Medical Terminology Review
Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Terminology is a foundational course designed to introduce students to the specialized language used in the healthcare profession. Through the study of word roots, prefixes, suffixes, and combining forms, students learn to analyze, interpret, and construct medical terms related to body systems, diseases, diagnostics, procedures, and treatments. Emphasis is placed on correct pronunciation, spelling, and usage, enabling students to communicate effectively within medical environments and comprehend medical documentation. This course provides essential knowledge for anyone pursuing a career in healthcare or related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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4027 Verified Questions
4027 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Learning styles are determined by your individual method of _____________, or examining, new material and the way you process it or make it your own.
Answer: perceiving
Perceiving is the method individuals use to examine information and recognize it as real.
Q2) A person who shifts his or her weight when attempting to deal with conflict is exhibiting which of the following behaviors?
A) Assertive
B) Passive
C) Passive aggressive
D) Aggressive
Answer: B
Q3) Methods for determining possible solutions to a conflict are to brainstorm or to make a(n) ___________ list.
Answer: pros and cons
Developing a pros and cons list helps the individual identify possible solutions.
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hospitalist spends most of his or her time in the office.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
Q2) A medical doctor who specializes in the treatment of disorders of the eye is called an
A) otolaryngologist.
B) optometrist.
C) obstetrician.
D) ophthalmologist.
Answer: D
Q3) Doctors of osteopathy usually practice allopathic medicine.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
Q4) A physician whose primary professional focus is hospitalized patients is called a(n)
Answer: hospitalist
A hospitalist usually is employed by a healthcare facility and focuses on hospitalized patients.
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Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tasks that correspond in order with the A, B, and C designation are A) could, must, and should. B) must, should, and could. C) should, could, and must. D) could, should, and must.
Answer: B
Q2) One of the medical assistant's most important characteristics is a strong
Answer: work ethic
Work ethics are sets of values based on the moral virtues of hard work and diligence. They involve a whole range of activities, from individual acts to the philosophy of the entire office.
Q3) The medical assistant should not conduct personal __________ at the physician's office.
Answer: business
Any type of personal business, such as studying, looking up information on the Internet for personal use, Internet shopping, or balancing a personal checkbook, should be done at home, not at the office.
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5
Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some stereotypes are unavoidable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following can be a channel in linear communication?
A) Spoken word
B) Written message
C) Body language
D) E-mail message
E) All of the above
Q3) Obtaining ___________ from patients helps medical assistants understand and better interpret patients' medical problems, so that they can be accurately conveyed to the physician.
Q4) The second level of Maslow's "hierarchy of needs" deals with self-esteem.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Verbal expressions or body language, such as a nod of understanding, are called
A) internal noise.
B) external noise.
C) channels.
D) feedback.
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ are a type of testimony that is not limited to the parties in a lawsuit.
Q2) A solemn declaration usually made orally by a witness under oath is called
A) a response.
B) testimony.
C) a subpoena.
D) assent.
Q3) Match Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) with the appropriate definition or example. (Select all that apply.)
A) Information should be shared with patients when they are admitted to facilities.
B) Hold insurance companies accountable
C) Architectural standards for new and altered health care facilities
D) Primary purpose was to limit the administrative costs of healthcare.
E) Title I (insurance Reform)
F) Restricts use of annual limits and bans lifetime limits on healthcare benefits
G) Prevents insurance companies from cancelling coverage based on genetic information
H) Individuals cannot be denied health insurance based on genetic history.
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________ waiver of insurance co-payments may violate the policies of some insurers.
Q2) The provision of care to medical colleagues or their families and staff is called ___________________.
Q3) Which type of ethical problem is characterized by two or more courses of action, in which, regardless of the course taken, something of value will be lost?
A) Ethical dilemma
B) Ethical distress
C) Locus of authority
D) Distributive justice
Q4) A physician committed to saving life and relieving suffering may sometimes find those two goals ______________.
Q5) Which of the following best describes the example of organ donation and distribution of scarce or costly medications?
A) Ethical distress
B) Ethical dilemma
C) Dilemma of justice
D) Locus of authority
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following words is spelled incorrectly?
