Medicinal Chemistry
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Course Introduction
Medicinal Chemistry explores the design, synthesis, and development of pharmaceutical agents, emphasizing the relationship between chemical structure and biological activity. The course covers foundational principles such as drug-receptor interactions, structure-activity relationships, mechanism of action, pharmacokinetics, and pharmacodynamics. Students will learn strategies for lead compound optimization, rational drug design, and the impact of molecular modifications on efficacy and safety. Case studies of major drug classes and emerging therapeutic compounds illustrate the integration of organic chemistry, biochemistry, and pharmacology in the discovery and development of new medicines.
Recommended Textbook
Organic Chemistry 7th Edition by William H. Brown
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Covalent Bonding and Shapes of Molecules
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true regarding resonance structures?
A)All resonance structures must have the same number of electrons
B)Each atom in all of the resonance structures must have a complete shell of valence electrons
C)All resonance structures must have the same arrangement of atoms
D)All resonance structures must be valid Lewis structures
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?
A)C
B)P
C)Si
D)Cl
Answer: D
Q3) Provide a neatly drawn figure to show the atomic orbitals that overlap to form each of the bonds in ammonia (NH<sub>3</sub>) and which contain the lone pair of electrons. Label each orbital with its hybridization.
Answer: 11ea7d75_f5da_20c9_b9bd_57d72815cb0f_TB1813_00_TB1813_00
Q4) The approximate H-C-H bond angle in methane is ______°.
Answer: 109.5 109
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Chapter 2: Alkanes and Cycloalkanes
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Q1) How many hydrogen atoms are there in nonane, the linear hydrocarbon with nine carbon atoms?
A)16
B)18
C)20
D)22
Answer: C
Q2) What is the approximate C-C-C bond angle in propane?
A)90<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
B)109<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
C)120<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
D)180<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
Answer: B
Q3) What is the approximate dihedral angle between the two chlorine atoms in the diequatorial conformation of trans-1,2-dichlorocyclohexane?
A)0<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
B)60<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
C)120<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
D)180<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Stereoisomerism and Chirality
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Q1) How many stereoisomers of 2,3-dimethylbutane, (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>CHCH(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>, exist?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Answer: A
Q2) How many isomers (constitutional and stereoisomers) exist for dimethylcyclohexane?
A)3
B)5
C)6
D)9
Answer: D
Q3) What mass of (S)-(-)-mandelic acid is present in a 10 g sample which has an enantiomeric excess of 30% of the S-enantiomer?
Answer: 6.5 g
Q4) The process that separates enantiomers is called ______________.
Answer: resolution
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Chapter 4: Acids and Bases
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Q1) Which of the following is the strongest base?
A)NaOH
B)NaCO<sub>3</sub>
C)H<sub>2</sub>O
D)CH<sub>3</sub>OH
Q2) Which acid will be almost completely deprotonated by NaOH?
Q3) Which of the following compounds has the lowest pK<sub>a</sub>?
A)H<sub>2</sub>O
B)HBr
C)NH<sub>3</sub>
D)CH<sub>4</sub>
Q4) Provide the equation that relates the acid dissociation constant, K<sub>a</sub>, to the pK<sub>a</sub> of an acid.
Q5) Provide a brief explanation, based on features of the molecules, for the following trend in pK<sub>a</sub> values?
CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> > CH<sub>2</sub>=CH<sub>2</sub> > HCCH ethane ethene ethyne (ethylene) (acetylene)
51 44 25
Q6) A reaction where \(\Delta\)G<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> is positive is _____________.
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Chapter 5: Alkenes: Bonding, Nomenclature, and Properties
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Q1) Which of the following compounds is most reactive (least stable)?
a.(Z)-cycloheptene
b.(E)-cycloheptene
c.(Z)-cyclooctene
d.(E)-cyclooctene
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following substituents has the highest priority according to the Cahn-Ingold-Prelog system used in assigning E and Z configurations of carbon-carbon double bonds?
A)"-CH(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>"
B)"-CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>"
C)"-CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>"
D)"-CH<sub>2</sub>Br"
Q3) A compound likely to be a liquid at room temperature is represented by the letter ______.
