Medical-Surgical Nursing Review Questions
Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing focuses on the care of adult patients with a wide range of medical conditions and surgical interventions. This course covers the assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of evidence-based nursing care for individuals undergoing acute and chronic illnesses or surgical procedures. Key topics include pathophysiology, pharmacology, perioperative care, patient safety, pain management, fluid and electrolyte balance, infection control, and the management of complex health problems. Emphasis is placed on clinical reasoning, critical thinking, and holistic patient-centered care to promote optimal health outcomes across diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing 7th Editon by Cooper
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57 Chapters
2259 Verified Questions
2259 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Evolution of Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5455
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most effective process to ensure that the care plan is meeting the needs of the patient?
A) Documentation
B) Communication
C) Evaluation
D) Planning
Answer: B
Q2) What document, published in 1965 by the ANA, clearly defined two levels of nursing practice?
A) Licensing standards
B) Position paper
C) Smith-Hughes Act
D) Nurse practice act
Answer: B
Q3) Where did Florence Nightingale's original nursing education take place?
A) Saint Thomas
B) Kings College Hospital
C) Crimean Hospital
D) Kaiserswerth School
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is considering purchasing malpractice insurance. What should the nurse be aware of regarding malpractice insurance provided by the hospital?
A) Only offers protection while on duty
B) Is limited in the amount of coverage
C) Is difficult to renew
D) Can be terminated at any time
Answer: A
Q2) When a nurse protects the information in a patient's record what ethical responsibility is the nurse fulfilling?
A) Privacy
B) Disclosure
C) Confidentiality
D) Absolute secrecy
Answer: C
Q3) Acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited are defined by ___________ of ______________.
Answer: standards, care
Standards of care define acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited.
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4
Chapter 3: Documentation
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Twenty-four-hour charting is designed to establish __________ levels to help determine staffing needs.
Answer: acuity
Patient acuity, which is reflected in 24-hour charting compilation, can dictate staffing needs.
Q2) What is the purpose of QA (quality assurance)?
A) To screen employment applications
B) To evaluate care results against accepted standards
C) To conduct in-services for "quality documentation"
D) To report deviation from standards to the state health department
Answer: B
Q3) When using electronic (or computerized) documentation, which process should the nurse use to ensure that no one alters the information the nurse has entered?
A) Charting in code
B) Logging off
C) Charting in privacy
D) Signing on with a password
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Communication
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is sitting in a chair near the patient's bed, leaning forward to hear what the patient is saying, and does not interrupt. What is the nurse demonstrating?
A) Support
B) Caring
C) Active listening
D) Interest
Q2) A patient states, "I do cocaine when I feel things are out of my control." The nurse responds by asking, "What else does cocaine do for you?" What communication skill does this exemplify?
A) Summarization
B) Restating
C) Showing acceptance
D) Stating observations
Q3) A patient with aphasia who cannot understand a spoken or written message is said to have ___________ aphasia.
Q4) The ___________ is the person conveying the message, whereas the ____________ is the individual or individuals to whom the message is conveyed.
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6
Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an important consideration when developing the care plan?
A) Ensure the number of interventions is limited
B) Ensure the patient is involved in the process
C) Ensure interventions will be easy to implement
D) Ensure evaluation of the nursing diagnoses is possible
Q2) Which is an example of a nursing diagnosis?
A) Pneumonia
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Impaired skin integrity
D) Congestive heart failure
Q3) All of the following patients have been admitted to the acute care setting. On admission, which patient should receive a focused assessment?
A) 53-year-old admitted with a perforated ulcer
B) 5-year-old admitted for the implant of grommets in the middle ear
C) 76-year-old admitted for a knee replacement
D) 40-year-old admitted for possible bowel obstruction
Q4) The human responses to health conditions/life processes that exist in an individual, family, or community are known as a(n) _________ _______________
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Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the biomedical health belief system is true?
A) Life processes can be manipulated by human beings by mechanical interventions.
B) Life processes cannot be manipulated by human beings by mechanical interventions.
C) Disease has a nonspecific cause, onset, course, and treatment.
D) Disease is only caused by failure of body parts and chemical imbalances.
Q2) What are some characteristics that cultures have in common? (Select all that apply.)
A) Economic practices
B) Survival modes
C) Transportation systems
D) Language
E) Family systems
Q3) Culture varies from patient to patient. Why is it important that the nurse understand and accept each person as an individual?
A) To develop a plan of care
B) To provide holistic care
C) To identify differences
D) To support each patient
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8
Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
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43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is transporting a patient in respiratory isolation to the radiology department. What intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Cover the patient with a sheet
B) Take the patient down the service elevator
C) Apply a mask to the patient
D) Call x-ray to come and get the patient
Q2) The nurse is instructing a patient about the most important preventive technique for breaking the chain of infection. What technique is the patient learning about?
A) Sterilization
B) Standard Precautions
C) Hand hygiene
D) Medical asepsis
Q3) The emergency department nurse is assessing a puncture wound of the foot. What is the most likely type of infection in this wound?
A) Aerobic bacterial infection
B) Anaerobic bacterial infection
C) Viral infection
D) Fungal infection
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9
Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is educating a patient on ways to regain the ability to perform ADLs and maintain normal physiological activities. What will the nurse relay as a requirement?
A) Strength
B) Wellness
C) Alertness
D) Mobility
Q2) What should the nurse do to protect his or her back when lifting or moving a patient?