A) Wheal
B) Prosthesis
C) Rhyhmical
D) Vacuum
Q2) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Reaproach
B) Reproach
Q3) Which of the following words is spelled incorrectly?
A) Pamphlet
B) Questionnairre
C) Height
D) Committee
Q4) All of the following are advantages to using laser printers except A) cost.
B) speed.
C) quality of printing.
D) efficiency.
Q6) Encrypted data are called __________ text. Page 9
Q5) Business envelopes are usually number _____.
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Page 10
Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) STAT laboratory results are often __________ to the physician's office to provide a written copy of the information.
Q2) Answering services usually provide a(n) __________ to answer the phone rather than a recording device.
Q3) Answering services can be used for which of the following?
A) Cover the telephone if all staff members need to be away at the same time
B) Buffer and screen after-hours calls
C) Act as the first point of contact with the practice
D) Take messages
E) Both A and B
Q4) A computerized appointment system often is able to __________ a message to highlight its importance.
Q5) The medical assistant should never give patients an estimate of what the cost of their visit will be, even on the initial visit.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A minimum of __________ items of information is needed to take a phone message correctly.
Q7) The continental United States is divided into __________ standard time zones.
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Uncertainty in new surroundings can often create ____________.
Q2) The way to organize appointment scheduling so that it best supports the success of the practice is to
A) schedule as many patients as possible throughout the entire day.
B) allow frequent rest breaks.
C) include a lot of time for the physician's administrative activities.
D) consider the preferences of the physician.
Q3) Medical assistants are not allowed to take the patient's personal and family histories.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Competency as a result of training or practice is called ____________.
Q5) Sign-in sheets should not list the __________ for the patient's office visit.
Q6) The medical assistant needs to watch the patient's body language.
A)True B)False
Q7) Every patient has the right to expect courteous treatment in a physician's office.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care
Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) ___________ is an itemized list of goods shipped that shows the balance due and any transactions that affect the account.
Q2) For practices that do not use e-prescribing, where should extra prescription pads be stored?
A) In the exam room
B) In the provider's pocket
C) In a locked cabinet
D) Any of the above
Q3) Which of the following is a monthly activity?
A) Restock rooms
B) Organize reading materials in rooms
C) Disinfect toys in patient waiting areas
D) Inventory emergency supplies
Q4) The medical assistant should check to make sure all patients have left the facility before locking up and leaving for the day.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Mail sent within the Unites States and its territories is called ___________ mail.
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Chapter 11: The Health Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are common types of filing equipment found in a medical office?
A) Rotary circular files
B) Lateral files
C) Automated files
D) All of the above
Q2) What is the most important reason for telling the physician when a charting error is discovered later?
A) To protect the patient's health and well-being
B) To protect the medical assistant's job
C) To make sure the medical assistant is not accused of making the error
D) To keep the patient from discovering the error
Q3) In a paper record, which of the following is never an acceptable method of correction to a handwritten entry?
A) Draw a line through the error.
B) Erase or use a correction fluid.
C) Insert the correction above the error.
D) Write initials or signature below the correction and date.
E) All of the above are acceptable.
Q4) The EHR system should be backed up __________.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cause of a disorder is its __________.
Q2) Main terms appear in bold type.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Medical assistants have the trust of the physician and practice that employs them. A medical assistant must
A) adhere to ethical standards concerning assigning and reporting codes clearly.
B) be responsible and knowledgeable to ensure that no fraud takes place in coding.
C) be responsible and knowledgeable to ensure that no fraud takes place in claim submission.
D) All of the above
Q4) All conditions that occur during or following medical care or surgery are classified as complications. There must be a cause-and-effect relationship between the care provided and the condition, and an indication in the documentation that it is a complication.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some physicians must __________ patient care among several different providers.
Q2) New patient office visit, expanded problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making
A) 99201
B) 99202
C) 99203
D) 99204
Q3) It is acceptable to code from the Alphabetic Index.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Physical status modifier P4 is assigned to which of the following?
