
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Microbial Genetics explores the principles and mechanisms underlying the inheritance, expression, and evolution of genetic material in microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and archaea. The course covers topics including DNA replication, gene structure and regulation, genetic mutation and recombination, horizontal gene transfer, and applications of microbial genetics in biotechnology and medicine. Emphasis is placed on experimental techniques used to analyze microbial genomes and genetic diversity, as well as the role of microbes in gene transfer and development of antibiotic resistance.
Recommended Textbook
Prescotts Microbiology 10th Edition By
Joanne Willey
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Q1) Cells with a relatively simple cell morphology that do not have a true membrane-delimited nucleus are called
A)prokaryotes.
B)eukaryotes.
C)urkaryotes.
D)nokaryotes.
Answer: A
Q2) Proteins function in modern cells as A)catalysts.
B)hereditary information.
C)structural elements.
D)both catalysts and structural elements.
Answer: D
Q3) Edward Jenner's work in preventing rabies led to the use of the term vaccination to describe a type of procedure used in the prevention of disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) In transmission electron microscopy,spreading a specimen out in a thin film with uranyl acetate,which does not penetrate the specimen,is called
A)freeze-etching.
B)simple staining.
C)shadow staining.
D)negative staining.
Answer: D
Q2) An electron microscope uses __________ lenses to focus beams of electrons onto a specimen.
Answer: magnetic
Q3) Because transmission electron microscopy uses electrons rather than light,it is not necessary to stain biological specimens before observing them.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) __________ is the process by which internal and external structures of cells and organisms are preserved and maintained in position.
Answer: Fixation
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Q1) Growth factors cannot by synthesized by the bacteria that use them and include amino acids,pyrimidines,and vitamins.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Rigid bacteria with a helical cell shape are called A)vibrios.
B)spirilla.
C)spirochetes.
D)coccobacilli.
Answer: B
Q3) Although penicillin inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis,bacterial cells will continue to grow normally in the presence of penicillin in a(n)__________ environment.
A)hypotonic
B)isotonic
C)hypertonic
D)nonpolar
Answer: B
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Q1) The Archaea generally lack which of the following that are normally found in gram-negative bacteria?
A)Outer membrane
B)A complex peptidoglycan network
C)Lipopolysaccharide
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which cellular shape is seen among members of domain Bacteria that is not found among the domain Archaea?
A)Cocci
B)Bacilli
C)Comma shaped
D)Spiral or corkscrew shapes
Q3) Cell walls of most Archaea and bacteria contain peptidoglycan.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A peptidoglycan-like polymer found in the cell walls of some Archaea is called
Q5) Some archaeons are symbionts in animal digestive tracts.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The distribution of lipids in the plasma membrane of eukaryotes is symmetrical.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Eukaryotic ribosomes may be free in the cytoplasm or attached to the
Q3) Which of the following organelles is involved in the modification,packaging,and secretion of materials?
A)Lysosomes
B)Golgi apparatus
C)Mitochondria
D)Centrioles
Q4) Proteins are synthesized on structures called A)mesosomes.
B)lysosomes.
C)ribosomes.
D)chromosomes.
Q5) The __________ is a complex structure or set of structures lying beneath the plasma membrane of many protozoa and some algae,which serves as a supportive mechanism for these cells.
Q6) The region of the cell bounded by the plasma membrane is the
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Q1) For a temperate phage to produce more phage,which of the following must happen?
A)Lysogeny
B)Induction
C)Lysogenic conversion
D)Prophage formation
Q2) Which of the following is not a mechanism by which viruses cause cancer?
A)They carry a cancer-causing gene into the cell.
B)They encode proteins that bind to and inactivate host cell proteins known as tumor suppressor proteins.
C)They produce defective interfering particles.
D)An expression of viral proteins results in abnormal expression of genes that regulate cell growth and reproduction.
Q3) Many of the enzymes found in virus particles are
A)required for viral attachment to host cells.
B)involved in viral entry into host cells.