A) Lowering the height of the bed
B) Holding the back straight with locked knees
C) Bending knees and hips
D) Getting the patient to the side of the bed
Q3) The nurse counsels the immobilized patient in regard to prevention of muscle atrophy and contractures. What will the nurse be sure to include when counseling this patient?
A) The need for additional calcium
B) The need for additional protein
C) The need for some type of exercise
D) The need for a special protective bed
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Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patients Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse avoids dragging the patient across the bed linen to decrease the potential risk of skin injury by _________.
Q2) One reason the nurse focuses on oral hygiene is to maintain a healthy state of the oral cavity. What is another reason to promote oral hygiene?
A) To improve self-esteem
B) To stimulate appetite
C) To restore tooth destruction
D) To assist with periodontitis
Q3) The nurse is bathing a patient with a deep vein thrombosis in the left leg. What modification will the nurse make when attending to the left leg?
A) Washing the leg with long, firm strokes and drying with a towel
B) Omitting washing the leg at all
C) Gently washing the leg and patting dry with a towel
D) Applying lotion in long, smooth strokes
Q4) As a safety precaution against breakage of dentures, the nurse should place __________ in the emesis basin before cleaning the dentures.
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Chapter 10: Safety
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What must the nurse do before applying a safety reminder device (SRD)?
A) Get permission from the family
B) Assess patient's skin condition
C) Get a physician's order
D) Explain the SRD to the patient
Q2) What should the nurse do when offering a cup of hot coffee to a frail, older adult patient?
A) Give the patient a straw
B) Dilute the coffee with cold water
C) Fill the cup half full
D) Offer a bib or an apron
Q3) What should a nurse do when encountering a mercury spill?
A) Vacuum the spill
B) Open interior doors
C) Close all outside windows
D) Open any outside windows
Q4) The nurse explains that the measurement of radiation exposure is in multiples of Gy. The number of Gy an individual may absorb before becoming ill with radiation syndrome is _______.
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Chapter 11: Vital Signs
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for a fever that rises and falls but does not return to normal until the patient is well?
A) Constant
B) Intermittent
C) Remittent
D) Elevated
Q2) The nurse assesses respirations of a patient demonstrating pursed-lip breathing, flared nostrils, and retractions. How will the nurse describe these respirations?
A) Tachypnea
B) Stertorous
C) Dyspnea
D) Cheyne-Stokes
Q3) When assessing vital signs on a 40-year-old male, the nurse identifies a pulse rate of 120. What is this pulse interpreted as by the nurse?
A) Normal
B) Bradycardic
C) Arrhythmic
D) Tachycardic
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13
Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is gathering subjective data when admitting a patient. Which assessment finding reported by the patient is considered subjective data?
A) Complains of pruritus
B) Is experiencing erythema
C) Appears to be experiencing pruritus
D) Has a generalized rash
Q2) A physician documents that a patient is having purulent drainage from a wound. What does the nurse understand is most likely the cause?
A) Ringworm
B) Viral infection
C) Fungal infection
D) Bacterial infection
Q3) During a physical assessment, the patient complains of difficulty in passing stools. What should the nurse document that the patient is experiencing?
A) Dyspnea
B) Cyanosis
C) Constipation
D) Ecchymosis
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14
Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is alert and oriented is threatening to leave the hospital against medical advice (AMA). What action should the nurse take?
A) Forcibly detain and restrain the patient.
B) Administer a sedative hypnotic medication.
C) Prevent patient from leaving until an AMA form is signed.
D) Notify the physician that the patient is threatening to leave AMA.
Q2) How can the nurse demonstrate cultural sensitivity to a Haitian American patient?
A) By providing a well-lit room 24 hours a day
B) By writing out all instructions given to the patient
C) By allowing the patient to keep leaves in her room
D) By asking the physician to provide all directions to the patient
Q3) Upon admission, the nurse notes that a patient without family members present has a billfold filled with cash. Where can the nurse suggest the money be placed?
A) In a sealed envelope in the bedside table
B) In the care of hospital security
C) Locked in the narcotic cupboard
D) In the hospital safe
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Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When removing the dressing on a patient, the nurse discovers that the gauze dressing has adhered to the wound. What intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Call the RN
B) Gently remove the gauze with sterile forceps
C) Cover with occlusive dressing
D) Moisten the dressing with sterile water
Q2) Which solution(s) can be used on a wet-to-dry dressing? (Select all that apply.)
A) Normal saline
B) Lactated Ringer
C) Acetic acid
D) Dakin
E) Lysol
Q3) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) classifies wounds according to the amount of contamination. What is the classification for an uninfected surgical wound with less than a 5% chance of becoming infected postoperatively?
A) Dirty wound
B) Clean-contaminated wound
C) Contaminated wound
D) Clean wound
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Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should administer Telepaque in preparation for a cholecystogram. How frequently will the nurse administer one tablet of Telepaque before this procedure?
A) Every 5 minutes
B) Every 10 minutes
C) Every 15 minutes
D) Every 20 minutes
Q2) Following an intravenous pyelogram, the nurse should watch the patient closely for a delayed reaction to the dye, usually occurring within ___ to ___ hours following the procedure.
Q3) The nurse is preparing to collect a urine specimen. What will this nurse include when labeling this specimen? (Select all that apply.)
A) Date and time of collection
B) Identification of last name only
C) Room number
D) Medical record number
E) Insurance information
Q4) When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be left on no more than ____ to ____ minutes.