A) Patient with severe systemic disease
B) Patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
C) Moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the procedure
D) Declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes
Q5) __________ and management codes are used for physician's office visits.
Q6) Subcategories are the lowest level of code description and specificity.
A)True
B)False
Q7) __________ codes are separated and reported individually.
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following plans require healthcare providers to become participating providers?
A) All government-sponsored health plans
B) Most privately sponsored health plans
C) Indemnity health insurance plans
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) Health insurance benefits are determined by
A) indemnity schedules.
B) service benefit plans.
C) relative value studies.
D) All of the above
Q3) Most of today's health insurance policies cover which of the following?
A) Preventive care
B) Procedures deemed medically necessary
C) Elective procedures
D) All of the above
E) Both A and B
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17
Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Claims that have errors or omissions that must be corrected and resubmitted to receive reimbursement are called _____________ claims.
A) clean
B) dirty
C) dingy
D) incomplete
Q2) Only physicians can be providers of medical services.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The insured's address in block 7 refers to the __________ address.
A) patient's
B) spouse's
C) policyholder's
D) insurance carrier's
Q4) A claim that is missing information and is returned to the provider for correction and resubmission is called a(n) __________ claim.
Q5) Secondary insurance policy information is contained in block __________.
Q6) The charges for procedures are listed in column __________ of block 24.
Q7) Procedure code modifiers are found in column __________ of block 24.
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not conform to the general rules for telephone collections? (Select all that apply.)
A) Call only between 8 AM and 9 PM
B) Make repeated telephone calls on the same day
C) Assume a positive attitude
D) Keep the conversation brief and to the point
E) Leave a message at work revealing the nature of the call
Q2) The STARK law imposes restrictions on which of the following?
A) Medicare Advance Beneficiary Notices
B) Professional courtesy
C) Fee for service
D) Billing minors
Q3) Which of the following agreements for payment plans is not subject to TILA and does not require a signed Truth in Lending Statement?
A) Specific agreement for less than four installments and finance charge
B) Specific agreement with more than four installments and finance charge
C) No specific agreement with more than four installments and no finance charge
D) Credit card or loan specifically for healthcare treatment
E) All of the above
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Checks received in the mail today include those for $87, $45, $88, and $100. What is the total check deposit for the day?
Q2) During the monthly reconciliation of the checkbook, the bank statement balance is $16,589.24. The checkbook balance is $16,569.24. The medical assistant should look for an error in what amount?
Q3) Any individual, corporation, or legal party who signs a check or any type of negotiable instrument is considered the A) maker.
B) payer.
C) drawer.
D) payee.
Q4) A plan in which payments are transferred, usually electronically, by a paying agency directly to the account of a recipient is called A) disbursement.
B) direct deposit.
C) customer-oriented banking.
D) endorsement banking.
Q5) The name of the last endorser of the check shows who last __________ the money.
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is critical for good communication and smooth operation of a medical facility?
A) Scheduling activities that involve the families of employees
B) Holding regular staff meetings and sending regular e-mails and memos
C) Shielding employees from negative information
D) All of the above
Q2) A word that means submissive to or controlled by another is ____________.
Q3) The office manager can easily determine all but which of the following by looking at an applicant's application or résumé?
A) Work experience
B) Personality
C) Educational background
D) Skills
Q4) Interviews should be conducted when no one else is in the office.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________ of duties provides an opportunity for employees to grow and learn new skills and allows managers to concentrate on the most critical aspects of their own jobs.
Q6) All ____________ should be carefully checked before a new employee is hired. Page 21
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Page 22
Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Sample Questions
Q1) Color choices, __________, and fonts can enhance the look of a professional website.
Q2) Patients expect the staff to treat them with A) concern.
B) care.
C) confidentiality.
D) All of the above
Q3) What is the first step in developing a plan?
A) Research
B) Planning the concept
C) Assessment
D) Evaluation
Q4) Providing all employees with business cards is not a good strategy for a new practice.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process involved in creating a unique name and image in the customer's mind mainly through advertising campaigns with a consistent theme is called
Q6) Patients expect to be treated according to the __________ rule. Page 23
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Page 24
Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Items contaminated with any of the following potentially infectious materials require special handling
A) body fluid visibly contaminated with blood.
