Microbial Genetics
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Microbial Genetics explores the fundamental principles of genetics as they apply to microorganisms, including bacteria, archaea, fungi, and viruses. This course examines the molecular structure and function of microbial genomes, mechanisms of genetic variation and inheritance, and gene expression and regulation in microbes. Students will gain understanding of topics such as mutation, horizontal gene transfer, plasmids, transposons, and the use of microbes in genetic engineering and biotechnology. Laboratory techniques in microbial genetics, such as transformation, conjugation, and molecular cloning, are often discussed to provide a comprehensive view of the genetic and genomic analysis of microorganisms.
Recommended Textbook
iGenetics A Molecular Approach 3rd Edition by Peter J. Russell
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Chapter 1: Genetics: An Introduction
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Q1) What is recombinant DNA technology?
Answer: Recombinant DNA technology encompasses procedures that allow scientists to join together DNA from two or more different organisms and make many identical copies of them (cloning).
Q2) Quantitative genetics is
A)the quantitative study of the activity of a gene.
B)the study of the genetic diversity within a large group of individuals of the same species.
C)the study of the genetic diversity within members of a number of related species.
D)the study of traits that are determined by a number of genes simultaneously.
E)the study of the number of characteristics found in an organism.
Answer: D
Q3) What is the hypothetico-deductive method of investigation?
Answer: The hypothetico-deductive method of investigation consists of observing a phenomenon,forming hypotheses to try and explain the observations,making experimental predictions based on those hypotheses,and finally testing out the predictions by doing specific experiments.
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Chapter 2: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Q1) Hershey and Chase used radioactive sulfur to label the genetic material of bacteriophages.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The more condensed a part of a chromosome is,the more likely it is that the genes in that region will be active.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The C-value is the amount of DNA in a A)haploid genome.
B)diploid genome.
C)bacterial genome.
D)eukaryotic genome.
E)cell's nucleus.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: DNA Replication
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Q1) How were the sequences that compose the replication origins in yeast discovered?
Answer: Yeast cells were grown in heavy isotope media to produce denser DNA and then shifted to media with normal,light isotopes.After a few minutes,DNA from these cells was extracted and cut into small pieces.The lighter DNA fragments (which should contain the origins of replication)were collected,fluorescently labeled,and used to hybridize a microarray of yeast sequences.Determination of the sequences to which this light,fluorescently labeled DNA hybridized led to the identification of a number of yeast replication origins.
Q2) At the growing end of a DNA chain,DNA polymerase catalyzes the formation of a disulfide bond between the 3'-OH group of the deoxyribose on the last nucleotide and the 5'-phosphate of the dNTP precursor.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) DNA polymerase III is very inaccurate at matching bases during replication,with errors in one out of every 100 base pairs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Gene Function
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Q1) Which of the following is a sex-linked disorder?
A)Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
B)Alkaptonuria
C)Albinism
D)Down syndrome
E)Tay-Sachs disease
Q2) The cystic fibrosis gene (CFTR)codes for a protein that is essential for
A)secretion of mucus.
B)ion transport across membranes.
C)transport of oxygen in red blood cells.
D)metabolism of certain amino acids.
E)processing of gangliosides.
Q3) How can enzyme assay be used to detect carriage of a recessive gene mutation in a person of normal phenotype?
Q4) Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the gene that encodes which enzyme?
A)Pyruvate kinase
B)CFTR protein
C)Hexosaminidase A
D)Hemoglobin
E)Tyrosine kinase
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Chapter 5: Gene Expression: Transcription
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Q1) Cite at least three ways in which transcription differs from DNA replication.
Q2) Which of the following is not found in a eukaryotic promoter?
A)-10 box
B)TATA box
C)GC box
D)CAAT box
E)None of these
Q3) What is the function of the inverted repeat in the termination sequence of a rho-independent terminator? What would happen if a mutation occurred in this region?
Q4) What was the significance of the 1978 finding by Philip Leder's research group that the 0.7 kb -globin mRNA is not colinear with the gene that encodes it,but the nuclear 1.5 kb pre-mRNA is?
Q5) Before a prokaryotic mRNA can be translated,it must be modified by the addition of a polyA tail.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What would be the advantage of having multiple sigma factors that each could be produced under different stress conditions in E.coli?
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Chapter 6: Gene Expression: Translation
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Q1) Describe and differentiate among the primary,secondary,and tertiary structures of a protein.To which kinds of interactions can each of these stages be ascribed?
Q2) In eukaryotes,the translation initiation complex forms in association with the 40S ribosomal subunit.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There are 64 sense codons in the genetic code and 61 different types of tRNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A -pleated sheet is a type of
A)primary structure found in a protein.
