Medical-Surgical Nursing
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing is a comprehensive course that focuses on the care of adult patients experiencing a wide range of acute and chronic health conditions. The course emphasizes the development of clinical reasoning, assessment, and intervention skills necessary for managing complex medical and surgical problems. Students will learn to integrate pathophysiological concepts, evidence-based practices, and patient-centered approaches in the assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of nursing care. Topics include fluid and electrolyte balance, perioperative nursing, cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, endocrine, renal, and musculoskeletal disorders, as well as pain management and infection control. The course prepares students to deliver holistic and safe nursing care in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 15th Edition by Bruce D. Clayton
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50 Chapters
879 Verified Questions
879 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Definitions, Names, Standards, and Information
Sources
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about over-the-counter (OTC) drugs?
A) They are not listed in the USP-NF.
B) A prescription from a health care provider is needed.
C) They are sold without a prescription.
D) They are known only by their brand names.
Answer: C
Q2) What is the name under which a drug is listed by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
A) Brand
B) Nonproprietary
C) Official
D) Trademark
Answer: C
Q3) Which is the most authoritative reference for medications that are injected?
A) Parenteral Drug Handbook
B) Handbook on Injectable Drugs
C) Drugs and Injections Quarterly
D) Handbook of Nonprescription Drugs
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Principles of Drug Action and Drug Interactions
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What will the nurse need to determine first in order to mix two drugs in the same syringe?
A) Absorption rate of the drugs
B) Compatibility of the drugs
C) Drug blood level of each drug
D) Medication adverse effects
Answer: B
Q2) Which are routes of drug excretion? (Select all that apply.)
A) Gastrointestinal (GI) tract; feces
B) Genitourinary (GU) tract; urine
C) Lymphatic system
D) Circulatory system; blood/plasma
E) Respiratory system; exhalation
Answer: A, B, E
Q3) What do drug blood levels indicate?
A) Confirm if the patient is taking a generic form of a drug
B) Determine if the patient has sufficient body fat to metabolize the drug
C) Verify if the patient is taking someone else's medications
D) Determine if the amount of drug in the body is in a therapeutic range
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Drug Action Across the Life Span
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching an elderly patient with difficulty swallowing about his medications. Which explanation by the nurse is most helpful?
A) "Enteric-coated tablets can be crushed and taken with applesauce."
B) "Tablets that are scored can be broken in half."
C) "Medications labeled 'SR' can be crushed."
D) "Avoid taking medications in liquid form."
Answer: B
Q2) Which drugs cause birth defects?
A) Teratogens
B) Carcinogens
C) Metabolites
D) Placebos
Answer: A
Q3) Which classification of medications commonly causes allergic reactions in children?
A) Antacids
B) Analgesics
C) Antibiotics
D) Anticonvulsants
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Nursing Process and Pharmacology
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has determined that the pain medication given to a patient an hour ago has been effective. The nurse is using which step of the nursing process?
A) Evaluation
B) Intervention
C) Nursing diagnosis
D) Planning
Q2) What do the classification systems NIC and NOC provide?
A) Individualized data banks of treatments related to disease processes
B) Standardized language for reporting and analyzing nursing care delivery
C) A measure for cost containment within medical institutions
D) Specialized interventions for rare diseases
Q3) A patient is experiencing adverse effects of a medication. Which information obtained by the nurse is subjective?
A) Cough
B) Edema
C) Nausea
D) Tachycardia
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Chapter 5: Patient Education and Health Promotion
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is educating a 13-year-old boy newly diagnosed with diabetes and his parents about diet and glucose monitoring. Which domain of learning is represented when the patient expresses concern about feeling different from his peers?
A) Cognitive
B) Psychomotor
C) Affective
D) Learning style
Q2) The nurse is writing a teaching plan for a 30-year-old patient who has AIDS. Which objectives are written in the correct format? (Select all that apply.)
A) The patient will state adverse effects of the daily medications before discharge.
B) The patient will correctly fill the daily medication pillbox with the correct medications in the appropriate time slots prior to discharge.
C) The patient will adjust the medications accordingly.
D) The patient will schedule an appointment with the infectious disease physician before discharge.
E) The patient will have lab tests performed regularly.
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Chapter 6: A Review of Arithmetic
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) 1 kg = _____ pounds
Q2) 144 = _____
Q3) Which is the most accurate way for the nurse to document the administration of two milligrams of a medication?
A) Two mg
B) 2.0 mg
C) 2 mg
D) ii mg
Q4) Which medication consists of a liquid solvent that contains one or more dissolved substances?
A) Emulsion
B) Precipitate
C) Aliquot
D) Intravenous solution
Q5) 1 3/4 = _____
Q6) 1:45 = _____, _____, _____
Q7) 1.5 \(\times\) 8.04 = _____
Q8) 0.62 = _____, _____, _____
Q9) 300/125 \(\times\) 5/1 = _____
Q10) mm = _____ Page 8
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Principles of Medication Administration and Medication Safety
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication order requires nursing judgment and means "administer if needed"?