B) vaginal and seminal secretions.
C) wound drainage.
D) all of the above.
Q2) The most important step in achieving hand asepsis is
A) removing jewelry.
B) rinsing with alcohol.
C) using surgical soap.
D) wearing gloves.
Q3) The medical term for hives is rhinitis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following substances protects nearby cells from viral invasion?
A) Antiviral protein
B) Interferon
C) Intracellular parasites
D) Viral proteins
Q5) Fungal infections are also called __________ infections.
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ in POMR charts lists the patient's diagnoses in chronologic order.
Q2) Subjective data include the patient's report of injuries and resultant pain level. A)True
B)False
Q3) The grandmother of a young patient reports that the child has had a temperature of 101.6° for 2 days. This information would be documented in the __________ part of a SOAPE chart note.
Q4) Which of the following is not true of holistic patient care?
A) The focus of care is the patient's disease process.
B) The physician considers the patient's ability to pay for treatment.
C) The patient's emotional state is investigated.
D) The medical assistant investigates lifestyle factors that may contribute to disease.
Q5) When the medical assistant asks the patient about the duration of the symptoms, the question refers to the length of time the patient has had the symptoms.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is a comprehensive Internet site for accurate healthcare information.
Q2) Which of the following is not a guideline to follow when developing or ordering educational supplies?
A) Material should be written using lay language at the sixth- to eighth-grade level.
B) Information should be well organized.
C) The medical assistant should check for accuracy.
D) The material should promote specific pharmaceutical companies.
Q3) The patient may use defense mechanisms as protection from the realities of a serious disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The use of appropriate body language during a teaching intervention is especially helpful for a patient with a language barrier.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the guidelines for patient education.
Q6) A helpful tool for testing patient understanding of material is to consistently ask for __________ throughout the intervention.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's BMR is a reflection of the amount of energy required by the body to perform daily routines.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which eating disorder is characterized by self-starvation?
A) Anorexia nervosa
B) Bulimia
C) Obesity
Q3) Vitamin C can be found in
A) meat and nuts.
B) dairy products.
C) raw vegetables.
D) citrus.
E) oils and butter.
Q4) Death rates are significantly higher for patients with a BMI of 19 to 22.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Low-fiber diets are recommended for patients with diverticulitis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has difficulty breathing, or __________.
Q2) A(n) __________ is an instrument that measures the volume of inhaled and exhaled air.
Q3) What would be considered a normal pulse for an average-sized 37-year-old patient in good health?
A) 50 to 60 beats per minute
B) 60 to 70 beats per minute
C) 50 to 70 beats per minute
D) 60 to 80 beats per minute
Q4) Patients with diabetes do not need to be weighed at every visit.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When measuring a pulse, which of the following is NOT one of the three important characteristics?
A) Rate
B) Rhythm
C) Volume
D) Tone
Q6) The medical term for fainting is __________.
Page 29
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of breath odor may be observed in patients with diabetes?
A) Acetone or fruity
B) Musty
C) Tangy or citrus
D) Ammonia
Q2) One of the functions of the skeletal system is to create blood cells in the red bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ is a method of examination that uses tapping or striking the body with fingers or a small hammer to determine alterations in sound or vibration.
Q4) What is the quickest and easiest method for checking skin turgor?
A) Draw blood for analysis.
B) Examine the patient's eyes.
C) Examine the condition of the nails.
D) Pinch the skin on the posterior surface of the hand.
Q5) The area between cellular structures is called the __________ space.
Q6) The acronym __________ means the patient's eyes react normally during the physical examination.
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medication orders cannot be phoned into the pharmacy?
A) Lipitor
B) Valium
C) Percocet
D) Vicodin
Q2) A(n) __________ is used for the treatment of allergic reactions.