Q4) What is the value of the index of hydrogen deficiency of a molecule with the formula C<sub>7</sub>H<sub>15</sub>N?
Q5) Provide the bond-line structure of (2E,5E)-2,5-octadiene.
Q6) Provide the bond-line structure of (E)-3-chloro-3-hexene.
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Chapter 6: Reactions of Alkenes
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Q1) Product _____ would be formed by a carbocation experiencing the greatest degree of hyperconjugation stabilization.
Q2) Product _____ would have the lowest activation energy required to form the intermediate in the mechanism.
Q3) Upon ozonolysis, _____________ will produce only acetone, (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>C=O. (Enter an IUPAC name.)
Q4) What is the major product obtained upon addition of Br<sub>2</sub> to (R)-4-tert-butylcyclohexene?
A)(1R,2R,4R)-1,2-dibromo-4-tert-butylcyclohexane
B)(1S,2R,4R)-1,2-dibromo-4-tert-butylcyclohexane
C)(1S,2S,4R)-1,2-dibromo-4-tert-butylcyclohexane
D)(1S,2S,4S)-1,2-dibromo-4-tert-butylcyclohexane
Q5) What type of reaction mechanism accounts for the reaction of an alkene with aqueous acid to give an alcohol?
A)nucleophilic addition
B)electrophilic addition
C)radical addition
D)elimination
Q6) Product _____would be formed via a primary carbocation.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Alkynes
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Q1) Which atomic orbitals overlap to form the carbon-carbon single bond of 1-propyne?
A)2s + sp
B)sp + sp<sup>2</sup>
C)sp + sp<sup>3</sup>
D)sp<sup>2</sup> + sp<sup>3</sup>
Q2) Addition of H<sub>2</sub> to 2-pentyne in the presence of the Lindlar's catalyst will produce ___-2-pentene.
Q3) Which sequence of reactions can be used to convert (Z) 2-pentene to 2-pentyne
A)Treatment with Br<sub>2</sub>; followed by treatment with NaNH<sub>2</sub>
B)Treatment with Br<sub>2</sub>, H<sub>2</sub>O; followed by treatment with NaOH
C)Treatment with Br<sub>2</sub>; followed by treatment with H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
D)Treatment with HBr; followed by treatment with NaOH
Q4) Which of the following has the lowest pK<sub>a</sub>?
A)butane
B)1-butene
C)1-butyne
D)2-butyne
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Chapter 8: Haloalkanes, Halogenation, and Radical Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following has the list of compounds in the correct order of decreasing density (higher density > lower density)?
A)CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> > CH<sub>2</sub>Br<sub>2</sub> > CH<sub>2</sub>I<sub>2</sub>
B)CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> > CH<sub>2</sub>I<sub>2</sub> >
CH<sub>2</sub>Br<sub>2</sub>
C)CH<sub>2</sub>I<sub>2</sub> > CH<sub>2</sub>Br<sub>2</sub> >
CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>
D)CH<sub>2</sub>I<sub>2</sub> > CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> > CH<sub>2</sub>Br<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Which of the following has the list of compounds in the correct order of decreasing boiling point (higher boiling point > lower boiling point)?
A)chloromethane > chloroethane > 2-chloropropane > 2-chloro-2-methylpropane
B)2-chloro-2-methylpropane > 2-chloropropane > chloroethane > chloromethane
C)chloroethane > chloromethane > 2-chloro-2-methylpropane > 2-chloropropane
D)chloromethane > 2-chloro-2-methylpropane > 2-chloropropane > chloroethane
Q3) The number of possible dibromination products of 2-methylpropane is______.
Q4) The name of one of the minor products of this reaction is____________________.
Q5) The number of allylic positions in compound A is ______.
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Chapter 9: Nucleophilic Substitution and Beta-Elimination
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Q1) Which of the following alkyl halides undergoes the fastest solvolysis reaction with ethanol, CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH?
A)methyl fluoride
B)ethyl bromide
C)2-chloropropane
D)tert-butyl bromide
Q2) Which of the following alkyl halides undergoes the fastest S<sub>N</sub>2 reaction with sodium cyanide, NaCN?