C)involved in the replication of viral nucleic acid.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Almost all known plant viruses are RNA viruses.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Organisms that grow well at 0<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C and have optimum growth temperatures of 15<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C or lower are called
A)psychrotrophs.
B)psychrophiles.
C)frigiphiles.
D)mesophiles.
Q2) The process of segregating the daughter chromosomes in Sulfolobus is more similar to the process in eukaryotic cells than in bacterial cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Organisms that grow near deep-sea volcanic vents are likely to be
A)psychrophilic.
B)psychrotrophic.
C)mesophilic.
D)thermophilic.
Q4) Blood agar is both a differential and enriched medium.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Organisms that grow best at pH levels above 10 are called __________
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Q1) Which of the following influence(s)the efficiency of an antimicrobial agent?
A)concentration of the agent
B)duration of exposure
C)temperature
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Moist heat sterilizes by
A)causing the formation of thymine dimers.
B)denaturing proteins.
C)causing production of singlet oxygen.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Betapropiolactone is not as useful as ethylene oxide as a sterilizing agent because it does not penetrate materials as readily as ethylene oxide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ultraviolet radiation is an effective means of sterilizing surfaces.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Microorganisms show differential sensitivity to antimicrobial agents.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) An antimicrobial drug that inhibits the growth of bacteria without affecting the growth or function of cells in the human host is described as being ___________
Q2) Bacteria in biofilms or abscesses may be replicating very slowly and are therefore resistant to chemotherapy because many agents affect pathogens only if they are actively growing and dividing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following does not inhibit protein synthesis?
A)Tetracycline
B)Streptomycin
C)Erythromycin
D)Penicillin
E)All of the choices inhibit protein synthesis.
Q4) The antiviral drugs currently approved for use in HIV disease include
A)nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors.
B)nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors.
C)protease inhibitors.
D)fusion inhibitors.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Q1) Covalent modification of enzymes most commonly uses phosphoryl,methyl,and adenyl groups.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Consider a biochemical pathway with five steps that lead to the production of product Q.If there is an abundance of product Q,the most efficient way to slow down the entire pathway would be to regulate _____________________.
A)the first enzyme in the pathway
B)the last enzyme in the pathway
C)every enzyme in the pathway
Q3) The amount of heat energy needed to raise 1 gram of water from 14.5<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C to 15.5<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C is called a(n)
A)joule.
B)calorie.
C)erg.
D)thermal unit.
Q4) __________ is the science that analyzes energy changes in a collection of matter.
Q5) _________ is the total of all chemical reactions occurring in the cell.
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Q1) Whereas the Embden-Meyerhof pathway produces two molecules of pyruvate (net)for each glucose,the Entner-Doudoroff pathway produces one molecule each of ___________ and ____________.
Q2) During glycolysis,ATP is produced when 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate transfers a phosphate to ADP forming ATP.This is an example of A)photophosphorylation.
B)oxidative phosphorylation.
C)substrate-level phosphorylation.
D)glycolytic phosphorylation.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true regarding ATP synthases?
A)They require proton motive force to make ATP.
B)They span the inner membrane of mitochondria.
C)The proton flow is outward during ATP synthesis.
D)The subunits of ATP synthase undergo conformational changes during ATP production.
Q4) Glycolysis and the TCA cycle are two of the most important catabolic pathways in chemoorganotrophs.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Although most autotrophic microorganisms fix carbon dioxide using the Calvin-Benson cycle,this pathway is absent in the Archaea.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Eukaryotic cells compartmentalize some anabolic and catabolic pathways so that these pathways can be operated _______.
Q3) Symbiotic nitrogen fixation can consume up to ______% of the ATP generated by the host plant.
A)5
B)20
C)30
D)50
Q4) __________ reactions are used to replace TCA cycle intermediates that have been used to provide carbon skeletons for amino acid biosynthesis.
A)Amphibolic
B)Anaplerotic
C)Anabolic
D)Catabolic
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Q1) Two amino acids that are found in some proteins due to exceptions in the universal genetic code are
A)pyrrolysine and selenocysteine.
B)lysine and selenocysteine.