Q3) The subscription of the prescription provides the pharmacist with specific instructions about the ordered drug.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a medication is classified as "pregnancy risk category A," this means that the risks to the fetus associated with this drug far outweigh any potential benefits.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Schedule II prescriptions can be refilled only one time.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The FDA has established standards that must be followed by generic drug manufacturers. Explain at least three of these.
Page 31
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fractions reflect the lowest possible term of 5/15?
A) 1/2
B) 2/3
C) 3/8
D) 1/3
Q2) How many cubic centimeters equal 2.5 teaspoons?
A) 10 cc
B) 15 cc
C) 5 cc
D) 12.5 cc
Q3) One teaspoon is equal to _____ mL.
A) 5
B) 15
C) 30
D) 60
Q4) A child who weighs 70 pounds weighs how many kilograms?
A) 140 kg
B) 154 kg
C) 32 kg
D) 30 kg
Page 32
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) A syringe marked with U 100 is used for which of the following purposes?
A) Allergy testing
B) Chemotherapy
C) Insulin injection
D) Tuberculin testing
E) Vitamin B12 injection
Q2) While cleaning out the drug cupboard, Dorothy discovers two medication containers with tablets inside but without identifying drug labels. What should she do?
A) Notify the physician.
B) Ask a co-worker what the medication is so she can create a new label.
C) Discard the medication.
D) Leave the containers in the cupboard.
Q3) A syringe that is prefilled with medication uses what type of system for injection?
A) Insulin
B) Cartridge
C) Tuberculin
D) Hypodermic
Q4) __________ is an enlarged, hardened reaction produced by the Mantoux test.
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following procedures may be used to relieve dyspnea on a patient with suspected cardiac emergency?
A) Take and record vital signs
B) Position patient in a semisupine position
C) Start oxygen
D) Bring emergency cart in the room
Q2) Signs and symptoms of shock include all of the following except A) cyanosis.
B) hypertension.
C) extreme thirst.
D) rapid respirations.
Q3) Patients with __________ have red, hot, dry skin; an altered level of consciousness; tachycardia; and rapid, shallow breathing.
Q4) Symptoms of a heart attack in female patients include dizziness and syncopal episodes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The condition in which blood is present in the urine is called __________.
Q6) __________ are tears of the ligaments that support a joint.
Page 34
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the patient starts to squint or lean forward during a Snellen exam, the medical assistant should continue to go down the rows until the patient makes more than two errors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The correct method for performing an eye irrigation includes
A) applying a sterile solution from the inner canthus outward.
B) applying the solution directly to the eyeball.
C) directing the solution toward the lower conjunctival sac.
D) A and B
E) A and C
Q3) The olfactory nerve is the cranial nerve that carries impulses for the sense of sight.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The __________ in the inner ear are responsible for maintaining balance and equilibrium.
Q5) __________ results in the loss of central vision and ultimately leads to blindness.
Page 35
Q6) In ______________, heat is used to reshape the cornea in patients over age 40.
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Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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91 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child diagnosed with eczema frequently has excoriation at the site of the inflammation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of lesion is a sign of a partial-thickness burn?
A) Pustule
B) Bulla
C) Ulcer
D) Wheal
Q3) Folliculitis may result in the development of a furuncle if the infection spreads.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A fissure is an example of a primary lesion of the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A patient with vitiligo has a problem with uniform skin pigmentation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The medical term for a partial or complete lack of hair is __________.
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The incubation period for Escherichia coli foodborne illness is typically
A) 4-6 hours.
B) 24-72 hours.
C) 8-48 hours.
D) 2-4 days.
E) 12-36 hours.
Q2) The most frequently used position for patients undergoing a sigmoidoscopy procedure in the physician's office is the knee-chest position.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cytoprotective medications help protect the tissues lining the stomach and small intestine and are used in the treatment of H. pylori infections of the GI system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ is the wavelike, muscular movement of substances through the GI tract.
Q5) The appendix is located in the __________ region of the abdomen.
Q6) The medical term for enlargement of the liver is __________.
Q7) The acronym GERD stands for __________.
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) ___________________________ is caused by an antigen-antibody reaction in the glomerular capsule.
Q2) Which of the following drugs is used to treat UTIs?