A)methyl iodide
B)ethyl iodide
C)2-iodopropane
D)tert-butyl iodide
Q3) Which of the following sets consists of only polar aprotic solvents?
A)water, hexane, methanol
B)acetic acid, DMF, toluene
C)DMSO, ethanol, acetonitrile
D)DMF, acetonitrile, DMSO
Q4) The mechanism for these reactions is _______.
Q5) These reactions are classified as ________________reactions.
Q6) Compound B by is formed by an _____ mechanism.
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Chapter 10: Alcohols
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Q1) What is the major organic product obtained upon heating a mixture of 3,3-dimethyl-2-butanol, (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>CCH(OH)CH<sub>3</sub>, with sulfuric acid?
A)3,3-dimethyl-1-butene
B)2,3-dimethyl-1-butene
C)2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
D)tert-butyl alcohol
Q2) What type of reactive intermediate is formed in the reaction of tert-butyl alcohol with HCl to give tert-butyl chloride?
A)tert-butyl radical
B)tert-butyl anion
C)tert-butyl cation
D)tert-butoxide
Q3) Including stereoisomers, the number alkene isomers produced by the acid-catalyzed dehydration of 3-methyl-3-hexanol is _____.
Q4) When a secondary (2°) alcohol is treated with Jones reagent the product of the reaction is a ketone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Ethers, Epoxides, and Sulfides
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Q1) What type of reactive intermediate is formed in the reaction of tert-butyl methyl ether with HBr to give tert-butyl bromide?
A)tert-butyl anion
B)tert-butoxide
C)tert-butyl radical
D)tert-butyl cation
Q2) What type of mechanism accounts for the cleavage of dibutyl ether upon treatment with HBr to give two moles of 1-bromobutane?
A)S<sub>N</sub>1
B)S<sub>N</sub>2
C)E1
D)E2
Q3) What are the major products obtained upon treatment of anisole, PhOCH<sub>3</sub>, with excess HBr?
A)phenol and methanol
B)bromobenzene and bromomethane
C)phenol and bromomethane
D)bromobenzene and methanol
Q4) The reaction shown here is an example of a ______________ ________synthesis
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Chapter 12: Infrared Spectroscopy
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Q1) Which of the following functional groups is likely to be present in a molecule that has peaks in the infrared spectrum at 1000-1250 cm<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup> (strong), but does not have peaks 3200-3650 at 1630-1820 or cm<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>?
A)alcohol
B)aldehyde or ketone
C)ether
D)ester
Q2) _____ C-C, C-O, C-N, and C-X single-bond vibrations.
A)4000 to 2500 cm<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>
B)2500 to 2000 cm<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>
C)2000 to 1500 cm<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>
D)below 1500 cm<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>
Q3) Which of the following regions in the electromagnetic spectrum corresponds to the radiation with the highest energy?
A)radio waves
B)ultraviolet
C)infrared
D)visible
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Chapter 13: Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy
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Q1) What is the hydrogen deficiency index for a compound with a molecular formula of C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>11</sub>N?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q2) Which of the following combinations of peaks appears in the <sup>1</sup>H NMR spectrum of 1,2-dimethyoxyethane, CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>?
A)two singlets
B)a singlet and a triplet
C)a singlet and two triplets
D)a doublet and a triplet
Q3) Which of the following compounds gives a <sup>1</sup>H NMR spectrum consisting of only a singlet, triplet and quintet?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub> OH
B)CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub >
C)CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub >
Page 15
D)CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>2</sub>CH(CH<sub>3</sub>)OCH<sub>3</sub> Q4) ______ 1
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Chapter 14: Mass Spectrometry
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Q1) Which of the following gives rise to a prominent M - 18 peak in the mass spectrum?
A)hexane
B)1-chloropentane
C)1-pentanol
D)3-methylpentane
Q2) Which of the following is the definition of the base peak of a mass spectrum?
A)the peak corresponding to the most abundant ion
B)the peak corresponding to the ion with lowest m/e
C)the peak corresponding to the molecular ion peak
D)the peak corresponding to the ion arising to loss of a proton from the molecular ion
Q3) What is the y-axis of a mass spectrum?
