliva.
Q3) Ornithosis
A)is caused by Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
B)is a zoonosis of certain types of birds.
C)is a mild, upper respiratory tract illness.
D)has humans as a reservoir.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Discuss the activities or professions that would increase the risk of contracting Coxiella burnetii.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63647
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following pertain to Candida albicans, except
A)it is an opportunistic yeast.
B)small numbers found in the mouth, intestines, genitalia, and skin.
C)it has a large capsule.
D)infections often arise from an endogenous source.
E)persistent moist skin influences infection.
Q2) Diseases caused by fungi are termed _____.
Q3) Cryptococcus neoformans has the following characteristics, except A)it is commonly found in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia.
B)it is an encapsulated yeast.
C)it can be found in high numbers in soil containing pigeon droppings.
D)it usually enters body by inhalation.
E)it primarily infects patients with AIDS, cancer, and diabetes.
Q4) The typical transmission of dimorphic fungi is inhalation of _____.
Q5) Fungi cannot be found growing in nutritionally poor and adverse conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Adding salt and sugar can control the growth of certain bacteria but not fungi.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63646
Sample Questions
Q1) In temperate zones, pinworms are the most common helminth infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Amebiasis symptoms include
A)bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss.
B)fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain.
C)urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge.
D)chills, fever, and sweating.
E)sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes.
Q3) An amoeba trophozoite with visible ingested RBCs that is seen in a microscopic examination of a fecal smear would likely be the pathogen _____.
Q4) Enterobius vermicularis is
A)a whipworm.
B)common only to the tropics and subtropics.
C)an intestinal worm that easily contaminates fingers and fomites.
D)often fatal in heavy infestations.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q5) The most deadly form of systemic leishmaniasis is called _____.
Q6) Many protozoan species can form a _____ that can survive for periods outside a host.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the Dna Viruses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
76 Verified Questions
76 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63645
Sample Questions
Q1) Virtually, everyone becomes infected with the herpesviruses at some time in their lives.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Parvovirus B19 causes a fatal anemia in the fetus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The hepadnaviruses
A)include the adenoviruses.
B)show tropism for the liver.
C)are transmitted by respiratory secretions.
D)are nonenveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Variola major and variola minor are the two principal forms of smallpox disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast Hepatitis B virus, Hepatitis A virus, and Hepatitis C virus with regard to: a) virus characteristics, b) reservoir, c) transmission, d) incubation, e) symptoms, f) complications, and g) immunization.
Q6) Adenoviruses cause an inflammation of the conjunctiva and cornea called _____. Page 26
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27
Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63644
Sample Questions
Q1) West Nile virus has the following characteristics, except
A)it causes a hemorrhagic fever.
B)it is an arbovirus.
C)it is transmitted by a mosquito vector.
D)it is typically a flu-like illness.
E)it causes a severe encephalitis in less than 1% of infected persons.
Q2) The main route for transmission of HIV in most parts of the world is through
A)intravenous drug use.
B)homosexual sex.
C)blood transfusion.
D)heterosexual sex.
E)blood products.
Q3) Which of the following presents the greatest challenge to the development of a vaccine against HIV?
A)HIV doesn't provoke the production of antibodies.
B)Antibodies against HIV don't provide any protection from infection.
C)Surface antigens on HIV change readily due to frequent mutations.
D)Individuals are unwilling to participate in vaccine trials out of fear of developing AIDS.
Q4) The influenza virus uses _____ spikes to bind to host cells.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63643
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is incorrect about water?
A)When a water quality test is negative for coliforms, it is considered fit for human consumption.
B)There is no acceptable level for fecal coliforms, enterococci, viruses, or pathogenic protozoans in drinking water.
C)The (most probable number) MPN specifically detects fecal coliforms.
D)The membrane filter method is a widely used rapid method to test large quantities of water for quality.
E)Finding coliforms in high numbers indicates fecal contamination of the water.
Q2) A food web is generally simpler to visualize than a food chain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is "nitrogen fixation" and how do legumes play a role in this important cycle?
Q4) Some bacteria, such as Desulfovibrio, are able to reduce sulfates to hydrogen sulfide as the final step in the electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Nutrient deficient ecosystems are called ___________.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29
Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63642
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is incorrect about food-borne illnesses?
A)Most cases of food poisoning occur in the home and are not reported.
B)Reports of food poisoning are decreasing in the United States.
C)Avoiding cross contamination in the kitchen can reduce the risk of food poisoning.
D)The top viruses that cause food-borne illnesses are Norwalk and Hepatitis A viruses.
E)Food infection is associated with ingesting whole microbial cells.
Q2) The process of recovery, purification, and packaging of product is known as _________ processing.
Q3) How are microbes involved with our food?
A)Some microbes can serve as food, providing us with nutrients.
B)Microbes can ferment foods, providing rich flavors.
C)Microbes can cause food spoilage.
D)Microbes can contaminate our food and cause food poisoning.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) The microbes used by fermentation industries are mutant strains that synthesize large quantities of the desired product.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 30