A) Morphine 4 mg IV stat
B) Morphine 4 mg IV prior to procedure
C) Morphine 4 mg IV four times a day
D) Morphine 4 mg IV every 4 hours PRN
Q2) Which advantages does the unit dose drug distribution system include? (Select all that apply.)
A) There is decreased participation by the pharmacy.
B) The pharmacist is able to analyze prescribed medications for each client for drug interactions and contraindications.
C) There is less waste of medications.
D) The time spent by nursing personnel preparing these medications is increased.
E) Credit is given to the patient for unused medications.
Q3) Which example best demonstrates safe drug administration by the nurse?
A) Administering an oral medication with the patient sitting upright
B) Asking children to say their name before administering the medication
C) Leaving the medications on the bedside stand after verifying patient identification
D) Returning unused portion of a medication to a stock supply bottle
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Percutaneous Administration
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has an infected wound with large amounts of drainage. Which type of dressing would the nurse use?
A) Telfa
B) OpSite
C) DuoDerm
D) AlgiDERM
Q2) Why are sublingual and buccal medications rapidly absorbed?
A) Their action is localized to the mouth.
B) They are metabolized in the liver.
C) Blood flow is diminished in these sites.
D) These drugs pass directly into systemic circulation.
Q3) Which action will the nurse perform when doing a wet-to-dry dressing every 4 hours on a patient with a deep wound?
A) Pack the wound tightly with gauze.
B) Saturate the dressing with as much liquid as possible.
C) Use Montgomery tapes or a binder to secure the dressing.
D) Apply the new moist dressing over the existing one.
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11
Chapter 9: Enteral Administration
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which data will the nurse document when administering a PRN oral pain medication to a patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Date, time, drug name, dosage, and route of administration
B) Essential patient education about the drug completed
C) Administration receptacle used
D) Signs and symptoms of adverse drug effects
E) Evaluation of therapeutic effectiveness
Q2) In which position would the nurse place a patient before the administration of an enteral feeding?
A) Supine
B) Semi-Fowler's
C) Left lateral
D) Prone
Q3) Which nursing actions are correct when administering a disposable enema? (Select all that apply.)
A) Position the patient on the left side.
B) Allow the solution to flow in by gravity.
C) Instruct the patient to hold the solution 30 minutes before defecating.
D) Maintain the six rights of medication administration.
E) Lubricate the rectal tube.
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Chapter 10: Parenteral Administration: Safe Preparation of
Parenteral Medications
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After teaching a diabetic patient about proper disposal of used syringes and needles, which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Even needles with sleeves should be disposed of appropriately."
B) "It is unusual that anyone could get a needle injury or disease from used needles."
C) "It is important for me to use the designated container to dispose of my syringes and needles."
D) "I am going to purchase the 'Sharps by Mail Disposal System' once I am home."
Q2) Which syringe will the nurse use to administer insulin subcutaneously to a patient?
A) A syringe calibrated in minims
B) A syringe calibrated in units
C) A syringe calibrated in tenths of mL
D) A syringe calibrated in mL
Q3) Which part of the syringe contains the calibrations for drug volume measurement?
A) Plunger
B) Tip
C) Luer-lock
D) Barrel
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Page 13
Chapter 11: Parenteral Administration: Intradermal,
Subcutaneous, and Intramuscular
Routes
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 65-year-old man who weighs 180 lb (81.8 kg) is to receive 1.5 mL of a viscous antibiotic by intramuscular injection. Which needle and syringe will be used?
A) 5/8-inch, 25-gauge needle with 5-mL syringe
B) 1-inch, 28-gauge needle with 4-mL syringe
C) 1 1/2-inch, 21-gauge needle with 3-mL syringe
D) 3-inch, 16-gauge needle with 1.5-mL syringe
Q2) Which statements are true about when administering medications parenterally?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Subcutaneous absorption is slower than intradermal absorption.
B) Two milliliters or less should be administered in a subcutaneous site.
C) The gluteal area is recommended for children.
D) Needles 1 to 1 1/2 inches in length are common for IM injections.
E) The scapular areas of the back may be used for intradermal injections
Q3) When is it acceptable to use the deltoid muscle as an injection site for infants?
A) Medication is irritating.
B) Dose is a long-acting medication.
C) Child is combative.
D) Volume is quite small.
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Chapter 12: Parenteral Administration: Intravenous Route
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which technique by the nurse accurately maintains asepsis of a peripheral intravenous (IV) access device?
A) Wear gloves when hanging all IV solutions.
B) Apply a topical antibiotic ointment to the insertion site.
C) Change fluid administration sets according to institutional policy.
D) Flush with heparin before use.
Q2) The nurse assesses erythema, warmth, and burning pain along the patient's IV site. Which complication is this patient most likely experiencing?
A) Air embolism
B) Extravasation
C) Phlebitis
D) Pulmonary edema
Q3) What is the composition of hypotonic intravenous solutions such as 0.45% NaCl?
