Medical-Surgical Nursing Final
Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing is a comprehensive course that focuses on the care of adult patients experiencing a wide range of medical conditions and surgical interventions. The course emphasizes the integration of foundational nursing knowledge, clinical reasoning, and evidence-based practice to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate nursing care for diverse patient populations. Students will develop skills in patient assessment, medication administration, perioperative care, management of acute and chronic illnesses, and patient education, while maintaining a strong focus on patient safety, ethical considerations, and interdisciplinary collaboration within healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Copstead
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54 Chapters
1230 Verified Questions
1230 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred to as
A) latent.
B) subclinical.
C) prodromal.
D) convalescence.
Answer: B
Q2) A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake.This is an example of
A) primary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: B
Q3) When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be ________.
Answer: idiopathic
Many diseases are idiopathic in nature.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis and Adaptive Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Selye's three phases of the stress response include all the following except A) allostasis.
B) resistance.
C) alarm.
D) exhaustion.
Answer: A
Q2) Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by A) norepinephrine.
B) cortisol.
C) glucagon.
D) ACTH.
Answer: A
Q3) Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in A) stress reduction.
B) permanent damage and death.
C) movement into the resistance stage.
D) exhaustion of the sympathetic nervous system.
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The benefit of glycolysis is that this phase supplies
A) ATP to meet energy needs of the body.
B) pyruvate to the citric acid cycle.
C) energy for oxidative phosphorylation
D) lactate during anaerobic conditions.
Answer: B
Q2) The resting membrane potential in nerve and skeletal muscle is determined primarily by
A) extracellular sodium ion concentration.
B) the ratio of intracellular to extracellular potassium ions.
C) activation of voltage-gated sodium channels.
D) activity of energy-dependent membrane pumps.
Answer: B
Q3) An increase in extracellular potassium ion from 4.0 to 6.0 mEq/L would A) hyperpolarize the resting membrane potential.
B) make it more difficult to reach threshold and produce an action potential.
C) hypopolarize the resting membrane potential.
D) alter the threshold potential.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coagulative necrosis is caused by A) dissolving of dead cells and cyst formation.
B) trauma or pancreatitis.
C) lung tissue damage.
D) interrupted blood supply.
Q2) Somatic death refers to death
A) of a body organ.
B) of the entire organism.
C) of nerve cells.
D) secondary to brain damage.
Q3) Infectious injury often results from A) exotoxins.
B) endotoxins.
C) self-destruction of cells.
D) anti-inflammatory reactions.
E) enzymes from white blood cells.
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6
Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of smooth muscle include A) being under voluntary control.
B) having striations.
C) contraction being short-lived.
D) being found in blood vessels.
Q2) An important difference between skeletal and cardiac muscle is that A) cardiac muscle is not striated.
B) only skeletal muscle is dependent upon actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) calcium does not leave the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac cells.
D) cardiac muscle has calcium channels on the cell surface for calcium entry.
Q3) Which tissue type is categorized as epithelial?
A) Tendons and ligaments
B) Blood cells
C) Blood vessel endothelium
D) Cartilage
Q4) The primary role of genes is to A) code for reproduction.
B) direct the synthesis of proteins.
C) determine differentiation.
D) determine cellular apoptosis.
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The risk period for maternal rubella infection leading to congenital problems begins A) prior to conception.
B) during the last trimester.
C) at birth.
D) all through pregnancy.
Q2) The primary factor associated with risk of Down syndrome is A) family history of heritable diseases.
B) exposure to TORCH syndrome organisms.
C) maternal alcohol intake.
D) maternal age.
Q3) Results of biochemical tests indicate an infant has phenylketonuria (PKU).The parents ask what PKU means.Correct responses would include all the following except PKU
A) is an enzyme deficiency resulting in the inability to metabolize phenylalanine.
B) is an inborn error of metabolism.
C) results from a chromosome abnormality called nondisjunction.
D) is transmitted as an autosomal recessive disorder.
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8
Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene
A) occurs at an earlier age.
B) is more likely to be unilateral.
C) is more common than non-inherited breast cancer.
D) is more responsive to treatment.
Q2) A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival.Which response is correct?
A) "Lung cancer is always fatal."
B) "Lung cancer has about a 15% survival rate."
C) "Lung cancer is highly curable when diagnosed early."
D) "Lung cancer death rate has decreased significantly, as with all other cancers."
Q3) Retroviruses are associated with human cancers, including
A) Burkitt lymphoma.
B) Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C) pancreatic cancer.
D) hepatic cancer.
Q4) In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is ____ (more/less)likely to be aggressive.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common method of disease transmission is A) airborne.
B) droplet.
C) vector.
D) inoculant.
Q2) A characteristic of some bacteria is
A) intracellular parasite.
B) composed of RNA or DNA.
C) contains cell wall endotoxin.
D) cannot replicate extracellularly.
Q3) The term used to describe fungal infections is A) sepsis.
B) mycoses.
C) amebiasis.
D) Chlamydia.
Q4) An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed A) endemic.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) partdemic.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mononuclear phagocyte system consists of
A) monocytes and tissue macrophages.
B) dendritic cells.
C) bone marrow stem cells.
D) antibody-secreting plasma cells.
E) basophils.
Q2) The primary function of eosinophils is to
A) kill parasitic helminths (worms).
B) kill bacteria.
C) stop viral replication.
D) phagocytize fungi.
Q3) The spleen is an important defense against infection, because it
A) activates the complement cascade.
B) initiates inflammation.
C) controls phagocytosis.
D) filters the blood.
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11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effects of histamine release include
A) vasoconstriction.
B) bronchodilation.
C) increased vascular permeability.
D) decreased gut permeability.
Q2) The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is
A) DiGeorge.
B) Bruton agammaglobulinemia.
C) Wiskott-Aldrich.
D) selective IgA.
Q3) Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease?
A) HIV/AIDS
B) Malnutrition immunodeficiency
C) Cancer immunodeficiency
D) Radiation immunodeficiency
Q4) Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused by A) donor antigens.
B) recipient antibodies.
C) donor T cells.
D) recipient T cells.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of leukemia primarily affects children?
A) ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)
B) CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)
C) AML (acute myeloid leukemia)
D) CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)
Q2) Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with A) Epstein-Barr virus.
B) radiation exposure.
C) immunodeficiency syndromes.
D) history of cigarette smoking.
Q3) A diagnostic laboratory finding in myeloma is A) Bence Jones proteins in the urine.
B) decreased platelet count.
C) increased IgM antibody titer.
D) elevated blood glucose levels.
Q4) The only known curative treatment for CML is _____ bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor.
Q5) Two of the most serious oncology emergencies associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma are obstruction of the superior vena cava and compression of the
Page 13
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Chapter 12: HIV Disease and AIDS
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents to the clinic with flu-like symptoms and a rash.The nurse knows that the type of rash associated with HIV may include
A) maculopapular.
B) vesicular.
C) impetigo.
D) urticarial.
E) psoriasis.
Q2) Opportunistic infections are a hallmark of HIV and AIDS.Which infections are considered opportunistic?
A) Acinetobacter
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Candida albicans
D) Pneumocystis carinii
E) Clostridium difficile
Q3) Which drugs are used for the management of HIV?
A) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) DNA polymerase inhibitors
C) Protease inhibitors
D) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
E) CD4 analogs
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Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thalassemia may be confused with iron-deficiency anemia, because they are both A) hyperchromic.
B) microcytic.
C) genetic.
D) responsive to iron therapy.
Q2) An increase in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen occurs with A) hyperthermia.
B) shift to the right.
C) elevated PCO .
D) shift to the left.
Q3) The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is A) volume expansion with saline.
B) measures to improve oxygenation.
C) phlebotomy.
D) chemotherapy.
Q4) Excessive red cell lysis can be detected by measuring the serum A) hemoglobin.
B) methemoglobin.
C) bilirubin.
D) erythropoietin.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment for hemophilia A includes
A) heparin administration.
B) factor IX replacement.
C) factor VIII replacement.
D) platelet transfusion.
Q2) A deficiency of von Willebrand factor impairs
A) activation of the coagulation cascade.
B) platelet aggregation.
C) platelet adhesion to injured tissue.
D) platelet production.
Q3) Widespread activation of the clotting cascade secondary to massive trauma is called
A) hemophilia B.
B) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
C) Hageman disease.
D) idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.
Q4) Hemophilia B is also known as ________ disease.
Q5) The ________ is responsible for the synthesis of coagulation factors, with the exception of part of factor VIII.
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical finding is indicative of compartment syndrome?
A) Peripheral edema
B) Absent peripheral pulses
C) Redness and swelling
D) Atrophy of distal tissues
Q2) When systemic vascular resistance is decreased, blood flow
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) stays the same.