C)pyrrolysine and cysteine.
D)lysine and cysteine.
Q2) During DNA replication,deoxyribonucleosides are added to the 5' end of Okazaki fragments and to the 3' end of the leading strand.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a DNA molecule is replicated,the daughter molecules contain one strand of parental DNA and one strand of newly synthesized DNA; this is called __________ replication.
A)hemiconservative
B)conservative
C)semiconservative
D)dispersive
Q4) Messenger RNA molecules have a nontranslated sequence called the __________ ,which is located downstream of the termination codon.
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Q1) It has been observed that when the sugar source changes in a growth medium,the growth rate of yeast vary widely in response.Some strains of yeast are slow to induce catabolic operons while other strains quickly synthesize proteins to process the new sugar.What might be one explanation for this difference in the growth rate of the strains?
A)Different sugars can act as effector or repressor molecules in various strains,promoting or inhibiting transcription of genes depending on the type of sugar present.
B)Operons for anabolic pathways are controlled by many global regulatory mechanisms,and different sugars can favor initiation of different pathways depending on the strain of yeast.
C)All of the choices are correct.
D)Catabolic repression strategies of operons for using different sugars may vary among strains,thereby favoring initiation of transcription in one strain over another depending on the sugar.
Q2) The site on the DNA to which a repressor protein binds is the __________.
A)operon
B)operator
C)promoter
D)regulator
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Q1) In eukaryotes a so-called cap consisting of __________ is attached to the 5' end of the molecule during posttranscriptional modification of hnRNA to produce functional mRNA.
Q2) The chromosomes of most bacteria are comprised of
A)double-stranded circular molecules.
B)double-stranded linear molecules.
C)single-stranded circular molecules.
D)single-stranded linear molecules.
Q3) The region at which the RNA polymerase binds is the __________ region.
A)leader
B)promoter
C)coding
D)trailer
Q4) Split or interrupted genes have been found in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Many archaeal genomes include plasmids.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Splicing of eukaryotic heteronuclear RNA is catalyzed by ________. Page 17
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Q1) The genome of a recipient cell is called a(n)__________.
A)merozygote
B)exogenote
C)endogenote
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Repair of thymine dimers using light to split the dimers apart into separate monomers is called
A)photodedimerication.
B)photoreactivation.
C)photoreparation.
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) The incorporation of a single strand of donor DNA into a recipient DNA duplex so that the donor strand replaces one of the strands or the recipient duplex generates __________ DNA.
A)aberrant
B)unstable
C)heterogeneous
D)heteroduplex
Q4) __________ mutations affect only a single base pair in a gene.
Q5) The __________ __________ is the most prevalent form of a gene in a population.
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Q1) Recombinant DNA technology does not rely on which of the following enzymes?
A)restriction endonucleases
B)RNA methylase
C)DNA ligase
D)reverse transcriptase
Q2) A(n)__________ __________ is a piece of DNA with all of the features necessary for chromosomal replication and which can carry large (up to 1000 kb)pieces of foreign DNA into a host organism.
Q3) Cosmids are so named because they can be used to express foreign genes in a variety of different hosts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A PCR procedure that allows a determination of the amount of a particular DNA fragment that is present in a sample is called
A)quantitative PCR.
B)analytical PCR.
C)real-time PCR.
D)reverse PCR.
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Q1) Expressed sequence tags are nucleotide sequences derived from cDNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Isoelectric focusing separates proteins based on the pH at which they are electrically _________.
Q3) The term "proteome" refers to the complete amino acid sequence of a protein.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Metagenomics has helped us to understand that the composition of the microbiome may be connected to many aspects of human health.
A)True
B)False
Q5) After completing the nucleotide sequence of a microbial genome,computer translation of DNA sequence allows enzymes to be identified based on a short pattern of amino acid sequence called a contig that corresponds to the active site of the enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Automated nucleotide sequencing machines detect DNA bands by laser induced
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Q1) A classification system based on mutual similarity that involves comparing as many characteristics as possible is called a __________ system.