B)secondary structure found in a protein.
C)tertiary structure found in a protein.
D)quaternary structure found in a protein.
E)heme structure found in a protein.
Q5) Why is methionine the first amino acid to be added to every polypeptide chain?
Q6) Part of a DNA gene sequence reads CAT.If a mutation occurs that changes the T to A,will the final protein be affected?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Dna Mutation, DNA Repair, and Transposable Elements
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Q1) Describe how the Ames test is used to determine whether a particular chemical is mutagenic.
Q2) A point mutation changes a codon from UCG to UAG.What will happen to the resulting polypeptide?
Q3) In order for the dissociation element (Ds)mutations in corn to be stable,
A)an Ac element must be present.
B)an Ac element must not be present.
C)the Ds must contain the gene for transposition.
D)the DNA must not be replicated.
E)None of these
Q4) What kind of mutation-detection procedure can be used to detect the white-eye mutation in Drosophila?
Q5) A silent mutation is a change in the DNA sequence that alters the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein but does not change its function.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How does an intercalating agent such as ethidium bromide cause mutations?
Q8) Explain how IS elements produce target-site duplications when they move. Page 9
Q7) What is a retrotransposon,and how does it differ from typical transposons?
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Chapter 8: Genomics: The Mapping and Sequencing of Genomes
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Q1) Candidate open reading frames of a genome are identified by searching for A)a start codon "in frame" with a stop codon.
B)a start codon.
C)introns and exons.
D)a promoter.
E)All of these
Q2) Briefly contrast the dideoxy DNA sequencing developed by Fred Sanger with pyrosequencing methods.
Q3) The human genome consists mostly of noncoding DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What problem does this result in?
Q5) A DNA copy of an mRNA molecule is called A)dDNA.
B)rDNA.
C)mDNA.
D)shDNA.
E)cDNA.
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Q6) Discuss the relative roles of descriptive and hypothesis-driven science in genomics.
Chapter 9: Functional and Comparative Genomics
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Q1) What is the difference between a "knockout" and a "knockdown" of a gene?
Q2) Why are BLAST comparisons based on protein sequences often easier to interpret than those based on DNA sequences?
Q3) What does a large haplotype block suggest about a genomic region?
Q4) How can we explain the fact that the human genome contains far fewer genes than was predicted would be necessary for our survival?
Q5) A transgene is a
A)hybrid gene.
B)gene that contains no introns.
C)bacterial gene that is found in mammalian cells.
D)human gene of viral origin.
E)gene introduced into an organism by artificial means.
Q6) Both strands of the short,double-stranded regulatory RNA molecules are required by the Slicer protein in order to target the complementary RNA for degradation.
A)True
B)False
Q7) How do we know that some of the microbes in our gut are beneficial to us?
Q8) List the steps involved in constructing a knockout mutant in yeast.
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Chapter 10: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) How has the Bt protein been used to increase insect-resistance in plants?
Q2) Successful cotransformation in the yeast two-hybrid system will result in the binding of proteins produced by each yeast expression vector.These fusion proteins function by
A)binding to the lacZ operator,preventing transcription.
B)binding to RNA polymerase,preventing transcription.
C)binding to the lacZ repressor,enabling transcription.
D)binding to the lacZ upstream activator sequence,enabling transcription.
E)changing color in the presence of X-gal.
Q3) In yeast,expression of the GAL genes is induced when there is ________ in the culture medium.
A)glucose
B)lactose
C)galactose
D)maltose
E)Any of these
Q4) Genetic testing is typically done with blood samples,yet red blood cells (erythrocytes)are anucleate (lack nuclei)and are thus devoid of DNA.How,then,are these tests done?
Q5) How do genetic tests differ from diagnostic tests for genetic disease?
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Chapter 11: Mendelian Genetics
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Q1) In humans,brown eye color (B)is dominant to blue eyes (b).A brown-eyed man marries a woman with brown eyes and they have three blue-eyed daughters.What are the genotypes of the man and the woman?
A)BB and Bb
B)BB and BB
C)Bb and bb
D)Bb and Bb
E)bb and bb
Q2) A dihybrid cross yields 320 F<sub>2</sub> offspring.How many are expected to resemble the homozygous recessive parental?
A)10
B)16
C)20
D)60
E)180
Q3) A testcross with a heterozygous dominant individual will yield only heterozygous dominant offspring.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Nondisjunction is the failure of sex chromosomes to separate during gamete formation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cells obtained from a Triplo-X woman would contain ________ Barr bodies.