D) moves to the extremities.
Q3) Which changes in the circulatory system occur in the older adult?
A) Increased baroreceptor function
B) Increased response to hypertensive stimuli
C) Increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
D) Decreased afterload
E) Decreased elasticity of vessel walls
Q4) The relationship between blood flow and resistance is a(n)________ one.
Q5) A(n)________ is a stationary blood clot formed within a vessel or a chamber of the heart.
Q6) Venules are composed of ________ tissue.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is ____________.
Q2) It can be explained to a patient that high blood pressure increases the risk of A) stroke.
B) renal disease.
C) diabetes.
D) ischemic heart disease.
E) liver disease.
Q3) What results when systemic blood pressure is increased?
A) Hypovolemia
B) Decreased cardiac output
C) Vasoconstriction
D) Decreased vascular resistance
Q4) The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in
A) non-Hispanic white adults.
B) Mexican-American adults.
C) non-Hispanic black adults.
D) Asian children.
Q5) ________ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration.
Q6) The ingestion of certain drugs, foods, or chemicals can lead to ____________.
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true about blood flow from the atria?
A) Occurs primarily during systole, because perfusion pressure is high
B) Is controlled primarily by the autonomic nervous system
C) Is increased with elevated right atrial pressure
D) Occurs primarily during ventricular diastole
Q2) At very high heart rates, cardiac output
A) decreases.
B) increases.
C) stays the same.
D) reverses.
Q3) An increase in intracellular calcium ion results in myocardial contraction, because calcium
A) activates membrane calcium pumps.
B) binds troponin, causing actin-binding sites to be exposed.
C) increases affinity of myosin for actin cross-bridge sites.
D) promotes ATP synthesis.
Q4) A requirement for rhythmicity is that the cell membrane has channels that automatically open during phase ________.
Q5) The R wave is responsible for ________ depolarization.
Q6) A standard ECG has ________ leads.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of A) chronic intravenous drug abuse.
B) viral infection with herpes virus.
C) b-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
D) cardiomyopathy.
Q2) A patient with a history of myocardial infarction continues to complain of intermittent chest pain brought on by exertion and relieved by rest.The likely cause of this pain is
A) stable angina.
B) myocardial infarction.
C) coronary vasospasm.
D) unstable angina.
Q3) An example of an acyanotic heart defect is
A) tetralogy of Fallot.
B) transposition of the great arteries.
C) ventricular septal defect.
D) all right-to-left shunt defects.
Q4) __________ is a congenital malformation that results in the formation of one large vessel that receives blood from both the right and left ventricles.
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Left-sided heart failure is characterized by
A) pulmonary congestion.
B) decreased systemic vascular resistance.
C) jugular vein distention.
D) peripheral edema.
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with normal ejection fraction.This patient is most likely characterized by a(n)
A) elderly woman without a previous history of MI.
B) middle-aged man with a previous history of MI.
C) young female athlete with cardiomegaly.
D) young sedentary male with a high-stress job.
Q3) An abnormally wide (more than 0.10 second)QRS complex is characteristic of
A) paroxysmal atrial tachycardia.
B) supraventricular tachycardia.
C) junctional escape rhythm.
D) premature ventricular complexes.
Q4) First-degree block is identified by a prolonged ________.
Q5) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in ________.
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) The progressive stage of hypovolemic shock is characterized by A) tachycardia.
B) hypertension.
C) lactic acidosis.
D) cardiac failure.
Q2) A patient presenting with fever, hypotension, and lactic acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of shock?
A) Cardiogenic
B) Septic
C) Anaphylactic
D) Neurogenic
Q3) Administration of a vasodilator to a patient in shock would be expected to A) decrease vascular resistance.
B) increase contractility.
C) decrease left ventricular afterload.
D) increase tissue perfusion.
Q4) A type of shock that includes brain trauma that results in depression of the vasomotor center is ____________.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true about lung compliance?
A) Represents lung expandability
B) Decreases in the elderly
C) Can be decreased by obesity, abdominal distention, pregnancy
D) Is decreased in emphysema
E) Is affected by body position
Q2) Right-sided heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension is also called
A) diastolic heart failure.
B) high output failure.
C) coronary disease.
D) cor pulmonale.
Q3) An increase in filtration of fluid from the pulmonary capillaries into the interstitium occurs with ________ pressure.
A) increased capillary colloid
B) increased capillary hydrostatic
C) decreased capillary hydrostatic
D) decreased interstitial colloid
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Asthma is categorized as a(n)
A) restrictive pulmonary disorder.