A) Fewer dissolved particles than blood
B) Approximately the same number of dissolved particles as blood
C) Higher concentrations of dissolved particles than blood
D) Electrolytes and dextrose
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Chapter 13: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Nervous System
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are examples of neurotransmitters? (Select all that apply.)
A) Gamma amino-butyric acid
B) Acetylcholine
C) Serotonin
D) Glucose
E) Histamine
F) Epinephrine
Q2) A patient with Parkinson's disease asks the nurse why anticholinergics are used in the treatment. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "These drugs help you urinate."
B) "These drugs will decrease your eye pressure."
C) "These drugs inhibit the action of acetylcholine."
D) "These drugs will assist in lowering your heart rate."
Q3) What is the primary response to alpha-1 receptor stimulation?
A) Bronchodilation
B) Tachycardia
C) Vasoconstriction
D) Uterine relaxation
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16
Chapter 14: Sedative-Hypnotics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to facilitating sleep, what is another benefit of sedatives?
A) Increased pain control postoperatively
B) Reduced bronchial secretions
C) Decreased patient anxiety
D) Increased patient alertness
Q2) Which are common adverse effects of barbiturates? (Select all that apply.)
A) Residual daytime sedation
B) Headache
C) Hyperactivity
D) Blurred vision
E) Impaired coordination
Q3) Why are benzodiazepines often preferred over barbiturates? (Select all that apply.)
A) They have selective action at specific receptor sites.
B) There is a wide range of safety between therapeutic and lethal levels.
C) REM sleep is decreased to a lesser extent.
D) Accidental overdoses are well tolerated.
E) There are no hypotensive episodes when rising to a sitting position.
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17
Chapter 15: Drugs Used for Parkinsons Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing education to a patient recently placed on selegiline disintegrating tablets. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "This medication will help slow the development of symptoms."
B) "I will place the tablet on my tongue before breakfast."
C) "I may need to use a stool softer for constipation."
D) "I should not push the tablet through the foil."
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient with Parkinson's disease about levodopa. Which statement by the nurse is accurate regarding drug administration?
A) "Take this medication in between meals."
B) "Take this medication at bedtime to prevent dizziness."
C) "Take this medication when your tremors get worse."
D) "Take this medication with food or antacids to reduce GI upset."
Q3) What is the rationale for administering levodopa for treatment of Parkinson's disease instead of dopamine?
A) Dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier when administered orally.
B) Levodopa is much less expensive.
C) The half-life of dopamine is too short.
D) Dopamine has too many reactions with other medications.
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Page 18
Chapter 16: Drugs Used for Anxiety Disorders
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient is most likely to respond quickly to antianxiety therapy with benzodiazepines?
A) Patient with a history of long-term anxiety
B) Patient with recent anxiety reactions
C) Patient with severe depression in addition to being anxious
D) Patient with incidents of auditory hallucinations
Q2) What will the nurse caution a patient about when providing information about the prescribed azaspirone antidepressant?
A) Risk for addiction
B) Adverse effect of nausea
C) Risk of injury when using machinery
D) Additive effects of CNS depression with alcohol
Q3) Which is the drug of choice to treat a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
A) Lorazepam (Ativan)
B) Buspirone (BuSpar)
C) Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
D) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
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Chapter 17: Drugs Used for Mood Disorders
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which psychological manifestation of depression will improve in response to antidepressant therapy?
A) Loss of energy
B) Palpitations
C) Sleep disturbances
D) Social withdrawal
Q2) Which will the nurse include in a teaching plan for a patient with depression being treated with amitriptyline (Elavil)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dryness of the mouth is normal; sucking on sugar-free hard candy and ice chips or chewing gum may help alleviate this problem.
B) Rise slowly from a supine or sitting position to avoid dizziness and orthostatic hypotension.
C) Avoid alcohol and barbiturates.
D) If adverse effects occur, discontinue the medication.
E) An immediate elevation in mood will be noted.
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Chapter 18: Drugs Used for Psychoses
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male patient becomes verbally aggressive and insists the nurse is poisoning him as she attempts to administer haloperidol (Haldol). Which action will the nurse take?
A) Support the patient's decision to refuse the medication.
B) Discreetly ask an assistant to put the medication in the patient's food.
C) Firmly redirect the patient to take the medication.
D) Speak privately with the patient and reinforce medication action.
Q2) Which are extrapyramidal adverse effects of antipsychotic agents? (Select all that apply.)
A) Spasmodic movements of muscle groups.
B) Masklike expression
C) Lip smacking
D) Inability to sit in one place for extended period
E) Weight gain
Q3) Which is an appropriate nursing intervention for a patient who has recently been prescribed clozapine (Clozaril)?
A) Assess for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
B) Encourage a low-fiber diet.
C) Measure the patient's waist circumference.
D) Monitor for insomnia.
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing education to a patient recently prescribed pregabalin (Lyrica). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further instruction?
A) "I may feel tired at first, but this should improve with continued use."