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17
Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent
Alterations in Health
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is admitted to the emergency department, having suffered frostbite to the hands, which are grayish-white in color. What action should the nurse implement when attempting to warm the hands?
A) Have the patient rub the hands together briskly
B) Wipe the hands vigorously with a warm towel
C) Run tepid water over the hands to warm slowly
D) Wrap the hands in hot, moist towels
Q2) The nurse determines clinical death and initiates CPR immediately. How long is resuscitation considered possible?
A) If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 2 minutes
B) If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 3 minutes
C) If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 4 minutes
D) If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 5 minutes
Q3) A farm worker who has been kicked in the stomach by a mule passes a foul, black, tarry stool. What is this called?
A) Loose stool
B) Melena
C) Hematuria
D) Hemoptysis
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Herbs have not been approved for use as drugs. How are herbs allowed to be sold?
A) For pain relief
B) To improve body strength
C) To prolong life
D) As diet supplements
Q2) Founded in 1992, the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine (NCCAM) has the responsibility for what actions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Evaluating alternative treatments
B) Distributing information to the public
C) Coordinating and conducting research
D) Removing defective products from the market
E) Regulating third-party reimbursement
Q3) What is a therapeutic treatment that joins the mind and body and increases muscle tone and flexibility?
A) Acupressure
B) Spiritual enrichment
C) Yoga therapy
D) Therapeutic massage
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19
Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse clarifies that the term peripheral analgesics describes the group of drugs also referred to as ___________.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who requires long-term management for severe pain. What should be the drug of choice for this patient?
A) Aspirin
B) Morphine
C) Oxycodone
D) Acetaminophen
Q3) The nurse is assessing pain reported by a Latino male patient. What is important for the nurse take into consideration when observing objective data?
A) Latino men are suspicious of female caregivers.
B) Latino men have a cultural bias against use of narcotics.
C) Latino men believe pain is necessary for cure.
D) Latino men feel it is unmanly to admit to pain.
Q4) The nurse is aware that the state at which a person is mentally relaxed, free from worry, and is physically calm is __________.
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Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is educating a group of high school students regarding nutrition. How should the nurse respond when the students ask what occurs when protein, mineral, iron, and fat combine?
A) Body processes are regulated
B) Energy is provided
C) Tissue is built and repaired
D) Body function is restored
Q2) When reviewing a patient's dietary intake, the nurse recommends that sugar consumption be reduced to the recommended daily level. What is this level?
A) No more than 24% of total daily kilocalories
B) No more than16% of total daily kilocalories
C) No more than 8% of total daily kilocalories
D) No more than 4% of total daily kilocalories
Q3) How many kcal/g does 1 g of alcohol provide?
A) 4 kcal/g
B) 5 kcal/g
C) 6 kcal/g
D) 7 kcal/g
Q4) The body mass index (BMI) of a man 6 feet tall weighing 250 pounds is _______.
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Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lactating mother is counseled by the nurse to eat adequate amounts of meat and legumes. What level will this help to increase?
A) Potassium
B) Chloride
C) Magnesium
D) Phosphorus
Q2) What percentage of an adult's body weight consists of water?
A) 10% to 20%
B) 30% to 40%
C) 50% to 60%
D) 70% to 80%
Q3) What should the nurse focus on when creating a nursing care plan for a patient with metabolic acidosis?
A) Frequent periods of ambulation
B) Increasing fluid intake
C) Decreasing fluid intake
D) Deep-breathing exercises
Q4) The nurse explains that a normal adult will lose approximately _____ mL of water through respiration in the course of a day.
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Chapter 21: Mathematics and Medication Administration
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39 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the patient complains about his IV lines and asks if he can have the medication by mouth, what is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
A) "Pills are difficult for many patients to swallow."
B) "Medication by mouth is absorbed more slowly than by any other route."
C) "It takes more time for the nurse to prepare and administer oral medications."
D) "It leads to more errors to give pills, because the pills all look alike."
Q2) What is 6.147 rounded to the nearest tenth?
A) 6.2
B) 6.15
C) 6.14
D) 6.1
Q3) When a patient comes into the emergency department with a narcotic overdose, the nurse anticipates that the patient will be treated with Narcan. What drug classification is Narcan?
A) Enhancer
B) Substitute
C) Control
D) Antagonist
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Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Alterations in Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does an Aquathermia pad differ from a traditional heating pad?
A) The Aquathermia pad can be folded to fit the anatomic location snugly.
B) The Aquathermia pad can be placed under the patient.
C) The Aquathermia pad has circulating water for temperature control.
D) The Aquathermia pad can be left on for as long as 2 hours.
Q2) Before inserting a nasogastric tube, what measurement should the nurse take?
A) Tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process
B) Bridge of the nose to the xiphoid process
C) Nose to the top of the ear to the stomach
D) Clavicular notch to the stomach
Q3) When explaining the difference between a colostomy and an ileostomy, the nurse explains which of the following about an ileostomy?
A) It is always permanent
B) It drains semi-liquid stool
C) It has a much larger stoma
D) It does not need a pouch
Q4) The appliance that connects to an IV drip and delivers a continuous irrigation to the eye is known as a ________ _________ _________.
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Chapter 23: Life Span Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which theory of aging suggests that there should be a natural withdrawal between the individual and society?