A)phylogenetic
B)phyletic
C)phenetic
D)determinative systematic
Q2) The two major approaches used in taxonomic classification of microorganisms that have been isolated and grown in pure culture are termed .
Q3) A population descending from a single organism or pure culture isolate is called a ______.
A)genus
B)species
C)subspecies
D)strain
Q4) Although there are other classification schemes for prokaryotes,the one used in Bergey's Manual is currently considered by most microbiologists to be the most accurate.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An organism that requires at least 1.5 M NaCl in order to grow is referred to as a(n)______.
A)facultative halophile
B)extreme halophile
C)sodiophile
D)barophile
Q2) Methanogenic Archaea are
A)obligate anaerobes that produce methane.
B)obligate anaerobes that consume methane.
C)obligate aerobes that produce methane.
D)obligate aerobes that consume methane.
Q3) Methanogens can live only in __________ environments.
A)aerobic
B)anaerobic
C)microaerophilic
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Archaeons are not known to incorporate (fix)carbon dioxide.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The metabolic feature that defines Thaumarchaeota is _______ _______.
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Q1) Specialized cell surface proteins on the neck of Mycoplasma mobile allow for ______.
A)gliding motility
B)flagellar motility
C)"inchworm" motility
D)"rolling" motility
Q2) The part of the spirochete that houses the cytoplasm and the nucleoid of spirochetes is called the _______ cylinder.
A)ectoplasmic
B)cytoplasmic
C)protoplasmic
D)mesoplasmic
Q3) Green sulfur bacteria are nonmotile but can control their depth by using gas vesicles to control buoyancy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A trichome is a bacterial cell with three different photosynthetic pigments.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The enzyme formate dehydrogenase (FDH)splits formic acid to H<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub> and is crucial to survival during fermentation because if fermentive intermediates were allowed to accumulate within the cell,the internal pH would become far too _______ to support viability.
A)hypertonic
B)acidic
C)hypotonic
D)alkaline
Q2) Species of the genus Thiobacillus
A)oxidize inorganic sulfur compounds and produce ATP.
B)produce acids that leach metals out of ore.
C)are ubiquitous in soil,freshwater,and marine environments.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Biochemical tests are no longer very important for the identification of enteric bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Haemophilus influenzae type b is a causative agent of meningitis in children.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Thermoactinomyces vulgaris is the causative agent for _______.
A)cystic fibrosis
B)farmer's lung disease
C)primary atypical pneumonia
D)vaginitis
Q2) Which of the following is a normal skin resident?
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Streptococcus mutans
D)Clostridium perfringens
Q3) Bacteria in the genus ________ are sulfate and sulfite reducers.
Q4) Enterococcus faecalis has been associated with _______.
A)endocarditis
B)abscesses
C)diarrhea
D)sinus infection
Q5) Strains of Staphylococcus aureus that are resistant to __________ generally cannot be treated with antibiotic therapy.
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Q6) Pyogenic streptococci usually produce ___________-hemolysis when cultured on blood agar.
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Q1) Although the actinomycetes are generally nonmotile,the spores may be flagellated and,therefore,motile.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Members of the genus Actinomyces are either facultative or strict anaerobes that require ________ for optimal growth. or
Q3) Members of the genus Micrococcus usually exist as ______. A)pairs
B)tetrads
C)irregular clusters
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) A(n)_____________ mycelium is a branching network of fibers on and/or beneath the surface of the agar growth medium.
Q5) Bacteria can act as probiotic agents,such as species of _____ added to yogurt,to help impart health effects to the intestinal tract.
Q6) A(n)_____________ mycelium is a branching network of filaments that rises above the agar growth medium.
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Q1) Which of the following morphologies are seen among the Chloroplastida?
A)Filamentous
B)Unicellular
C)Colonial
D)Sheet-like
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The study of algae is referred to as
A)phycology.
B)phytology.
C)mycology.
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) What is the most likely role of the tests in a testate amoeba?
A)Provide motility
B)Concentrate nutrients
C)Provide protection
D)Enable adherence to surfaces
Q4) __________ from foraminifera make up the White Cliffs of Dover and the stones used to build the great pyramids.