B) infective pulmonary disorder.
C) obstructive pulmonary disorder.
D) type of acute tracheobronchial obstruction.
Q2) When exposed to inhaled allergens, a patient with asthma produces large quantities of
A) IgG.
B) IgE.
C) IgA.
D) IgM.
Q3) All obstructive pulmonary disorders are characterized by A) resistance to airflow.
B) hyperresponsiveness.
C) decreased residual volumes.
D) decreased lung compliance.
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical manifestations of pleural effusion include A) dyspnea.
B) sharp pain in expiration.
C) productive cough.
D) diminished breath sounds.
E) a tracheal shift, if large.
Q2) A patient with flail chest will demonstrate
A) absence of chest movement with breaths.
B) no inspiratory breath sounds.
C) fluttering chest movements on expirations.
D) outward chest movement on expiration.
Q3) Empyema is defined as an
A) exudative bronchitis.
B) infection in the pleural space.
C) infection localized in the lung.
D) infection in the blood.
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25
Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electrolyte that has a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid is _____ ions.
A) sodium
B) phosphate
C) magnesium
D) potassium
Q2) A patient has a positive Chvostek sign.The nurse interprets this as a sign of A) hypercalcemia.
B) hypermagnesemia.
C) decreased neuromuscular excitability.
D) increased neuromuscular excitability.
Q3) Signs and symptoms of extracellular fluid volume excess include A) tachycardia.
B) increased serum sodium concentration.
C) bounding pulse.
D) increased hematocrit.
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26
Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two primary acid-base disorders that are present independently are referred to as
A) metabolic acidosis.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory alkalosis.
D) mixed acid-base imbalance.
Q2) The finding of ketones in the blood suggests that a person may have
A) metabolic acidosis.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) respiratory alkalosis.
Q3) A patient has been hospitalized several times in 6 months with severe ECV depletion and hypokalemia resulting from chronic laxative abuse.Which blood gas results should be relayed to the physician?
A) pH in high part of normal range, PaO normal, PaO normal, bicarbonate normal
B) pH in high part of normal range, PaO normal, PaO high, bicarbonate high
C) pH in low part of normal range, PaO normal, PaO low, bicarbonate low
D) pH in low part of normal range, PaO normal, PaO normal, bicarbonate normal
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factors that increase the glomerular filtration rate include
A) fluid volume excess.
B) increased hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman's capsule.
C) high oncotic pressure in glomerular capillary blood.
D) obstruction in the renal tubules.
Q2) The underlying mechanism which directly results in glycosuria is
A) filtration of glucose from the glomerulus.
B) exceeding the threshold for glucose reabsorption.
C) secretion of glucose into the distal tubule.
D) the mechanism is unknown.
Q3) Serum creatinine may be increased by A) carbohydrate intake.
B) fat intake.
C) muscle breakdown.
D) fluid intake.
Q4) The primary selectivity barrier for glomerular filtration is the A) glomerular basement membrane.
B) endothelial tight junctions.
C) epithelial fenestra.
D) mesangial cells.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physiology that explains the intermittent nature of pain caused by a kidney stone is that
A) ureters use peristalsis and gravity to move urine.
B) ureters insert into the bladder at an angle.
C) in men, the prostate gland surrounds the urethra.
D) in men, the urethra is longer than in women.
Q2) The most common type of renal stone is
A) uric acid.
B) calcium.
C) struvite.
D) cysteine.
Q3) Which condition is caused by a genetic defect?
A) Acute pyelonephritis
B) Hydroureter
C) Incontinence
D) Polycystic kidney disease
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prerenal acute kidney injury may be caused by A) severe hypotension.
B) glomerulonephritis.
C) bilateral kidney stones.
D) acute tubular necrosis.
Q2) Postrenal acute kidney injury may be caused by A) severe hypotension.
B) glomerulonephritis.
C) bilateral kidney stones.
D) acute tubular necrosis.
Q3) ________ is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.
Q4) The effect on the renal tubules during the postoliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis involves
A) reconstruction of the basement membrane.
B) blocking the tubule lumens by dead cells.
C) making the glomeruli patent again.
D) regeneration of the renal tubular epithelium.
Q5) The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI)is ________.
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has difficulty walking without assistance is incontinent of urine when help doesn't get to her quickly enough.The term for this type of incontinence is
A) extraurethral.
B) functional.