B) "Once my pain improves, I will stop taking this medication."
C) "Taking sleeping aids will increase the sedative effect of this medication."
D) "This drug may affect my mental alertness, so I need to be careful around machinery."
Q2) The health care provider orders diazepam (Valium) 10 mg IV stat for a patient who was admitted with status epilepticus. What are important nursing considerations associated with administration of this medication IV? (Select all that apply.)
A) Apply a cardiac monitor to the patient to assess for continuous heart rate, if not already done.
B) Administer the prescribed dosage over 1 minute.
C) Mix diazepam in a primary IV solution to avoid overdosing.
D) Continuously assess the patient's airway.
E) Obtain the correct dose (10 mg) and administer over slow IV push.
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22
Chapter 20: Drugs Used for Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action will the nurse take when a patient receiving morphine sulfate via PCA has a shallow, irregular respiratory rate of 6/min?
A) Elevate the patient's head of bed to facilitate lung expansion.
B) Increase the patient's primary IV flow rate.
C) Complete the FLACC scale.
D) Notify the health care provider and prepare to administer naloxone (Narcan).
Q2) How long after the administration of a parenteral pain medication will the nurse complete the next pain assessment to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
A) 10 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 1 hour
D) 2 hours
Q3) Which information is most accurate regarding the nurse's understanding of pain management?
A) Older patients have difficulty describing their pain level.
B) Encourage patients to report pain before the pain becomes too severe.
C) Use the smallest dose of medication possible to control pain.
D) Pain medication administration ordered PRN will maintain a constant blood level.
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Chapter 21: Introduction to Cardiovascular Disease and Metabolic Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the mechanism of action demonstrated by exercise in managing blood glucose levels?
A) Exercise causes release of glucose and promotes a reduced blood glucose level.
B) Exercise on a regular basis causes a reduction in lean body mass, which helps regulate blood glucose levels.
C) Increased muscle mass and less fat tends to normalize blood glucose levels because glucose is used by muscle cells when exercising.
D) Exercise stimulates the liver, the primary storage and utilization site of glucose, to release glucose.
Q2) Drug therapy for initial treatment of metabolic syndrome is targeted at controlling which conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Obstructive sleep apnea
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Hypertension
D) Obesity
E) Dyslipidemia
F) Insulin resistance
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Chapter 22: Drugs Used to Treat Dyslipidemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to controlling hyperlipidemia, what are bile acid-binding resins prescribed to treat?
A) Constipation secondary to excess fecal bile acids
B) Constipation related to pseudomembranous colitis
C) Pruritus secondary to biliary stasis
D) Jaundice related to cholelithiasis
Q2) Which deficiency may develop in patients taking cholestyramine?
A) Potassium deficiency
B) Sodium deficiency
C) Vitamin K deficiency
D) Hydrochloric acid deficiency
Q3) A patient is prescribed a bile acid resin. The nurse instructs the patient to report which adverse reaction related to vitamin K deficiency?
A) Constipation
B) Coffee ground emesis
C) Nausea
D) Changes in skin pigmentation
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Chapter 23: Drugs Used to Treat Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has just begun taking an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor calls the nurse and reports feeling very dizzy when standing up, and asks if the medication should be discontinued. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Stop taking the medication immediately."
B) "Rise to a sitting or standing position slowly; your symptoms will resolve."
C) "I will schedule you to visit the health care provider today."
D) "Cut the pill in half and take a reduced dosage."
Q2) Which agents are preferred for the initial treatment of hypertension?
A) ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor antagonists
B) Calcium-ion agonists and central-acting alpha agonists
C) Thiazide diuretics and beta adrenergic blockers
D) Direct vasodilators and peripherally acting adrenergic antagonists
Q3) The nurse is explaining to a patient how ACE inhibitors affect blood pressure. Which statement accurately describes the action of these medications?
A) They increase aldosterone secretion.
B) They inhibit vasoconstriction.
C) They lower heart rate.
D) They promote sodium retention.
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Chapter 24: Drugs Used to Treat Dysrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is started on phenytoin (Dilantin), who is also taking amiodarone (Cordarone), should be assessed for what possible effect?
A) CNS depression and sedation
B) Decrease in effectiveness of phenytoin
C) Respiratory depression
D) Increase in serum phenytoin levels
Q2) Patients who are on neuromuscular blocking agents and lidocaine must be closely observed for which complication?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Respiratory depression
C) Neurotoxicity
D) Seizures
Q3) Amiodarone is contraindicated for patients with which condition?
A) Pulmonary edema
B) Severe sinus node dysfunction causing bradycardia
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)
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Chapter 25: Drugs Used to Treat Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) How frequently are nitroglycerin tablets discarded and prescriptions refilled?
A) Monthly
B) Every 3 months
C) Every 6 months
D) Yearly
Q2) What risk is minimized when the smallest dose of nitroglycerin is used to provide satisfactory results?
A) Allergy
B) Dependence
C) Tolerance
D) Nausea
Q3) Which statement is true regarding the pain associated with angina?