Q5) _____________ produce 40 to 50 percent of the organic carbon in the ocean.
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Q1) Microsporidia have a unique organelle,the ______________ _______________ that is used to invade the host cell.
Q2) Asexual reproduction in fungi can be accomplished by
A)binary fission.
B)hyphal fragmentation.
C)budding of somatic vegetative cells.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Fungi form functional associations with which of the following?
A)Plant roots
B)Phototrophic microbes
C)Animals
D)Plant roots and phototrophic microbes
Q4) Chytrids usually develop long branching hyphae that form a visible mycelium on the surface of leaf litter in the soil.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Fungi are essential in industrial production of food and spirits.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ______________ are fungi that lack mitochondria,peroxisomes,and centrioles.
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Q1) __________ is an unusual base found in the DNA of T4 phages.
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the replicative form (dsDNA)of phage phiX174?
A)Function to direct the synthesis of more RF copies.
B)Function to direct the synthesis of minus-stranded DNA.
C)Function to direct the synthesis of plus-stranded DNA.
D)Function to direct the synthesis of mRNA.
Q3) Glucosylation of hydroxymethylcytosine residues protects phage T4 DNA from cleavage by bacterial restriction enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In viral infections involving double-stranded DNA viruses,all of the viral genes are usually expressed prior to the replication of viral nucleic acid.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Lysogeny always requires integration of the viral genome into the host chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Nitrogen fixation is an energy-yielding process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which organisms would most likely be present on the bottom or closest to the actual surface of a complex microbial biofilm?
A)Anaerobic sulfate-reducing bacteria
B)Cyanobacteria
C)Facultative chemoorganotrophs
D)Eukaryotic protists
Q3) Ecologists have documented the extinction over the last 20 years of _______ of the 110 species of harlequin frogs (Atelopus)native to tropical America.
A)100%
B)15%
C)67%
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) The removal of nutrients from nutrient cycling when those nutrients are converted to biomass is referred to as nutrient _______.
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Q1) Optical tweezers can be used to _______.
A)study nucleic acids recovered from individual cells
B)help dissect individual microorganisms
C)remove structures from the surface of cells
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) __________ techniques are based on recreating a microenvironment in the laboratory to promote the growth of a microorganism formerly restricted to a small ecological niche.
A)Enrichment culture
B)Fastidious growth
C)PCR
D)Community growth
Q3) The reporter gene most commonly used to monitor changes in the physical microenvironment for a single microorganism is the ______.
A)green fluorescence protein gene
B)luciferase gene
C)beta-galactosidase gene
D)RecA protein gene
Q4) _______ culture are pure cultures,consisting of a single species.
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Q1) In general,microbial growth in the open ocean is most limited by the availability of ______.
A)phosphorus
B)manganese
C)iron
D)nitrogen
Q2) SAR11 bacteria are now thought to constitute about _____% of all microbial life on earth.
A)5
B)10
C)25
D)40
Q3) The open ocean is a(n)________ environment.
A)eutrophic
B)oligotrophic
C)neotrophic
D)phylotrophic
Q4) Viruses in the marine environment (virioplankton)are very abundant.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) One of the more important genera of gram-positive aerobic actinomycetes found in soils is ________.
A)Streptomyces
B)Bdellovibrio
C)Acinetobacter
D)Pseudomonas
Q2) The stems and leaves of plants,called the ___________,provide a habitat for a wide variety of microorganisms.
A)plant crust
B)rhizosphere
C)phyllosphere
D)microbivory
Q3) Which of the following statements is correct?
A)All plants maintain a mycorrhizal relationship.
B)Most plants maintain a mycorrhizal relationship.
C)Some plants maintain a mycorrhizal relationship.
D)Only a few plants maintain a mycorrhizal relationship.
Q4) The surface of a plant root is called the __________. or
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Q1) Which of the following would you expect to find in the tonsilar crypts?