C) urge.
D) stress.
Q2) Cystitis symptoms include A) CVA tenderness.
B) suprapubic pain.
C) dysuria.
D) fever.
Q3) The direct cause of stress incontinence is A) the effect of aging.
B) pelvic muscle weakness.
C) neurologic conditions.
D) detrusor muscle overactivity.
Q4) Infection can lead to bladder ________ formation.
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31
Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Production of LH occurs in response to serum levels of A) estrogen.
B) prostate-specific antigen.
C) cortisol.
D) testosterone.
Q2) The activation of sperm after they enter the vagina is called A) flagellation.
B) ejaculation.
C) emission.
D) capacitation.
Q3) The thick covering of the ovum is called the ________.
Q4) Erectile function is most likely to be impaired if spinal cord injury occurs at A) L1-L2.
B) L2-L3.
C) S1-S2.
D) S2-S4.
Q5) The _________ nervous system mediates the process of ejaculation.
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cryptorchidism is
A) associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.
B) an extremely uncommon disorder.
C) rarely treated.
D) a consequence of gonorrhea.
Q2) The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis.The cancer is at what stage?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q3) Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by A) sustained, painful erection.
B) inability to retract the foreskin.
C) inability to achieve erection.
D) malpositioning of the urinary meatus.
Q4) The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as _______.
Q5) The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is
Q6) The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the ________ of the disease. Page 33
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the midpoint of the menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs in response to the A) increase in progesterone.
B) increase in luteinizing hormone and FSH.
C) decrease in estrogen.
D) decrease in gonadotropin.
Q2) From the time of fertilization until the end of the eighth week, the developing organism is referred to as the A) zygote.
B) fetus.
C) infant.
D) embryo.
Q3) Before the onset of menstruation, water retention and breast swelling is thought to be due to high levels of ________ stimulating the secretory cells of the breast.
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) hCG
D) oxytocin
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35
Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Absence of menstruation is called
A) amenorrhea.
B) metrorrhagia.
C) menorrhagia.
D) dysmenorrhea.
Q2) Endometriosis is a condition in which
A) the endometrium sloughs continuously.
B) ectopic endometrial tissue is present.
C) an abnormal Pap smear is diagnostic.
D) the endometrium proliferates and does not shed.
Q3) It is true that fibrocystic breast disease
A) commonly progresses to breast cancer.
B) may be exacerbated by methylxanthines.
C) is characterized by painless breast lumps.
D) is a contraindication for progesterone birth control pills.
Q4) Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the
A) cardinal ligaments.
B) abdominal organs.
C) cervix.
D) vaginal musculature.
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Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Central nervous system degeneration, blindness, and paresis are associated with untreated
A) HSV.
B) LGV.
C) syphilis.
D) gonorrhea.
Q2) Herpes lesions are fluid-filled vesicles that appear __________days after infection.
A) 1 to 2
B) 3 to 7
C) 7 to 10
D) 10 to 14
Q3) Transmission of Chlamydia during birth may result in ________, or infection of the eyes in the newborn.
A) neonatal jaundice
B) ophthalmia neonatorum
C) neonatal conjunctivitis
D) erythema neonatorum
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Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most nutrient digestion and absorption occurs in the A) stomach.
B) small intestine.
C) large intestine.
D) cecum.
Q2) The primary stimulus for pancreatic secretion is A) gastrin.
B) histamine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) secretin.
Q3) Parasympathetic stimulation of the stomach would A) decrease motility.
B) decrease hydrogen chloride secretion.
C) inhibit acidity.
D) stimulate motility.
Q4) Chief cells secrete A) pepsinogen.
B) hydrogen chloride.
C) intrinsic factor.
D) gastrin.
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epigastric pain that is relieved by food is suggestive of A) pancreatitis.
B) cardiac angina.
C) gastric ulcer.
D) dysphagia.
Q2) A patient with chronic gastritis would likely be tested for A) Helicobacter pylori.
B) occult blood.
C) lymphocytes.
D) herpes simplex.
Q3) Fecal leukocyte screening would be indicated in a patient with suspected A) lactose intolerance.
B) enterocolitis.
C) laxative abuse.
D) giardiasis.
Q4) Premature infants are at greater risk for developing A) necrotizing enterocolitis.
B) pseudomembranous colitis.
C) appendicitis.
D) diverticular disease.
Page 39
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who may be at risk for development of cholesterol gallstones include
A) high spinal cord injuries.