A)mass
B)energy
C)abundance
D)field strength
Q4) Which C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O carbonyl-containing compound shows a molecular ion peak at m/z 100 and significant fragment peaks at m/z 71, 58, 57, 43 and 29 in the EI mass spectrum?
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Chapter 15: An Introduction to Organometallic Compounds
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Q1) The first step in this conversion would be reaction with:
A) Mg/ether
B) PCC
C) oxirane
Q2) In the formation of the ether soluble complex in a Grignard reaction, magnesium acts as a Lewis base and the ether as a Lewis acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following molecules are deprotonated by ethylmagnesium bromide?
A)phenol, PhOH
B)propyne, CH<sub>3</sub>C\(\equiv\)CH
C)dimethylamine, (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>NH
D)all of these
Q4) Which of the following is the best choice of solvent for the formation of phenylmagnesium bromide by the reaction of bromobenzene with magnesium?
A)water
B)methanol
C)diethyl ether
D)acetic acid
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Chapter 16: Aldehydes and Ketones
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Q1) Which of the following is the best description of the overall transformation involved in a Wittig reaction?
A)addition
B)substitution
C)elimination
D)rearrangement
Q2) What is the reactivity of Br<sub>2</sub> in the acid-catalyzed bromination of acetophenone?
A)acid
B)base
C)nucleophile
D)electrophile
Q3) Which of the following is a reactive intermediate in the reaction of acetone with bromine in acetic acid to form 1-bromo-2-propanone?
A)carbanion
B)enol
C)enolate
D)radical
Q4) The product of this reaction is called a(n)___________.
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Chapter 17: Carboxylic Acids
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Q1) What is the approximate pK<sub>a</sub> value of acetic acid
A)-2
B)5
C)15
D)35
Q2) Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing acid strength (more acidic > less acidic)?
A)FCH<sub>2</sub>COOH > CH<sub>3</sub>COOH > F<sub>2</sub>CHCOOH
B)FCH<sub>2</sub>COOH > CH<sub>3</sub>COOH > CH<sub>3</sub>OH
C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH > ClCH<sub>2</sub>COOH > BrCH<sub>2</sub>COOH
D)CH<sub>3</sub>COOH > ClCH<sub>2</sub>COOH > CH<sub>3</sub>OH
Q3) Which of the following best describes the key mechanistic steps in the esterification of a carboxylic acid upon treatment with an alcohol in the presence of a strong acid?
A)addition followed by elimination
B)substitution followed by addition
C)elimination followed by addition
D)addition followed by decarboxylation
Q4) In order to recover the 2-hydroxybenzoic acid, a strong ______ must be added to the appropriate layer.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Functional Derivatives of Carboxylic Acids
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Q1) The substance that is classified as an anhydride is _____.
Q2) It is possible to directly convert an acid anhydride to an acid chloride.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following best describes the key mechanistic steps in the reaction of an anhydride and an amine to form an amide?
A)addition followed by elimination
B)elimination followed by addition
C)substitution followed by addition
D)addition followed by decarboxylation
Q4) A lactone is represented by the structure numbered ____.
Q5) Both amides and nitriles are acyl derivatives of carboxylic acids.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The substance that is the least reactive toward nucleophilic acyl substitution is
Q7) An imide is represented by the structure numbered ____.
Q8) The substance that is the most reactive toward nucleophilic acyl substitution is
Q9) An anhydride is represented by the structure numbered ____. Page 20
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Chapter 19: Enolate Anions and Enamines
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Q1) Consider the steps in the mechanism for a base catalyzed aldol condensation. The _______ step in the base catalyzed aldol condensation is addition of an enolate to a carbonyl group.
Q2) Using the acetoacetic ester synthesis, to produce 5-methyl-2-heptanone, the alkyl halide that should be used is 1-bromo-2-methylbutane.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many different \(\beta\)-hydroxyaldehydes and \(\beta\)-hydroxyketones, including constitutional isomers and stereoisomers, are formed upon treatment of a mixture of acetone and acetophenone with base?