A) Ampicillin (Amoxil)
B) Cimetidine (Tagamet)
C) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
D) Triamterene-hydrochlorothiazide (Dyazide)
E) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Septra or Bactrim)
Q3) ____________ is marked by hypertension and anuria.
Q4) ____________ is a painful symptom in the flank, abdomen, and groin regions that occurs when a calculus moves inside a ureter.
Q5) If a child has an undescended testicle, a(n) ____________ is done to attach the testicle surgically within the scrotal sac.
Q6) Which of the following is a diagnostic tool for detecting prostate cancer?
A) AFP
B) HCG
C) CEA
D) PSA
Q7) Male sex hormones are grouped as ___________.
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fertilized egg is called a zygote.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Perimenopause may last as long as 10 years.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An NST may be ordered if the
A) mother has HIV.
B) mother has pre-eclampsia.
C) baby is moving frequently in utero.
D) mother has endometriosis.
Q4) Stage ______ is the stage of labor in which the placenta is delivered.
A) I
B) II
C) III
Q5) A diaphragm should be left in place at least 3 hours after sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _____________ describes an abnormal change in cellular size, shape, and appearance.
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have learned a great deal in this chapter about how to interact therapeutically with children of all ages. Summarize the therapeutic approaches for infants, school-age children, and adolescent patients.
Q2) A varicella infection in pregnant women may cause stillbirth or birth defects.
A)True B)False
Q3) The classic definition of __________ is a condition in which an infant between 2 weeks and 4 months of age has crying episodes that occur at least three times a week, last longer than 3 hours a day, and persist for at least 3 weeks.
Q4) Which of the following measurements are not included in most pediatric examinations?
A) Blood pressure
B) Pulse
C) Temperature
D) Height/weight/BMI
E) Head circumference
Q5) Viral meningitis is treated with hospitalization and IV antiviral medications. A)True B)False
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rickets is an unusual diagnosis in the United States because
A) milk sold in the United States is fortified with vitamin K.
B) all children have adequate daily sun exposure.
C) vitamin D is available in drinking water.
D) milk sold in the United States is fortified with vitamin D.
Q2) What is the difference between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?
A) OA is an autoimmune disorder.
B) OA goes through stages of remission and relapse.
C) RA is an autoimmune reaction to synovial fluid.
D) OA has an acute onset.
Q3) Lyrica, an antiseizure medication, is the first drug that has been approved by the FDA to treat fibromyalgia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alcohol abuse, age over 50 in women, and smoking are all risk factors for
Q5) "Open reduction of a fracture" means that the physician is able to manipulate the bone into alignment.
A)True
B)False
41
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A positive Brudzinski's sign is indicative of meningitis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bipolar disorders are also called mood disorders in which patients go through cycles of extreme highs and extreme lows.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient with hemiplegia has this type of paralysis because of a CVA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which statement is not true of a petit mal seizure?
A) It causes a momentary loss of contact with reality.
B) It may occur without others being aware of it.
C) It can be treated with Dilantin or Tegretol.
D) It has a clonic-tonic phase.
Q5) Which statement is not true about brain tumors?
A) They are always primary tumors.
B) They may be a secondary growth from a tumor located elsewhere in the body.
C) Benign tumors can be fatal.
D) An eye exam reveals papilledema.
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of diabetic management is to maintain normal blood glucose levels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first signs of diabetic neuropathy are numbness, pain, or tingling in the hands, feet, or legs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Patients with Addison's disease typically are treated with prednisone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient with diabetes type 1 frequently experiences hypoglycemic episodes, and the physician asks you to give her information about the Rule of 15. What should this information include?
Q5) The thymus gland plays a crucial role in T-cell maturation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Diabetes insipidus is related to glucose metabolism.
A)True
B)False
Q7) __________ is required for ovulation to occur.
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The PFT of a patient with emphysema shows an increase in residual volume over time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Carly Appleton, a 16-year-old patient with asthma, needs instruction on performing peak flow readings at home. She has never used a peak flow meter and doesn't understand why the doctor wants her to treat asthma symptoms based on meter readings. Explain the purpose of the meter and the steps for its use.