A) Free radical theory
B) Autoimmunity theory
C) Wear-and-tear theory
D) Disengagement theory
Q2) Growth and development that proceeds from the head toward the feet is known as _____________________.
Q3) Separation anxiety includes which stage(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Detachment
B) Protest
C) Anger
D) Despair
E) Withdrawal
Q4) A nurse assessing a 2-month-old infant would expect the infant to do which of the following?
A) Crawl on the floor
B) Creep on the floor
C) Sit up steadily without support
D) Hold its head up while in the prone position
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Chapter 24: Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to a grieving husband that the process of the resolution of the hurt and the reestablishment of his life is called the __________ ___________.
Q2) After a physician in the emergency department has pronounced a 2-year-old dead following a swimming pool accident, the mother tearfully says to the father, "I am so sorry. I am so sorry." What is the mother expressing?
A) Fear
B) Guilt
C) Hostility
D) Grief
Q3) What is the termination of tube feedings to a dying patient considered?
A) Active euthanasia
B) Holistic care
C) Passive euthanasia
D) Terminal care
Q4) How does a perceived loss differ from an actual loss?
A) A perceived loss is more quickly resolved.
B) A perceived loss is situational.
C) A perceived loss is easily overlooked.
D) A perceived loss has a superficial response.
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Chapter 25: Health Promotion and Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman tells the nurse that this is her third pregnancy. She has had twin girls at full term and one miscarriage. How does the nurse record the information?
A) G2, T2, L3
B) G4, T3, A1, L1
C) G3, T3, A2, L1
D) G3, T1, A1, L2
Q2) The newly diagnosed primigravida who is 6 weeks pregnant states, "I don't feel like I have a real baby inside me." To reassure the mother, the nurse provides reassurance that which of the following is functioning in the 6-week-old embryo?
A) Brain
B) Lungs
C) Hands
D) Heart
Q3) During the 30th week of gestation, the nurse would anticipate that the fundal height would be _____ centimeters above the symphysis.
Q4) The chorion and the amnion are the two components of the ________
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Chapter 26: Labor and Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the largest diameter of the fetal skull?
A) Temporal
B) Biparietal
C) Lateral
D) Frontal-occipital
Q2) The nurse is admitting a patient to the labor and delivery unit. While performing the initial assessment, which assessment is the priority?
A) The number of previous pregnancies
B) When the baby is due
C) When the patient last ate
D) The timing of contractions
Q3) When trying to differentiate false labor from true labor, the nurse realizes which of the following statements regarding true labor is correct?
A) Discomfort of the contraction is in the fundus.
B) Contractions do not follow a pattern.
C) Contractions get stronger with ambulation.
D) Contractions may stop with ambulation.
Q4) A primigravida has a pelvis of the android type, which usually means the delivery will be a _______________.
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Chapter 27: Care of the Mother and Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which finding should the nurse suspect as abnormal in the newborn during the initial assessment?
A) Eyes crossed at times
B) Persistent high-pitched cry
C) Arms and legs flexed
D) Slight bluish tinge of the extremities
Q2) Which of the following would be considered a normal assessment finding in a 1-day postpartum patient?
A) Pinkish to brown lochia
B) Voiding frequently 50 mL to 75 mL of urine
C) Complaining of "after pains"
D) Fundus 1 cm above the umbilicus
Q3) The nurse is giving a bath demonstration for a group of new mothers. What should be included in the demonstration?
A) Apply baby powder generously to keep baby dry.
B) Cleanse perineum from front to back.
C) Use scented soap to make baby smell good.
D) Partially submerge head in water when shampooing.
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Chapter
Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the hospital with hyperemesis gravidarum. The patient is malnourished and severely dehydrated. The care plan should be altered to include which interventions?
A) Hyperalimentation
B) IV fluids and electrolyte replacement
C) Hormone replacement therapy
D) Vitamin supplements
Q2) What test is used to identify the maternal level of Rh antibodies in the mother's blood?
A) Indirect Coombs test
B) Hemolytic test
C) Rh antibody test
D) Direct Coombs test
Q3) The newborn infant has oxygenation problems and a lack of subcutaneous fat. What should the nurse determine as the gestational age of this infant?
A) 20 to 37 completed weeks of pregnancy
B) 38 to 41 completed weeks of pregnancy
C) 14 to 36 completed weeks of pregnancy
D) 42 or more completed weeks of pregnancy
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent accidental poisoning of a child, where should medications be placed in the home?
A) In a dresser drawer
B) In the medicine cabinet
C) In a locked cupboard
D) On a high shelf
Q2) The pediatric nurse reminds the parents of a 2-year-old that by this age the child should be protected against how many vaccine-preventable childhood diseases?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
Q3) Which children must be secured in the back seat in a rear-facing safety seat?
A) Children weighing up to 20 lb
B) Children weighing between 20 and 30 lb
C) Children weighing between 30 and 40 lb
D) Children weighing more than 40 lb
Q4) The nurse recognizes that preventive programs in schools must be stepped up in order to prevent violence, especially __________.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Basic Pediatric Nursing Care
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct way to assess for the presence of jaundice in an African American child?
A) Examine the sclera
B) Press the edge of the pinna
C) Apply pressure to the gum
D) Compare the color on the soles of the feet
Q2) A disfiguring facial wound would have the most significant developmental impact on which child?
A) 4-year-old
B) 6-year-old
C) 10-year-old
D) 14-year-old
Q3) Following a lumbar puncture of a 2-year-old, what should the nurse do?