A)4
B)6
C)9
D)12
Q4) In carbonyl condensation reactions new carbon-to-carbon bonds are formed and enolate anions can act as a nucleophiles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Dienes, Conjugated Systems, and Pericyclic Reactions
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Q1) How would you be able to distinguish between 1,3-cyclohexadiene and 1,4-cyclohexadiene using ultraviolet spectroscopy?
Q2) Draw two resonance structures of the reactive intermediate that accounts for the formation of 1,2- and 1,4-addition products upon reaction of 1,3-butadiene with one equivalent of bromine.
Q3) The electrophile in this reaction is ____.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q4) Which of 1,3-cyclohexadiene and 1,4-cyclohexadiene has the greatest heat of hydrogenation (i.e., the most exothermic reaction with H<sub>2</sub> in the presence of a catalyst). Provide a brief explanation for your choice ?
Q5) When an organic molecule is irradiated with ultraviolet radiation, the energy absorbed by the molecule corresponds to the amount necessary to excite electrons from one molecular orbital to another.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Benzene and the Concept of Aromaticity
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Q1) Using the Hückel criteria, the compound would be ______________.
Q2) This anion has______ \(\pi\) electrons.
Q3) Which orbital contains the lone pair on the nitrogen atom of pyridine?
A)s
B)p
C)sp
D)sp<sup>2</sup>
Q4) The NMR data would seem to indicate that this compound is ____________.
Q5) What is the approximate length of the carbon-carbon bonds in benzene?
A)110 pm
B)121 pm
C)139 pm
D)156 pm
Q6) Which of the following is not true about cyclooctatetraene?
A)The planar conformation is antiaromatic
B)In the planar conformation there are two electrons in degenerate nonbonding pi orbitals.
C)In the tub conformation the pi system is not conjugated
D)The tub conformation is aromatic
Q7) List all of the requirements of a molecule for it to be considered aromatic.
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Chapter 22: Reactions of Benzene and Its Derivatives
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Q1) Which of the following sets of reagents does not result in alkylation of benzene?
A)tert-butyl chloride + AlCl<sub>3</sub>
B)tert-butyl alcohol + H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
C)methylpropene + HF
D)methylpropane + H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
Q2) What type of intermediate is formed upon treatment of 1-chloro-2,4-dinitrobenzene with sodium hydroxide to give 2,4-dinitrophenol?
A)Meisenheimer complex
B)benzyne
C)cyclohexadienyl cation
D)benzyl radical
Q3) Which mechanism accounts for the reaction of benzyl chloride with sodium cyanide to form cyanomethylbenzene (phenylacetonitrile, PhCH<sub>2</sub>CN)?
A)Bimolecular nucleophilic substitution (S<sub>N</sub>2)
B)Nucleophilic aromatic substitution by elimination-addition
C)Nucleophilic aromatic substitution by addition-elimination
D)Electrophilic aromatic substitution
Q4) The compound that is the least reactive to nitration is ______.
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Chapter 23: Amines
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Q1) Which of the following is the strongest base?
A)ammonia
B)dimethylamine
C)aniline
D)4-nitroaniline
Q2) Provide a brief explanation, based on features of the molecules, for the following difference in pK<sub>a</sub> values?
CH<sub>3</sub>NH<sub>2</sub> > NH<sub>3</sub>
10.64 9.26
Q3) Which of the following is the strongest base?
A)phenol
B)aniline
C)methylamine
D)4-nitroaniline
Q4) Provide a line-bond structure of N-methylaniline.
Q5) Substance _____ is pyridine.
Q6) Provide a line-bond structure of N,N-dimethylcyclopentanamine.
Q7) The ammonia ion of substance ____ will have the largest pK<sub>a</sub>.
Q8) Substance _____ is aniline.
Q9) Substance _____ is a primary alkyl amine. Page 26
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Chapter 24: Catalytic Carbon-Carbon Bond Formation
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Q1) ______involves the use of alkynyl complexes.
A)Heck reaction
B)Stille coupling
C)Suzuki coupling
D)Sonogashira coupling
E)Alkene metathesis
Q2) Which of the following terms describes the mechanism of a Diels-Alder reaction?
A)electrophilic addition
B)nucleophilic addition
C)pericyclic addition
D)conjugate addition
Q3) Organopalladium compounds are particularly useful in forming biaryl compounds.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the Heck reaction, alkenes with large substituent groups are the most reactive.