Q3) A blood test to help diagnose tuberculosis is
A) WBC count.
B) WBC with diff.
C) QuantiFERON-TB Gold test.
D) Mantoux.
E) PPD.
Q4) The correct term for recording the symptom of an abnormally rapid respiratory rate is __________.
Q5) A collection of air in the pleural space that results in atelectasis is called a(n)
Q6) The amount of air inhaled and exhaled with normal respiration is the __________.
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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86 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important part of patient education for CHF is to encourage the patient to report any sudden weight gain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patients with primary __________ may be asymptomatic until serious health problems occur.
Q3) Which of the following has become standard treatment for any patient with a serious arrhythmia who is at risk of sudden death from cardiac arrest?
A) Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator
B) Cardiac pacemaker
C) Cardiac catheterization
D) Angioplasty
Q4) Describe the typical symptoms of an MI in men and an MI in women. Include in your answer the typical signs and symptoms of an MI in both genders.
Q5) The most serious complication of a DVT in the saphenous vein is a PE.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________________ causes pulmonary edema, dyspnea, orthopnea, and tachycardia.
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alzheimer's disease is the sixth leading cause of death (across the ages) in the United States and the fifth leading cause of death for those ages 65 and older.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Changes caused by the ultraviolet light from the sun or by the normal aging process can affect which of the following layers of skin?
A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Subcutaneous tissue
D) All of the above
Q3) Which statement is true about patients in the second stage of AD?
A) They are still able to pay bills and work around the house.
B) They are unable to care for themselves.
C) They begin to show signs of problems with mobility.
D) Both B and C are true.
Q4) The medical assistant may perform a(n) __________ to assess a patient's ability to write, calculate, and recall facts.
Q5) List four risk factors that contribute to the development of osteoporosis.
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The QRS complex shows the contraction of both __________ and also reflects the completion of cardiac depolarization.
Q2) Summarize the immediate treatment of an MI. Explain why certain medications are administered.
Q3) A(n) __________ is an ectopic ventricular beat that occurs without a preceding P wave.
Q4) The SA node is located in the lower wall of the right atrium near the ventricular septum.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The __________ control(s) the rate of heart contraction by initiating contractions 60 to 100 times a minute.
A) AV node
B) SA node
C) bundle of His
D) Purkinje fibers
Q6) The __________ is the electric recording of the heart at rest.
Q7) The most distal portions of the electrical system of the myocardium are the
Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true of a UGI?
A) It is performed with an iodine contrast medium.
B) Patient prep includes the use of a cathartic.
C) It is a fluoroscopic examination.
D) It is an MRI procedure.
Q2) All radiographic examinations requiring the use of iodine uptake should be scheduled before a lower GI series.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior portions is the _____ plane.
A) sagittal
B) frontal
C) midsagittal
D) transverse
Q4) A fluoroscopic examination of a joint in which a contrast medium is used to allow visualization of the soft tissue components is a(n) __________.
Q5) The radiographic view in which the sagittal plane of the body or body part is parallel to the film is called __________.
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Incubators used in the microbiology laboratory generally maintain a constant temperature of
A) 90° to 94° F.
B) 95° to 98.6° F.
C) 99° to 104° F.
D) 104.4° to 110° F.
Q2) The __________ is the substance tested for or analyzed in a specimen.
Q3) Summarize methods that can be used to prevent physical hazards in the clinical laboratory.
Q4) What power lens objective is used with a special oil that is placed directly on the slide?
A) 4*
B) 10*
C) 40 or 45*
D) 100*
Q5) A portion of a well-mixed sample that is removed for testing is called a(n)
A) aliquot.
B) analyte.
C) diluent.
D) exudate.
49
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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Sample Questions
Q1) A turbid urine sample means that the specimen is
A) contaminated.
B) high in ketones.
C) high in glucose.
D) cloudy.
Q2) Of the many sugars that can be present in the urine, only glucose and galactose signify a pathologic condition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is mismatched concerning urine color and the likely pathologic cause?