A) It does not subside until treatment is initiated.
B) It is highly variable in intensity and location.
C) It typically subsides after 1 to 3 minutes.
D) It is directly related to the degree of myocardial damage.
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28
Chapter 26: Drugs Used to Treat Peripheral Vascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has completed teaching to a patient recently prescribed cilostazol (Pletal). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will sit down if I feel lightheaded or faint."
B) "Because this medication helps my circulation, I will try to quit smoking."
C) "Grapefruit juice will increase the effects of this medication."
D) "Diarrhea may occur but likely will stop with continued therapy."
Q2) When assessing a client recently prescribed pentoxifylline (Trental), which medication will alert the nurse to monitor closely for adverse effects?
A) Antilipemic
B) Antihypertensive
C) Antibiotic
D) Antipsychotic
Q3) Which patient statement indicates to the nurse that the patient has a good understanding of peripheral vascular disease?
A) "Symptoms are warning signs of the increased potential to develop diseases."
B) "Pharmacologic treatments can reverse the disease process."
C) "Surgical interventions will cure the disease."
D) "Controlling contributing factors may affect the progression of the disease."
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Chapter 27: Drugs Used to Treat Thromboembolic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dipyridamole (Persantine) has been used extensively in combination with warfarin to prevent the formation of thromboembolism after which type of event?
A) Myocardial infarction
B) Transient ischemic attack
C) Cardiac valve replacement
D) Heart transplant
Q2) The nurse is preparing discharge education for a patient who will be receiving warfarin (Coumadin) at home. Which important points will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A) "Do not make any major changes to your diet without discussing it with your health care provider."
B) "Keep outpatient laboratory appointments for monitoring of therapy."
C) "Take the medication after meals."
D) "Report signs of bleeding to your health care provider, including observing skin for bruising, petechiae, blood in emesis, urine, or stools, bleeding gums, cold, clammy skin, faintness, or altered sensorium."
E) "Avoid aspirin products."
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Chapter 28: Drugs Used to Treat Heart Failure
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult male patient with long-term heart failure has presented for an office visit. The nurse obtains information that he has recently begun taking St. John's wort. What results with the use of this herbal supplement?
A) Digoxin toxicity
B) Altered potassium electrolyte balance
C) Reduced therapeutic benefits of digoxin
D) Enhanced digoxin effectiveness without producing toxicity
Q2) Which instruction by the nurse will be included when teaching an adult patient about digoxin (Lanoxin) for management of heart failure?
A) "Report nausea and vomiting to your health care provider."
B) "Decrease the amount of high-potassium foods you eat."
C) "Omit your dose of digoxin if your pulse is 60."
D) "Visual disturbances are common adverse effects."
Q3) Which agents stimulate the heart to increase the force of contractions, thereby increasing cardiac output?
A) Inotropic
B) Chronotropic
C) Isotonic
D) Isopropyl
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Page 31
Chapter 29: Drugs Used for Diuresis
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72612
Sample Questions
Q1) On admission, a patient with a history of cardiac insufficiency complains of shortness of breath. The nurse auscultates the lungs and notes bilateral crackles throughout both fields. In addition, there is bilateral +2 edema of the lower extremities. Which medication does the nurse anticipate that the health care provider will prescribe?
A) Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
B) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
C) Mannitol
D) Furosemide (Lasix)
Q2) When teaching a patient who is taking thiazide diuretics, the nurse will encourage the patient to increase the intake of which electrolyte?
A) Calcium
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium
Q3) Which patient assessment would alert the nurse to withhold a loop diuretic?
A) Crackles in the lung bases
B) +2 pitting peripheral edema
C) Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L
D) Weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days
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Page 32
Chapter 30: Drugs Used to Treat Upper Respiratory Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72613
Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication may be given to patients with allergic seasonal rhinitis who do not respond to antihistamines and sympathomimetics?
A) Leukotrienes
B) Mineralocorticoids
C) Corticosteroids
D) Cortisol
Q2) Which of the following are true of antihistamines? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reduce inflammation locally
B) Antagonize H1 receptors
C) May be administered orally
D) Are systemically distributed
E) Reduce nasal congestion
Q3) What initiates the sneeze reflex?
A) Stimulation of the vagus nerve
B) Irritation of the nasal mucosa by foreign particulate matter
C) Stimulation of the tonsils
D) Enervation of the olfactory cranial nerve
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33
Chapter 31: Drugs Used to Treat Lower Respiratory Disease
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child has been diagnosed with asthma and the nurse is providing education to the family. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will place the stuffed animals in the freezer overnight."
B) "We will confine our dog to the kitchen area."
C) "I should wash bedding in hot water."
D) "A damp cloth should be used when I dust."
Q2) What is the reason for administering potassium iodide to a patient with emphysema?
A) To increase blood iodide levels
B) To decrease mucus viscosity
C) To reduce metabolic needs of the body
D) To decrease bronchial irritation
Q3) Within minutes of the initiation of a nebulizer treatment with a sympathomimetic bronchodilator, the patient turns on his call light and states that he feels "panicky" and his heart is racing. Which action will the nurse take?