A) Keep the child flat for several hours
B) Allow the child to play quietly at will
C) Hold the child in a flexed position for 5 minutes
D) Stand the child upright immediately
Q4) The nurse is aware that visual acuity evaluation in a child is best assessed after the age of _____ years.
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Chapter 31: Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5485
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that which diagnostic studies are needed for the diagnosis of cognitive impairment? (Select all that apply.)
A) Denver Developmental Screening Test
B) Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale
C) Wechsler Intelligence Scale
D) Miller's Analogies
E) Strong Personality Assessment
Q2) A child has developed a diaper rash, and the parents are using zinc oxide to treat it. What does the nurse suggest to aid in the removal of the zinc oxide?
A) Mild soap and water
B) A cotton ball
C) Mineral oil
D) Alcohol swabs
Q3) Which laboratory results should the nurse anticipate to be abnormal in a child with hemophilia?
A) Prothrombin time
B) Bleeding time
C) Platelet count
D) Partial thromboplastin time
33
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Chapter 32: Health Promotion and Care of the Older Adult
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5486
Sample Questions
Q1) What is age-related vision change caused by the loss of elasticity of the lens called?
A) Nearsightedness
B) Cataracts
C) Presbyopia
D) Blepharitis
Q2) Because thin skin and lack of subcutaneous fat predisposes the older adult to pressure ulcers, the nurse alters the care plan to include turning the bedfast patient how often?
A) Once every shift
B) Every 4 hours
C) Each evening
D) Every 2 hours
Q3) When should family members of a stroke victim expect to see some of the neurologic involvement disappear?
A) Within 2 to 3 weeks
B) Within 1 to 2 months
C) Within 3 to 6 months
D) Within 6 to 9 months
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34
Chapter 33: Concepts of Mental Health
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a nervous 18-year-old patient who has vital signs of P 120, R 30, and BP 160/90. The patient states that he feels something bad is about to happen. Based on this data alone, how should the nurse identify the patient's level of anxiety?
A) Mild
B) Moderate
C) Severe
D) Panic
Q2) Which theorist believed that personality development was based on task mastery?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Erik Erikson
C) Jean Piaget
D) Friedrich Nietzsche
Q3) Using Freud's personality theory, what action by a patient indicates a strong ego?
A) Laughs at himself for being foolish
B) Continually boasts of his accomplishments
C) Apologizes continually
D) Insists that the TV channel stay tuned to CNN
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Chapter 34: Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5488
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that researchers have identified that hereditary factors account for what percentage of mood disorders?
A) 10% to 15%
B) 20% to 30%
C) 35% to 50%
D) 60% to 80%
Q2) What is the term for a long-term and intense form of psychotherapy developed by Sigmund Freud that allows a patient's unconscious thoughts to be brought to the surface?
A) Adjunctive
B) Behavior
C) Psychoanalysis
D) Cognitive
Q3) The nurse recognizes that a woman who has experienced physical abuse and has inadequate income to care for herself and her family would be categorized under Axis
Q4) The nurse explains that an alternative therapy that uses essential oils and scented candles to help a patient relax and focuses on the atmosphere of the moment is
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Chapter 35: Care of the Patient with an Addictive Personality
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 60-year-old man was admitted for cholecystitis that resulted in a cholecystectomy. On his third day of hospitalization, he begins to sweat profusely, tremble, and has a blood pressure of 160/100. Based on these findings, what focused assessment should the nurse complete?
A) Cardiac problems
B) Respiratory problems
C) Withdrawal problems
D) Circulatory problems
Q2) What should the nurse do to decrease the patient's disorientation at night during the detoxification period?
A) Place the patient in a room with another recovering patient
B) Instruct the patient to orient himself to his surroundings at bedtime
C) Wake the patient up every 4 hours to eat a small snack
D) Use nightlights and remove extra furniture from the room
Q3) During the detoxification period, what does the nurse aim to achieve when designing interventions?
A) Enroll the patient in Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)
B) Keep the patient safe from aspiration and seizure
C) Help the patient interact in nonaddictive activities
D) Help the patient gain insight into the addiction
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Chapter 36: Home Health Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The home health nurse plans interventions to meet which general service goals? (Select all that apply.)
A) Restore function as is appropriate
B) Improve level of function
C) Maintain current health level
D) Ensure return of health
E) Teach healthy lifestyle
Q2) What became effective in 1966 by an act of legislation that revolutionized home care?
A) Life insurance
B) Medicare
C) Private insurance
D) Social Security
Q3) How often must the homecare treatment plan be recertified in order for the patient to continue to receive services?
A) Every 3 days
B) Every 60 days
C) Every 10 days
D) Every 2 weeks
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Long-Term Care
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The home health nurse helps an older adult couple plan changes in their home that will facilitate care in their home as they age. What percentage of people over 65 live in a home setting?
A) 42%
B) 48%
C) 55%
D) 67%
Q2) A nurse helps a family understand that once hospice service is initiated, the focus of care changes from rehabilitation and restoration to what type of care?
A) Maintaining the patient at the optimal level
B) Assisting with funeral planning
C) Relieving the family of care
D) Maintaining comfort as death approaches
Q3) What differentiates the services of a long-term care facility from that of an assisted living facility?