A) Red: bleeding in the urinary tract
B) Greenish yellow: liver disorder
C) Blue-green: Pseudomonas infection
D) Reddish brown: diabetes
Q4) A(n) __________________ is ordered if the physician suspects that the patient has a UTI and needs to determine the most effective antibiotic to prescribe.
Q5) ____________ is the study of poisonous substances and their effects on the body.
Page 50
Q6) ___________ may be the first indication of diabetes mellitus.
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Capillary blood is a mixture of arterial blood and venous blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you are drawing blood on an elderly patient with a history of collapsed veins, you should try to collect the blood sample with a syringe.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a blood culture is ordered, which of the following is used at the venipuncture site to eliminate contaminating bacteria?
A) 70% isopropyl alcohol
B) Benzalkonium chloride
C) Povidone-iodine
D) Sterile soap pads
E) All of the above
Q4) A tourniquet should never be used when a venous blood sample is to be drawn from the hand.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the postexposure management of a needle stick.
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a capillary tube is not plugged, it must be filled with a special clay before centrifugation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fasting is necessary before cholesterol testing because HDL and LDL cholesterol are greatly affected by food consumption.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mrs. Grace Hernandez is suspected of having rheumatoid arthritis. Explain the ESR procedure to Mrs. Hernandez.
Q4) Troponin is a component of a(n) ________ panel.
A) liver
B) renal C) cardiac D) electrolyte
Q5) Blood type O is considered the "universal donor," because no anti-A or anti-B antibodies are found in the plasma.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) ___________ are tiny, gram-negative organisms transmitted by blood-sucking insects.
A) Rickettsiae
B) Chlamydiae
C) Herpes simplex organisms
D) Ascaris organisms
Q2) Antimicrobial agents used to treat a broad range of infections are classified as ______________________.
Q3) A cellulose tape test for pinworms requires
A) a thin specimen of stool to be spread on cellulose tape to immobilize the worms.
B) a length of cellulose tape to be touched against the anal folds to collect worms.
C) temporarily taping the anus closed to trap the worms.
D) a microscope to view the eggs that have adhered to a length of cellulose tape.
E) B and D
Q4) A nasopharyngeal swab is used to make the diagnosis of RSV.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used as a diluent for medications?
A) Single one-time use vials of sterile water
B) 0.9% Sodium Chloride Injection USP single-dose vial
C) Bacteriostatic 0.9% Sodium Chloride Injection USP multiple-dose vial
D) 0.9% Sodium Chloride Irrigation USP
Q2) Which of these anesthetic agents is injected into subcutaneous tissue, resulting in temporary cessation of feeling at the site of the injection?
A) Nesacaine
B) Ethyl chloride
C) Fluori-Methane
D) Sensorcaine
E) A and D
Q3) Proper preparation of a surgical site removes all organisms from the area.
A)True
B)False
Q4) After instruments have been immersed in a chemical sterilizing agent, they should be rinsed with sterile water.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unwrapped items in an autoclave require more time for sterilization than wrapped items.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What rules must be followed for wrapping an instrument for the autoclave?
Q3) What is the complete destruction of all forms of microbial life?
A) Disinfection
B) Germicide
C) Sanitization
D) Sterilization
Q4) Techniques for medical asepsis create a sterile environment.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sterile team members should always face one another.
A)True
B)False
Q6) When using sterilizing bags, insert the grasping end of the instrument first.
A)True
B)False
Q7) __________ can result if a bandage is applied too tightly. Page 55
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) To correct by removing errors is to __________.
Q2) The four phases of the job interview process include preparation, the actual interview, follow-up, and negotiation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There should be no __________ on a résumé.
Q4) The __________ period is a time for the new medical assistant to become oriented to the facility.
Q5) The medical assistant should tell his or her personal __________ when graduation is near, because job leads might be discovered using this source.
Q6) Networking is meeting and getting to know individuals in the same or similar career fields and sharing information about available opportunities.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Transferable skills, such as the ability to communicate effectively, can be taken from one job to another.
A)True
B)False
57
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