A) Reassure the patient this is expected.
B) Add more diluents to the nebulizer.
C) Administer a sedative.
D) Stop treatment and notify the health care provider.
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Page 34
Chapter 32: Drugs Used to Treat Oral Disorders
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72615
Sample Questions
Q1) Which local anesthetic is used for inflammation of oral mucous membranes?
A) Chlorhexidine (Peridex)
B) 2% viscous lidocaine
C) Nystatin (Mycostatin)
D) Hydrogen peroxide
Q2) What is the primary pharmacologic therapy for Candida albicans?
A) Steroids
B) Antifungal agents
C) Topical anesthetics
D) Topical anti-inflammatory agents
Q3) A patient with COPD uses a corticosteroid inhaler bid. Which adverse effect is associated with this medication?
A) Mucositis
B) Plaque
C) Xerostomia
D) Candidiasis
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35
Chapter 33: Drugs Used to Treat Gastroesophageal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer
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16 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postoperative appendectomy patient has a nasogastric tube and wonders why the previous nurse told him that he was receiving an IV "ulcer-preventing" medication called ranitidine. The patient states that he has never had any stomach problems in his life. Which is the best response by the nurse?
A) "This medication will cause the pH in your stomach to drop."
B) "This medication helps coat your stomach while the nasogastric tube is in place."
C) "Because you are not eating after surgery, this medication will help reduce the hydrochloric acid your stomach is still secreting."
D) "The nasogastric tube will cause peptic ulcer disease. This medication will help prevent that."
Q2) Which is a common adverse effect of magnesium-based antacid preparations?
A) Heartburn
B) Rebound indigestion
C) Constipation
D) Diarrhea
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Page 36
Chapter 34: Drugs Used to Treat Nausea and Vomiting
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72617
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are important nursing assessments for monitoring the hydration status of infants? (Select all that apply.)
A) Monitor oral mucous membranes, vital signs, and skin turgor twice each shift.
B) Monitor intake and output every shift.
C) Weigh every other day.
D) Monitor electrolyte and specific gravity laboratory values.
E) Provide diversional activities during hospitalization.
Q2) What is the role of the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) in vomiting? (Select all that apply.)
A) Initiates or induce vomiting
B) Coordinates the vomiting reflex
C) Activates the vomit center (VC) to induce vomiting
D) Samples blood and spinal fluid for potentially toxic substances
Q3) What condition is occurring when a patient experiences nausea immediately on entering the clinic to receive another course of chemotherapy?
A) Psychogenic
B) Chemotherapy-induced
C) Hyperemesis gravidarum
D) Anticipatory nausea and vomiting
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Page 37
Chapter 35: Drugs Used to Treat Constipation and Diarrhea
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has had a myocardial infarction is advised to avoid straining with defecation. Which medication would be prescribed to this patient?
A) Stool softeners
B) Bulk-forming laxatives
C) Stimulants
D) Emollients
Q2) Which instruction will the nurse include in the discharge teaching of a patient taking psyllium?
A) "Administer with a full glass of water."
B) "Limit the intake of high-fiber foods."
C) "Avoid mixing in juice."
D) "Fat-soluble vitamin deficiency is common."
Q3) Which effect will the nurse expect when a patient is taking psyllium while on digoxin?
A) Decreased effectiveness of the laxative
B) Increased laxative effect
C) Increased absorption of the digoxin
D) Decreased absorption of the digoxin
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Chapter 36: Drugs Used to Treat Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus, which was previously controlled with an oral antidiabetic agent, is hospitalized for treatment of a leg ulcer. The health care provider has ordered sliding scale insulin coverage with regular insulin for hyperglycemia. The nurse brings the injection into the room, and the patient becomes upset, stating "I don't want to start taking that drug! I'll need it the rest of my life." What is the nurse's best response?
A) "This is the same drug as the oral medication you were taking. It's a stronger dose while you are in the hospital."
B) "Don't worry. You shouldn't need this too often. As you feel better, your blood glucose level will drop."
C) "Your body is under stress right now, which raises your blood glucose level. This does not mean you will be on this drug permanently. Once you're feeling better, your provider will determine if your oral medication is all you will need."
D) "Your disease is progressing and your pancreas is producing less insulin. I know this is a hard time for you. Do you want to talk about it?"
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Chapter 37: Drugs Used to Treat Thyroid Disease
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72620
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of heart failure has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The drug interaction with glycosides and thyroid replacement therapy will most likely require which change in therapy?
A) Decrease in the daily digoxin dosage
B) Gradual increase in the daily glycoside dosage
C) Not able to begin thyroid replacement therapy because of the underlying heart condition
D) Increased thyroid replacement dosage
Q2) Which patient would be a candidate for radioactive iodine therapy?