A) Skilled nursing care
B) Personal care services
C) Weekly visits by the staff physician
D) Intensive rehabilitation services
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Rehabilitation Nursing
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient with a brain injury is beginning to regain memory. The nurse explains to the family that what will most likely occur?
A) The patient will become less combative.
B) The patient will become angrier.
C) The patient will become more depressed.
D) The patient will wish to retire.
Q2) The nurse should tell a paraplegic that the rehabilitation experience will consist of:
A) relearning former skills.
B) learning to walk.
C) learning new skills to adapt to a different lifestyle.
D) developing muscle strength.
Q3) Following admission, how soon must a comprehension rehabilitation plan of care be implemented on a rehabilitation patient?
A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 3 days
D) 1 week
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Chapter 39: Hospice Care
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because the family is confused about the meaning of palliative care, the hospice nurse needs to explain the focus of care. What is the focus of palliative care?
A) An aggressive approach to prolong life
B) A protocol of pain relief
C) A form of organized care, which relieves the family of responsibility
D) An integrated service of support for alleviation of symptoms
Q2) The nurse differentiates between curative and palliative care. What is true of curative treatment?
A) Curative treatment is centered on symptom control.
B) Curative treatment is focused on prolonging life.
C) Curative treatment is not concerned with dying.
D) Curative treatment is the only care covered by health insurance.
Q3) What are the drugs of choice when caring for the hospice patient?
A) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
B) Anticholinergic drugs
C) Duragesic patches
D) Morphine derivatives
Q4) When the dying patient becomes confused, the nurse should ____________ him or her.
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Chapter 40: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the largest organelle, responsible for cell reproduction and control of other organelles?
A) Nucleus
B) Ribosome
C) Mitochondrion
D) Golgi apparatus
Q2) What traits describe visceral muscles?
A) Smooth and voluntary
B) Smooth and involuntary
C) Striated and voluntary
D) Striated and involuntary
Q3) Telophase is which phase of cell reproduction during mitosis?
A) First phase
B) Latent phase
C) Final phase
D) Spindle phase
Q4) The nurse explains that ___________are small saclike structures inside the cell that digest compounds that have invaded the cell.
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Chapter 41: Care of the Surgical Patient
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do to minimize the potential for venous stasis?
A) Place pillows under the knee in a position of comfort
B) Assist patient to sit with feet flat on the floor
C) Assist with early ambulation
D) Perform gentle leg massage
Q2) Which of the following are considerations for the older adult surgical patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) The need for specific clear preoperative and postoperative teaching
B) Awareness of lower morbidity and mortality rate
C) Presence of coexisting conditions
D) Increased risk of respiratory complications
E) Expectation of normal recovery time
Q3) The nurse anticipates that the patient will be given ______________anesthesia because of the extensive tissue manipulation involved in a hysterectomy.
A) general
B) regional
C) specific
D) preoperative
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43
Chapter 42: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse takes into consideration that carbon monoxide intoxication secondary to smoke inhalation is often fatal because carbon monoxide:
A) binds with hemoglobin in place of oxygen.
B) interferes with oxygen intake.
C) is a respiratory depressant.
D) is a toxic agent.
Q2) The nurse debriding a burn wound explains that the purpose of debridement is to:
A) increase the effectiveness of the skin graft.
B) prevent infection and promote healing.
C) promote suppuration of the wound.
D) promote movement in the affected area.
Q3) What is the initial intervention for relief of the pruritus of dermatitis venenata?
A) Apply baking soda to lesions
B) Wash area with copious amounts of water
C) Apply cool compresses continuously
D) Expose area to air
Q4) The most deadly skin cancer is ________________.
Q5) The three major glands of the skin are __________, ___________, and
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Chapter 43: Care of the Patient with a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the large, fan-shaped muscle that covers the anterior chest from the sternum to the proximal end of the humerus and acts on the joint of the shoulder to flex, adduct, and rotate?
A) Serratus anterior
B) Intercostal
C) Transversus abdominis
D) Pectoralis major
Q2) Certain foods may increase the pain associated with gout. Which foods have the highest concentration of purines?
A) Brain, liver, kidney
B) Lettuce, corn, potatoes
C) Beef, pork, chicken
D) Fruits and fruit juices
Q3) The emergency department nurse assesses the two cardinal signs of a hip fracture in a newly admitted patient, which are the___________ of the injured leg and the ______rotation of that same leg.
Q4) The division of the skeletal system that comprises the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, and thorax is the _____________ division.
Page 45
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Chapter 44: Care of the Patient with a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which recommendation is most appropriate for a patient who has had an esophageal dilation related to achalasia?
A) Consume only liquid
B) Avoid fruit juices
C) Drink 10 oz of fluid with each meal
D) Lie down for 30 minutes after each meal
Q2) Flexible sigmoidoscopy should be performed every ________ years.
Q3) The nurse caring for a patient with Crohn disease will closely monitor the urinary output to ensure that the patient is excreting at least _______mL/day.
Q4) How should the nurse counsel the 34-year-old woman who has been prescribed sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) for Crohn disease? (Select all that apply.)
A) Expose her to sunlight at least 30 minutes a day for vitamin D synthesis
B) Tell her to drink at least 1500 mL of fluid a day
C) Advise assessing self for rash
D) Use alternate birth control methods to oral contraception
E) Take drug on an empty stomach
Q5) The nurse explains that ___________, the chief enzyme of gastric juice, is activated by hydrochloric acid to begin digestion of protein.