A)True
B)False
Q5) During oxidative addition, the coordination (number) of the metal ________ by two.
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Chapter 25: Carbohydrates
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Q1) The enantiomer of ribose is drawn is _______. (D or L)
Q2) The fundamental difference between the monosaccharide, disaccharide, and polysaccharide classifications of carbohydrates is the number of _________________present.
Q3) The difference between the pyranose and furanose forms of a given aldohexose is the ring size.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Starch, cellulose, and surcrose are all classified as polysaccharides. A)True B)False
Q5) Structure ____ represents a ketohexose.
Q6) Which of the following is vitamin C?
A)D-glucose
B)D-mannitol
C)L-ascorbic acid
D)L-sorbose
Q7) The anomer of ribose is drawn is _______. (alpha or beta)
Page 29
Q8) The correct name for the cyclic structure is__________________________.
Q9) The number of hydroxyl groups in the pyranose form of glucose is _____.
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Chapter 26: Lipids
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Q1) Which of the following fatty acids has the highest melting point?
A)stearic acid
B)oleic acid
C)linoleic acid
D)linolenic acid
Q2) Cell membranes, which form an effective barrier to the passage of ions and other components into and out of the cell, are composed of a lipid bilayer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not found in a fluid mosaic lipid bilayer?
A)phospholipid
B)cholesterol
C)protein
D)nucleic acid
Q4) Why do hydrogenated fats have higher boiling points than the triglycerides from which they are derived?
Q5) When soaps disperse in water, the long hydrocarbon tails cluster together in a hydrophobic ball, while the ionic heads on the surface of the cluster stick out into the water. These spherical clusters are called ___________.
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Chapter 27: Amino Acids and Proteins
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Q1) Which of the following amino acids has a polar side chain?
A)isoleucine
B)valine
C)phenylalanine
D)threonine
Q2) Provide the structure of Ser-Ala.
Q3) Bradykinin is a nonapeptide, Arg-Pro-Pro-Gly-Phe-Ser-Pro-Phe-Arg. In addition to one mole of Arg, the following peptides are present after hydrolysis of bradykinin with chymotrypsin,
Arg-Pro-Pro-Gly-Phe-Ser and Pro-Phe
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ninhydrin is used to determine the N-terminal amino acid of a peptide.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Edman degradation is used to identify the ___-terminal amino acid of a peptide.
Q6) Disulfide bonds form between the thiol side chains of cysteine. What is the best term to describe the reaction of two thiols to give a disulfide bond?
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Chapter 28: Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Provide the structure of cytidine 5'-monophosphate, a nucleotide consisting of a cytosine base, a ribose and a phosphate group.
Q2) Provide the structure of 2-deoxyribose.
Q3) Which of the following is a complimentary pair of hydrogen-bonded bases found in RNA?
A)A - C
B)A - G
C)A - T
D)A - U
Q4) Provide the structure of a T-A base pair, showing hydrogen bonds as dotted lines.
Q5) Provide the structure of guanine, a heterocyclic base found in DNA.
Q6) Which of the following is a complimentary pair of hydrogen-bonded bases found in DNA?
A)A - C
B)A - G
C)A - T
D)A - U
Q7) A double-stranded DNA molecule that contains 22%, on a mole basis, T must also contain ___% G.
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Chapter 29: Organic Polymer Chemistry
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Q1) Provide the structure of poly(butylene adipamide).
Q2) Provide the structure of poly(methyl methacrylate).
Q3) Provide the structure of poly(ethylene succinate).
Q4) High degrees of crystallinity are associated with polymers with weak intermolecular forces.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following relationships is not true?
A)T<sub>g</sub> < T<sub>m</sub>
B)M<sub>w</sub> \(\ge\)M<sub>n</sub>
C)polydispersity index \(\le\) 1
D)M<sub>n</sub> = (average degree of polymerization, n) * (molecular weight of repeat unit)
Q6) Which type of polymerization is initiated by a mixture of naphthalene and sodium metal?
A)anionic
B)cationic
C)radical
D)Ziegler-Natta
Q7) The number of types of monomers in this structure is _______.
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