A) 17-year-old woman with Graves' disease
B) 64-year-old woman with hypothyroidism
C) 46-year-old man with heart disease and thyroid cancer
D) 82-year-old man with myxedema crisis
Q3) What is the mechanism of action of propylthiouracil?
A) Blocks reuptake of thyroid hormone in the liver
B) Destroys hormone in the thyroid gland
C) Increases synthesis of hormone in the thyroid gland
D) Blocks synthesis of hormone in the thyroid gland
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Chapter 38: Corticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are appropriate measures for monitoring hydration and fluid balance in the patient on steroid therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Daily weights
B) Abdominal girth measurements
C) Reports of thirst
D) Neurologic assessment
E) Assessment for alteration in skin integrity
Q2) Which will the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient asking about the use of salt substitutes while on a sodium-restricted diet?
A) Salt substitutes may be high in potassium and should be used sparingly.
B) Salt substitutes are safe for unlimited use.
C) The salty flavor is reduced, so additional amounts are needed for desired flavor.
D) Salt substitutes may interact with the patient's medications.
Q3) Which condition would require mineralocorticoid replacement?
A) Addison's disease
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Myxedema
D) Glomerulonephritis
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Chapter 39: Gonadal Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient with a history of endometriosis presents with bilateral lower quadrant pain reportedly at midcycle. Which gonadal drug is indicated for treating symptoms of endometriosis?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Androgens
D) Gonadotropins
Q2) Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with seizures about estrogen therapy?
A) Phenytoin reduces the effectiveness of estrogen.
B) Estrogen reduces the effectiveness of phenytoin.
C) Phenytoin may inhibit the metabolism of estrogen.
D) Estrogen may inhibit the metabolism of phenytoin.
Q3) Which patient on oral contraceptive therapy will be at greatest risk for heart attack?
A) 34-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis
B) 28-year-old woman with history of eczema
C) 36-year-old woman who smokes half a pack per day
D) 36-year-old woman who has a history of abnormal Pap smears
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42
Chapter 40: Drugs Used in Obstetrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient at 33 weeks' gestation is admitted to the obstetric unit in active labor with symptoms associated with pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). Which actions will the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Vital signs hourly
B) Administration of IV pitocin
C) Administration of magnesium sulfate IV
D) Fetal stress test
E) Assessment of deep tendon reflexes
Q2) Which emergency drug must be available when caring for a patient receiving magnesium sulfate?
A) Naloxone
B) Calcium gluconate
C) Dextrose
D) Dopamine
Q3) Which drug will the nurse administer to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis in the newborn?
A) Silver nitrate
B) Dexamethasone
C) Erythromycin
D) Vitamin K
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Chapter 41: Drugs Used in Mens and Womens Health
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is obtaining a history on a patient who is seeking oral contraceptives. Which condition would contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives?
A) Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Varicose veins
D) Thromboembolic disease
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient beginning therapy with dutasteride (Avodart). How long will it take before the patient can expect results?
A) 24 hours
B) 2 weeks
C) 1 month
D) 6 months
Q3) A female patient has developed leukorrhea since being on oral broad-spectrum antibiotics for the past week for a lower respiratory infection. Which organism causes leukorrhea?
A) Herpes simplex
B) Mycoplasma hominis
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Candida albicans
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44
Chapter 42: Drugs Used to Treat Disorders of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking an antimicrobial agent prescribed to treat a urinary tract infection for 2 days. She contacts the health care provider's office to report persistence of symptoms. In evaluating the medication effectiveness, which assessments would be important to inquire about? (Select all that apply.)
A) Complete emptying of the bladder
B) Amount of pain with urination as well as frequency
C) Amount of daily fluid intake and output
D) GI symptom complaints
E) Bleeding with urination
F) Persistence of nocturia
Q2) How often is fosfomycin (Monurol) usually administered when used in the treatment of urinary tract infections?
A) In a one-time dose
B) Once per day
C) Once per week
D) Monthly
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45
Chapter 43: Drugs Used to Treat Glaucoma and Other Eye Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about aqueous humor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bathes and feeds the lens, posterior surface of the cornea, and iris
B) Maintains the iris color
C) Drains out of the eye through drainage channels located near the junction of the cornea and sclera
D) Manufactures fluid for tear production
E) Flows out of the canal of Schlemm into the venous system of the eye
Q2) Which are important teaching points for the nurse to review with a patient recently diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma? (Select all that apply.)
A) The disease will cause damage to the optic disc if left untreated.
B) Symptoms are sudden and painful when the disease begins.
C) Loss of peripheral vision is a common trigger for diagnosis.
D) Total blindness may result if the glaucoma is not treated.
E) Glaucoma is not a serious disease and will cause only mild inconvenience to the patient.
F) Treatment is only necessary when symptoms are bothersome.
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46
Chapter 44: Drugs Used for Cancer Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of administering filgrastim (Neupogen) to a patient who is post-bowel resection secondary to cancer?
A) Decrease the gastrointestinal toxicity secondary to chemotherapeutic agents
B) Suppress the immune response
C) Work as an antiemetic and stimulate his appetite
D) Increase the white blood cell counts
Q2) Which assessment by the nurse would be a sign of neurotoxicity related to chemotherapy?