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Chapter 45: Care of the Patient with a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that the use of cyclosporine as an immunosuppressant has been successful in the reduction of rejection of liver transplants because the drug:
A) increases the rate of the regeneration of liver cells.
B) can overcome complications presented by hepatitis C.
C) increases blood supply to transplant.
D) does not suppress bone marrow.
Q2) Which medical interventions and management systems control the bleeding of esophageal varices? (Select all that apply.)
A) Transfusions
B) Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
C) Band ligation
D) Cryotherapy
E) Portocaval shunt
F) Large doses of vitamin B12
Q3) A ___________occurs when the body encapsulates the autodigestive debris in the pancreatic tissue, frequently becoming an abscess.
Q4) The tumor marker that is elevated in patients with pancreatic cancer is______.
Q5) Hepatitis D is usually seen as a co-infection with __________.
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Chapter
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) B cells and T cells fit under which classification?
A) Erythrocytes
B) Basophils
C) Lymphocytes
D) Monocytes
Q2) The nurse examines the complete blood count (CBC) to assess (select all that apply):
A) hematocrit.
B) red cell count.
C) differential white cell count.
D) plasma level.
E) blood type.
F) hemoglobin.
Q3) The presence of excess bands in the peripheral blood that indicate severe infection is called:
A) shift to the left.
B) shift to the right.
C) bone marrow aspiration.
D) thrombocytosis.
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Q4) Neutrophils release ______________, an enzyme that destroys certain bacteria.
Chapter
47: Care of the Patient with a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral Vascular Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which a heart is shocked from a persistent arrhythmia back into sinus rhythm is called a ____________.
Q2) Which of the following are signs of digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ringing in the ears
B) Bradycardia
C) Headache
D) Visual disturbance
E) Hematuria
F) Gastrointestinal complaints
Q3) The nurse is aware that the muscle layer of the heart, which is responsible for the heart's contraction, is the:
A) endocardium.
B) pericardium.
C) mediastinum.
D) myocardium.
Q4) The patient with congestive heart failure who is on a diuretic drug shows a weight loss of 6.6 lb. The nurse is aware that the patient has lost ______ L of fluid.
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Chapter 48: Care of the Patient with a Respiratory Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a major advantage of video assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)?
A) The surgeon can record entire surgical procedure on a video.
B) The surgeon can remove tumors of the lung through a small keyhole incision.
C) The surgeon can x-ray and excise tumor in the same procedure.
D) The surgeon can avoid the use of a closed chest drainage system after surgery.
Q2) What is inspiratory capacity?
A) The amount of air in the lung after a maximal inhalation
B) The amount of air moved with each normal inhalation and expiration
C) The amount of air that can be inhaled in one breath from the resting expiratory level
D) The amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after maximum inhalation
Q3) How does pursed lip breathing assist patients with asthma during an attack?
A) It distracts the patient with breathing technique to reduce anxiety.
B) It gets rid of CO2 faster.
C) It opens bronchioles by backflow air pressure.
D) It increases PACO2..
Q4) The nurse recognizes that the _______ reading in an arterial gas report indicates the amount of oxygen dissolved in the plasma.
Q5) The _________ are the structures of the lung in which gas exchange occurs.
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Chapter 49: Care of the Patient with a Urinary Disorder
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse counsel the young man with chronic prostatitis to avoid?
A) Cessation of intercourse
B) Warm baths
C) Stool softeners
D) Continuing antibiotics when symptoms abate
Q2) The patient with nephrosis complains about the need for bed rest. How would the nurse explain the benefit of bed rest?
A) The recumbent position may initiate diuresis.
B) It preserves the skin integrity.
C) It lowers the level of albuminuria.
D) It saves stress on joints.
Q3) What should the patient be encouraged to eat during the active phase of acute renal failure?
A) A diet high in sodium
B) A diet high in potassium
C) A diet high in fats
D) A diet high in fluid sources
Q4) _________ is a prostatic pain without evidence of infection or inflammation.
Q5) _____________ is a term for severe generalized edema.
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Chapter
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse discovers the type 1 diabetic (IDDM) patient drowsy and tremulous, the skin is cool and moist, and the respirations are 32 and shallow. These are signs of:
A) hypoglycemic reaction; give 6 oz of orange juice.
B) hyperglycemic reaction; give ordered regular insulin.
C) hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic reaction; squeeze glucagon gel in buccal cavity.
D) hypoglycemic reaction; give ordered insulin.
Q2) A condition with a deficiency in growth hormone is called ________________.
Q3) What should the nurse include in provisions for the postoperative care of the patient who had a thyroidectomy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assessing ability to speak by asking him or her to recite name and address every hour
B) Maintaining anatomic position of the head when moving a patient
C) Assisting a patient to hyperextend the head to assess for muscle damage
D) Doing voice check every 2 hours
E) Turning, coughing every hour
F) Checking for bleeding at the sides and the back of the head
Q4) Only ________insulin can be administered intravenously.
Q5) Another term for hyperglycemic reaction is ____________ ______________.
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Chapter 51: Care of the Patient with a Reproductive Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________ are the most benign tumors of the uterus and arise from the uterine muscle tissue.
Q2) Which condition would prevent the use of a vaginal hysterectomy?