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3
E)4
Q3) What is the connection between the work of Mary Lyon and Murray Barr?
Q4) In butterflies,males are the ________ sex.
A)homozygous
B)heterozygous
C)homogametic
D)heterogametic
E)hemizygous
Q5) What pattern of expression is expected for an X-linked dominant trait like hereditary enamel hypoplasia?
Q6) What are the differences between metaphase I and metaphase II of meiosis?
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Chapter 13: Extensions of and Deviations From Mendelian
Genetic Principles
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Q1) For a gene with multiple alleles,what is the maximum number of alleles that a diploid organism may have?
Q2) Two persons who have recessive genetic deafness marry and have 6 children.All the children can hear.The reason they can hear is most likely due to A)epistasis.
B)pleiotropy.
C)sex linkage.
D)complementation.
E)partial penetrance.
Q3) Comb shape in chickens is controlled by
A)the interaction of three alleles and codominance,resulting in four different phenotypes.
B)one gene with incomplete dominance,resulting in three different phenotypes.
C)the epistatic interaction of two genes,resulting in two different phenotypes.
D)the interaction of two genes with complete dominance,resulting in four different phenotypes.
E)None of these
Q4) How could a man with blood type A and a woman with blood type B produce a child with blood type O?
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Genetic Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Q1) How many phenotypic classes may be generated from a three-point testcross?
A)(3)<sup>2</sup> = 9
B)(2)<sup>3</sup> = 8
C)(3)<sup>3</sup> = 27
D)(2)<sup>2</sup> = 4
E)It cannot be predicted.
Q2) If in calculating the distance between two genes using data from a testcrossed dihybrid you arrive at a genetic distance of 70 map units,there is likely to be something wrong with your calculations,the experimental data,or with the experiment itself.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the offspring resulting from an F<sub>1</sub> testcross,what percentage of recombinant phenotypes is expected if the genes under study are independently assorting?
A)5%
B)33%
C)50%
D)90%
E)The percentage cannot be predicted.
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Chapter 15: Genetics of Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Q1) E.coli strains that are Hfr
A)are easily mutated.
B)are susceptible to infection by bacteriophage.
C)contain the F factor integrated in the bacterial chromosome.
D)cannot be made competent.
E)have a low frequency of recombination.
Q2) Minimal media is
A)growth media used in the smallest volume in which cells can grow.
B)growth media designed to minimize the growth of contaminants.
C)growth media that contains the minimal nutritional requirements for normal cells.
D)a way to visualize new mutations in a minimum amount of time.
E)used to reveal only mutant cell colonies against a dark background.
Q3) The E.coli chromosome is
A)linear.
B)circular.
C)single-stranded.
D)less than a megabase in length.
E)compartmentalized within an intracellular membrane.
Q4) What are temperate bacteriophages?
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Chapter 16: Variations in Chromosome Structure and Number
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Q1) A woman with normal vision,whose father has sex-linked color blindness,marries a man with normal vision.They have a son who has Klinefelter syndrome and is color blind.Describe precisely what kind of event could caused have his Klinefelter syndrome.
Q2) A(n)________ inversion includes the centromere.
A)concentric
B)pericentric
C)paracentric
D)epicentric
E)chromocentric
Q3) During meiosis in a reciprocal translocation heterozygote,what are the three ways that chromosomes may segregate at anaphase I,and what are the consequences for the resulting gametes?
Q4) Which of the following traits is determined by programmed transposition?
A)Pattern baldness in humans
B)Mating types in yeast
C)Eye color in Drosophila
D)All of these
E)None of these
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Q5) How does a Philadelphia chromosome occur,and what condition does it cause?
Chapter 17: Regulation of Gene Expression in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Q1) At the molecular level,how do proteins like repressors bind to DNA? How can binding affinities be increased or decreased?
Q2) The enzyme transacetylase is responsible for uptake of lactose.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A constitutive gene is a gene that is occasionally expressed. A)True
B)False
Q4) What effect would mutational damage of the following genes or gene regions have on the induction of an integrated lambda phage virus?
a.damage to the cI gene
b.damage to the cro gene
c.damage to the xis gene
Q5) Genes required for maintaining basic cell structure,growth,and division are housekeeping genes and have regulated expression. A)True
B)False
Q6) How are partial diploid E.coli constructs made?
Page 20
Q7) Briefly define what is meant by negative and positive control of the lac operon.
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Eukaryotic repression generally occurs via physical blockage of the promoter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The half-life of a protein is directly related to A)what kind of cell it is produced in.