A) Paresthesia
B) Euphoria
C) Nausea
D) Hallucinations
Q3) Why are bone marrow stimulants used in the treatment of cancer?
A) To increase uptake of the chemotherapy from the interior of the bones
B) To strengthen bones weakened by pathologic processes
C) To enhance the patient's immune system during treatment
D) To protect the bone marrow from destructive actions from the cancer treatment
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Chapter 45: Drugs Used to Treat the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the intensive care unit, the nurse is taking care of a patient who is on a ventilator and is receiving succinylcholine (Anectine). Which is a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A) Pain
B) Disturbed Body Image
C) Risk for Injury
D) Self-Care Deficit
Q2) Which medication will be prescribed for a patient complaining of muscle spasms secondary to a back injury?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B) Morphine sulfate
C) Bethanechol (Urecholine)
D) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
Q3) What are the reasons that neuromuscular blocking agents are used? (Select all that apply.)
A) Alleviation of pain
B) Reducing the use and adverse effects of general anesthetics
C) Easing endotracheal intubation and prevent laryngospasm
D) Producing amnesia during painful procedures
E) Decreasing muscular activity in electroshock therapy
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Chapter 46: Antimicrobial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug is incompatible with heparin?
A) Gentamicin
B) Ampicillin (Unasyn)
C) Ticarcillin (Timentin)
D) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
Q2) A patient is scheduled to take tetracycline and aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) at the same time. When will the nurse administer the medications to achieve the optimal effects?
A) Both medications together
B) Amphojel 30 minutes before tetracycline
C) Tetracycline with orange juice
D) Tetracycline 1 hour before Amphojel
Q3) Which drugs may reach toxic blood levels if administered with macrolide antibiotics? (Select all that apply.)
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Digoxin
C) NSAIDs
D) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
E) Diuretics
F) Theophylline
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Chapter 47: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which equation is used to calculate the basal energy expenditure (BEE) in kilocalories per day?
A) Henderson-Hasselbalch
B) Quadratic
C) Harris-Benedict
D) Stein-Leventhal
Q2) A patient who is 8 weeks post partum would like to begin a moderate-intensity exercise program to lose the remaining 20 lb she gained during her pregnancy. Which exercise regimen will the nurse recommend to accomplish this goal best?
A) Walking 2 miles daily in 1 hour, four times weekly
B) Jogging 4 miles in 20 minutes, three times weekly
C) Walking 4 miles in 1 hour daily
D) Jogging 2 miles in 20 minutes, twice weekly
Q3) What is the best way for the nurse to administer liquid iron?
A) With an antacid
B) Mixed with coffee
C) Sipped through a straw
D) Swished and then swallowed
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Chapter 48: Herbal and Dietary Supplement Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary use of echinacea?
A) Reduce premenstrual symptoms
B) Decrease blood pressure
C) Stimulate the immune system
D) Increase energy
Q2) For what is black cohosh used?
A) Preventing miscarriage during the first trimester
B) Reducing symptoms of premenstrual syndrome
C) Providing antispasmodic activity of the GI system
D) Controlling migraine headaches
Q3) Which dietary supplement is used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia?
A) Ginkgo
B) Ephedra
C) Garlic
D) Saw palmetto
Q4) Which is a therapeutic effect of valerian?
A) Lower HDLs and raise LDLs
B) Prevent infection
C) Promote relaxation and sleep
D) Elevate mood
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Chapter 49: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) A health professional colleague is suspected of having a substance abuse problem because of the person's frequent absenteeism, mood swings when at work, diminished alertness, and poor patient care. Which actions will the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A) Confront the individual.
B) Document specific examples of inappropriate actions.
C) Avoid assigning this individual to patients with narcotic medication orders or high acuities.
D) Notify law enforcement of the suspicions.
E) Submit a confidential report to an appropriate supervisor.
Q2) What does a urinalysis that is positive for the drug tested indicate?
A) It indicates illegal drug use.
B) It verifies drug dependency.
C) It is a violation of the individual's constitutional rights.
D) It verifies whether the drug is present in the specimen.
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Chapter 50: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What important points of patient education should be included about disulfiram (Antabuse) therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) The patient should return for liver function tests in 10 to 14 days following initiation of therapy.
B) Headache, fatigue, and a metallic taste are common adverse effects that usually resolve.
C) Avoid alcohol ingestion to prevent a reaction.
D) Carefully read all labels for possible alcohol content, including perfumes, and over-the-counter medications such as cough syrups.
E) Report to the health care provider any allergic symptoms, such as hives or pruritus.
Q2) Which nursing action is accurate when administering colchicine?
A) Administer the medication subcutaneously.
B) Maintain fluid intake of at least eight 8-ounce glasses daily.
C) Increase fiber in the diet to prevent constipation.
D) Inform the patient that pain will be alleviated in 2 weeks.
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