A)Micrococcus
B)Staphylococcus
C)Streptococcus
D)Neisseria
Q2) Insects frequently contain bacteria in their cytoplasm,and these bacteria form a mutualistic association with their host.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would you not find in the nasopharynx?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Neisseria meningitidis
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Branhamella catarrhalis
Q4) The specialized structure in a tube worm in which endosymbiotic,chemolithotrophic bacteria live is called a(n)__________.
Q5) The term ____________ is used to describe a mutually beneficial association in which the growth of an organism is dependent on one or more growth factors,nutrients,or substrates provided by another organism in the same vicinity.
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Q1) Which of the following types of immunity primarily relies on interactions between antigens and antibodies?
A)Natural immunity
B)Acquired immunity
C)Nonspecific immunity
D)Innate immunity
Q2) The alternate complement pathway plays an important role in
A)innate immunity.
B)aquired immunity.
C)specific immunity.
D)both innate immunity and specific immunity.
Q3) The lower genitourinary tract is usually free of microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)include
A)lipopolysaccharide.
B)peptidoglycan.
C)phospholipids of the cytoplasmic membrane.
D)Two of the choices are correct.
E)All of the choices are correct.

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Q1) During activation of a T cell,the cytokine it produces to stimulate its own proliferation is _________.
A)interferon gamma
B)interleukin 1
C)interleukin 2
D)tumor necrosis factor
Q2) Superantigens cause
A)specific activation of phagocytic cells.
B)stimulation of T cells to overproduce cytokines.
C)specific activation of phagocytic cells and stimulation of T cells to overproduce cytokines.
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) What types of antigens are most susceptible to the action of precipitins?
A)Antigens on bacterial surfaces
B)Antigens on the surface of viral particles
C)Soluble antigens
D)Host cellular antigens
Q4) The changeover in production from IgM to IgG by an activated B cell is called a __________ __________ event.
Q5) The __________ chains are structurally distinct for each immunoglobulin class.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51998
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Q1) A neutralizing antibody against a toxin is called a(n)__________.
Q2) Which of the following must a pathogen possess in order for it to be successful at causing infectious disease?
A)Ability to be transported initially to the host
B)Ability to exit the host
C)Ability to adhere to,colonize,or invade the host
D)Ability to damage the host
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) In which of the following situations did disease develop due to vertical transmission of the pathogen?
A)A fetus develops listeriosis after unpasteurized cheese infected with Listeria bacteria is consumed by the mother during pregnancy
B)A traveler develops gastroenteritis after drinking water that is contaminated with Escherichia coli bacteria
C)A dog develops rabies after being scratched during a fight with a raccoon that carries the virus
D)A hospitalized patient develops MRSA bacteria in a wound following surgery
Q4) Because LPS is bound to the surface of bacteria,it is called a(n)__________.
Q5) The term __________ refers to the degree or intensity of pathogenicity.
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Q1) Which of the following is not used to culture viruses?
A)Growth on artificial media
B)Growth in cell cultures
C)Growth in embryonated hen's eggs
D)Growth in whole animals
Q2) A colorless substrate acted on by the enzyme portion of the ligand to produce a colored product is known as a/an _________.
A)antibody
B)chromogen
C)antigen
D)serotype
Q3) What is the first piece of information that is used in the identification of an unknown bacterial isolate?
A)The ability of the bacterial isolate to ferment glucose
B)The ability of the bacterial isolate to ferment lactose
C)The presence of catalase enzyme
D)The Gram stain morphology
Q4) Restriction endonucleases are a class of enzymes produced by bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Eight 10-year-olds in the community became sick within a 24-hour period with vomiting and diarrhea.Personnel from the health department interviewed the children and their families,attempting to determine the source of the illness.Which piece of information below is most suggestive of the common source?
A)All eight children go to the same school.
B)In two of the eight families,siblings were just beginning to show signs of illness at the time of the interview.
C)All eight children attended the same birthday party two days prior to becoming ill.
D)Five of the eight children ride the same school bus.
E)Six of the eight children are on the same soccer team which practices three times/week.