A) A woman with more than four pregnancies
B) Large uterine fibroids
C) Menorrhagia for over 6 months
D) Women over the age of 50
Q3) The nurse instructs a group of women who attend the health clinic that persons who are particularly at risk for cervical cancer are persons who (select all that apply):
A) Smoke
B) Wear tampons
C) Have been sexually active since their teens
D) Have multiple sexual partners
E) Had chickenpox as a child
F) Have a history of sexually transmitted diseases (STD)
Q4) An alternative remedy, ____________ , is used by men for the treatment of impotence.
Q5) A ___________ is performed to evaluate living tissue to establish or confirm a diagnosis or to follow the course of a disease.
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Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder
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44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the nurse advise a patient who has severe vertigo from labyrinthitis?
A) Lean against a wall and not head forward until vertigo lessens.
B) Bend at the waist and take several deep breaths.
C) Drink an iced drink slowly.
D) Lie immobile and hold the head in one position until the vertigo lessens.
Q2) The 62-year-old home health patient who is recovering from eye surgery complains of a feeling of "grittiness" in the eye and is having blurred vision. The eyes are reddened and have stringy mucus. What do these complaints indicate?
A) Sjögren syndrome
B) Early cataracts
C) Macular degeneration
D) Retinal detachment
Q3) One of the housekeepers splashes a chemical in the eyes. What should be the first priority?
A) Transport to a physician immediately
B) Cover the eyes with a sterile gauze
C) Irrigate with H2O for 5 minutes
D) Irrigate with normal saline solution for 20 minutes
Q4) The total removal of an eye is a(n) ___________.
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Chapter 53: Care of the Patient with a Neurologic Disorder
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the nurse aware of when assessing a person with a craniocerebral injury?
A) Most injuries of this type are irreversible
B) Open injuries are always more serious than closed injuries
C) Signs and symptoms may not occur until several days after the trauma
D) Trauma to the frontal lobe is more significant than to any other area
Q2) The waxy substance that covers the neuron fibers and increases the rate of transmission of impulses is the ________.
Q3) How would a nurse record the behavior when a patient with Alzheimer disease attempts to eat using a napkin rather than a fork?
A) Apraxia
B) Agnosia
C) Aphasia
D) Dysphagia
Q4) The nurse is aware that the drug t-PA (Activase), a tissue plasminogen activator, must be given in____hours of the onset of symptoms to have maximum benefit.
A) 3 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 8 hours
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Chapter 54: Care of the Patient with an Immune Disorder
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a nurse is sensitive to latex gloves, what potential food sensitivities might the nurse develop? (Select all that apply.)
A) Peanuts
B) Avocados
C) Milk
D) Bananas
E) Tomatoes
F) Potatoes
Q2) To provide examples of an active acquired immunity, the nurse uses the example of a person who has acquired immunity from measles because that person has had: (Select all that apply.)
A) Chickenpox and mumps
B) Measles
C) An extremely healthy immune system
D) An inoculation against measles
E) Maternal antibodies against measles
Q3) The transfer of tissue between genetically identical individual (twins) is a(n)
Q4) A type IV latex allergy is characterized by________ _______.
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Chapter 55: Care of the Patient with HIV/AIDS
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The HIV patient asks the nurse about what to expect in terms of disease progression. The nurse tells this patient that although the disease can vary greatly among individuals, the usual pattern of progression includes:
A) viremia, clinical latency, opportunistic diseases, and death.
B) asymptomatic phase, clinical latency, ARC, and AIDS.
C) acute retroviral syndrome, early infection, early symptomatic disease, and AIDS.
D) transitional viral syndrome, inactive disease, early symptomatic infection, and opportunistic diseases.
Q2) After what period of time would the home health nurse make a mental health appointment for a patient with an HIV infection after assessing a diminished ability to attend to daily functioning?
A) 1 week
B) 2 weeks
C) 3 weeks
D) 1 month
Q3) The nurse explains that an enzyme ____________ ____________ allows the RNA of the retrovirus to be changed to DNA and incorporated into the host's genetic material.
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Chapter 56: Care of the Patient with Cancer
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5510
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse knows which of the following to be characteristics of malignant tumors?
A) Smooth, well defined; movable when palpated
B) Resembles parent tissue; rarely fatal
C) Rate of growth varies; rarely contained within a capsule
D) Remains localized; slow growth
Q2) The nurse caring for a patient who is being treated for cancer of the cervix by a radioactive implant discovers that the applicator with the radioactive material has become dislodged and is lying in the bed between the patient's legs. What should the nurse do?
A) Using long-handled forceps grasp the applicator and wrap it in a towel
B) Help the patient to a chair and cover the applicator with a rubber sheet
C) Reassure the patient by staying at the bedside and call for help
D) Notify the charge nurse
Q3) Which of the following people should avoid visiting a patient being treated with internal radiation therapy?
A) A 78-year-old using a walker
B) An18-year-old woman
C) A woman pregnant in the third trimester
D) A 24-year-old nursing mother
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Page 58
Chapter 57: Professional Roles and Leadership
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5511
Sample Questions
Q1) The experienced nurse who assists a novice to learn the skills of the profession is called a(n) ________________.
Q2) What type of leadership uses four different styles-directing, coaching, supporting, and delegating?
A) Autocratic
B) Situational
C) Democratic
D) Authoritative
Q3) An employee failed to perform the duties listed in the employment contract. What is the term for this failure?
A) Lawsuit
B) Termination
C) Breach of contract
D) Reprimand
Q4) After transcribing each order in a list of orders, the nurse should ___________ __________ the order.
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