B)its tertiary structure.
C)whether it is encoded by a constitutively expressed gene.
D)its N-terminal amino acid residue.
E)the number of stabilizing cross-linkages.
Q3) What are enhancers?
Q4) Insect growth and metamorphosis is controlled by the steroid hormones ecdysone and juvenile hormone (JH).In insects like butterflies and moths that have a distinct larval (juvenile)and adult stage,the relative amount of JH determines whether the insect molts to the next juvenile stage or switches to become an adult.Can you think of a way to use this hormonal system to control caterpillar agricultural pests?
Q5) In genetic imprinting,expression depends on the parent of origin of a given allele.How might imprinting affect the expression of a hypothetical autosomal disease that expresses in dominant fashion and recessive fashion,and how might imprinting be detected?
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Chapter 19: Genetic Analysis of Development
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Q1) Vascular plant cells generally have the ability to differentiate into various types of tissue-a fact long known to horticulturists who propagate plants by cuttings.This means that plants do not display the strict separation of germline and somatic cells that animals do.Might this be expected to accelerate or decelerate evolution in plants relative to animals?
Q2) The developmental fate of a cell is established by the process termed A)development. B)differentiation. C)determination.
D)specialization.
E)A,B,and C only
Q3) The developmental trajectory of the cells of an embryo can be tracked and diagrammatically expressed as a developmental atlas. A)True
B)False
Q4) The major classes of antibody molecules are called antigen-globulins. A)True
B)False
Q5) Why are the changes associated with development irreversible?
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Chapter 20: Genetics of Cancer
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Q1) Inherited mutant tumor suppressors produce a dominant susceptibility to cancer,but the mutant alleles are actually recessive in the cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ionizing radiation is emitted at low levels by many natural objects,including some rocks and gases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In retroviruses,the pol gene product is a(n)
A)DNA polymerase.
B)reverse transcriptase.
C)integrase.
D)RNA polymerase.
E)recombinase.
Q4) What kinds of cancers might eventually be treated with RNAi,which you learned about in
Q5) List the ways in which proto-oncogenes may be converted to oncogenes.
Q6) Programmed cell death,or apoptosis,is a necessary and useful property of cells.Why is this so?
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Population Genetics
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Q1) Twenty loci are screened for genetic variation in a common caterpillar species.Four loci are found to have two or more alleles.The proportion of polymorphic loci for this population is thus
A)0.10.
B)0.20.
C)0.30.
D)0.40.
E)0.50.
Q2) With respect to a gene with two alleles,for each generation of complete inbreeding the proportion of heterozygotes is expected to be reduced by \(\frac { 1 } { 2 }\) while the proportion of each homozygous class is expected to increase in frequency by \(\frac { 1 } { 4 }\) .Explain why this is so.
Q3) According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, at equilibrium the allele frequencies are dependent on the genotypic frequencies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A selection coefficient of 1 means zero fitness.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Quantitative Genetics
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Q1) A gene that influences several traits is termed pleiotropic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In maize,some alleles at the seed coat locus influence our ability to visually determine the endosperm color phenotype.Specifically,an opaque seed coat prevents us from seeing the endosperm within,while we can readily see the endosperm in seeds with transparent coats.The opaque coat color allele thus appears to mask the expression of endosperm color alleles,providing an example of A)codominance.
B)pleiotropy.
C)polygenic inheritance.
D)epistasis.
E)maternal effect.
Q3) The average adult height in the U.S.population has increased by several centimeters over the past two generations.Is this likely to reflect a change in the genetic makeup of the population,a change in environmental factors,or both? Explain.
Q4) The broad-sense heritability of a trait is estimated at 0.8.If the total phenotypic variance is estimated at 32.20,what is the genetic variance?
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Chapter 23: Molecular Evolution
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Q1) The fact that approximately 80% of the six codons that encode the amino acid leucine in yeast are UUG is an example of codon bias.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following does not provide molecular evidence for evolution?
A)The 1,000-fold differences in nonsynonymous substitutions between some genes
B)The existence of pseudogenes
C)The fact that high-expression genes use amino acids that are less energetically costly than those used by low-expression genes
D)The fact that there is a lower rate of nucleotide substitutions in coding regions than in noncoding regions of genes
E)All these are molecular evidence for evolution
Q3) One of the lines of evidence supporting the theory that modern humans originated in Africa is that the modern-day human population of Africa contains the greatest diversity of genetic variants of any human population.Why is this consistent with the idea that humans first evolved in Africa?
Q4) What are the major weaknesses of the parsimony and distance matrix methods of phylogeny reconstruction?
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