Q2) Surveillance of health issues is typically accomplished by two methods: population surveys and antibiotic treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Living transmitters of an infectious organism from one host to another are called
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Q1) In humans,equine encephalitis can present as a spectrum from fever and headache to ___________ ____________and encephalitis.
Q2) Infectious hepatitis (hepatitis A)is usually transmitted by
A)fecal-oral contamination of food or drink.
B)sexual activity.
C)contaminated blood.
D)inhalation of droplets.
Q3) Which of the following is the most notable symptom of infection with Norovirus?
A)Vomiting
B)Headache
C)Fever
D)Constipation
E)Skin rash
Q4) Which of the following drugs has been shown to reduce the duration and symptoms of influenza?
A)Penicillin
B)AZT
C)Oseltamivir
D)Acyclovir
Q5) The AIDS virus becomes established in cells bearing the __________ receptor.
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Q1) Which body defense is neutralized by the type III secretion system of Yersinia pestis?
A)Phagocytes
B)Complement
C)T<sub>H</sub> cells
D)Cytotoxic T cells
E)Antibodies
Q2) A strain of Vibrio cholerae lacking the cholera toxin gene (ctxAB)would be
A)unable to survive outside of the human gut.
B)unable to adhere to the intestinal epithelium.
C)unable to cause watery diarrhea.
D)unable to survive inside the human digestive tract.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) Leprosy is caused by a microbe of the genus ________.
A)Chlamydia
B)Streptococcus
C)Staphylococcus
D)Mycobacterium
Q4) Dental pathogens are called __________.
Q5) Newborn infants can be infected with Group _______ streptococcus during birth.
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Q1) Which of the following is known to use tsetse flies as intermediate hosts?
A)Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
B)Giardia lamblia
C)Entameoba histolytica
D)Histoplasma capsulatum
Q2) The dermatophytes that cause the subcutaneous mycoses are normal saprophytic inhabitants of
A)the digestive system of insects.
B)the digestive system of humans.
C)the soil and decaying vegetation.
D)plants.
Q3) Diagnosis of malaria is made by demonstrating the presence of parasites within Gram-stained erythrocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The yeast Trichosporon beigelii causes ________.
A)black piedra
B)athlete's foot
C)histoplasmosis
D)white piedra

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Q1) If food-borne disease transmission requires ingestion of the pathogen,followed by growth of the organism,and release of toxins in the intestine it is referred to as a food-borne __________.
Q2) The production of natural carbon dioxide by yeasts after a wine is bottled results in ________.
A)sweet wine
B)dry wine
C)champagne
D)brandy
Q3) Filtration is sometimes used to remove organisms from beer because it has less effect on the flavor than pasteurization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In breadmaking,yeast growth is usually carried out under ____________ conditions,which results in more carbon dioxide production and less alcohol accumulation. or
Q5) Microorganisms that grow in media with low water availability are called
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Q1) A major advantage of protoplast fusion is the fact that
A)the microbes are rendered harmless by the process.
B)protoplasts of different microbial species can be fused.
C)the protoplast condition can easily be maintained indefinitely.
D)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Phenylacetic acid is added to the penicillin fermentation to allow incorporation of which side chain group?
A)Acetyl
B)Benzyl
C)Methyl
D)Propyl
Q3) In many ways,______________ as a biofuel compares very favorably to ethanol and other fuels. or
Q4) The major organism used in the microbial production of citric acid is _________.
A)Penicillium notatum
B)Rhizopus nigrificans
C)Aspergillus niger
D)Lactobacillus delbrueckii
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Q1) The solubilization of metals from low-grade ores by microorganisms is called
or
Q2) The presence-absence test is a modification of which test?
A)Membrane filter
B)MPN
C)Virus plaque assay
D)None of these choices are correct.
Q3) Molecular techniques using 16S rRNA gene targeted primers are now used routinely to detect coliforms in water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Slow sand filtration effectively removes _________.
A)Giardia lamblia
B)Cryptosporidium parvum
C)most heavy metals
D)viruses
Q5) Removal of environmental pollutants using microorganisms is called __________. or
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