B) patients receiving total parenteral nutrition.
C) patients receiving chemotherapy.
D) patients with rapid weight loss.
E) pregnant women.
Q2) Which digestive enzyme is secreted from the intestinal mucosa during a meal?
A) Amylase
B) Cholecystokinin
C) Trypsinogen
D) Lecithin
E) Lipase
F) Secretin
Q3) Patients with acute pancreatitis are generally made NPO and may require continuous gastric suctioning in order to
A) prevent abdominal distention.
B) remove the usual stimuli for pancreatic secretion.
C) prevent hyperglycemia associated with loss of insulin secretion.
D) prevent mechanical obstruction of the intestine.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coma, no liver flap
A)Grade 1
B)Grade 2
C)Grade 3
D)Grade 4
Q2) Drowsy, clear behavioral changes, liver flap present
A)Grade 1
B)Grade 2
C)Grade 3
D)Grade 4
Q3) A patient being treated for hepatic encephalopathy could be expected to receive a(n)________diet.
A) low-protein and high-fiber
B) high-protein and high-carbohydrate
C) high-sodium
D) unrestricted
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Page 41
Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What suppresses the normal secretion of growth hormone?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Somatostatin
C) Somatomedin
D) Amino acids
Q2) Cortisol is produced in the zona ________ of the adrenal cortex.
A) glomerulosa
B) reticularis
C) fasciculata
D) medulla
Q3) The most common mechanism regulating hormone production and secretion is
A) positive feedback.
B) negative feedback.
C) positive reinforcement.
D) negative reinforcement.
Q4) Growth hormone has several effects on the body, including
A) decreasing plasma glucose level.
B) increasing lean body mass.
C) enhancing deposition of fat.
D) depressing immune function.
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radioactive iodine treatment is the therapy of choice in patients with Graves disease.The patient should be expected to
A) achieve full recovery after treatment.
B) need short-term thyroid replacement therapy.
C) need lifelong thyroid replacement therapy.
D) receive lifelong iodine treatment.
Q2) Which are major classifications of deficiencies in growth hormone secretion?
A) Increased IGF-1
B) Decreased GH secretion
C) Defective GH action
D) Decreased IGG secretion
E) Defective IGF-1 generation
Q3) A clinical finding that is consistent with a diagnosis of adrenocortical insufficiency is A) hypokalemia.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) hypertension.
D) moon face.
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43
Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are complications of diabetes mellitus that are microvascular?
A) Cardiovascular disease
B) Retinopathy
C) Nephropathy
D) Neuropathy
E) Stroke
Q2) The underlying pathogenic mechanism for type 1 diabetes is
A) pancreatic b-cell destruction.
B) lack of insulin receptors.
C) lack of exercise and chronic overeating.
D) impaired glucose transport into cells.
Q3) The breakdown of stored glycogen in the liver and muscles is called
A) glycolysis.
B) glycogenesis.
C) glycogenolysis.
D) gluconeogenesis.
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Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) When released into the circulation, fatty acids are bound to ________ for assimilation into tissue.
A) serum IgG
B) total protein
C) albumin
D) creatinine
Q2) Malnutrition affecting the respiratory system can lead to
A) increased respiratory function.
B) increased surfactant release.
C) increased vital capacity.
D) respiratory failure.
Q3) An immobile patient should be treated with an extra ________ grams of protein daily.
A) 2 to 4
B) 4 to 6
C) 7 to 9
D) 10 to 15
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood flow to the brain is interrupted with the occlusion of which artery?
A) Distal aortic
B) Pulmonary
C) Vertebral
D) Left anterior descending
Q2) Activation of touch receptors on the left side of the body is transmitted primarily to the ________ cortex.
A) right somatosensory
B) occipital
C) left temporal
D) right motor
Q3) Neurons with one dendrite and one axon are
A) unipolar.
B) bipolar.
C) dipolar.
D) multipolar.
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of clinical findings indicates the poorest neurologic functioning?
A) Spontaneous eye opening, movement to command, oriented to self only
B) Eyes open to light touch on shoulder, pupils briskly reactive to light bilaterally
C) Assumes decorticate posture with light touch, no verbal response
D) No eye opening, responds to painful stimulus by withdrawing
Q2) An example of inappropriate treatment for head trauma would be
A) head elevation.
B) free water restriction.
C) hypoventilation.
D) bed rest.
Q3) Secondary injury after head trauma refers to
A) brain injury due to the initial trauma.
B) focal areas of bleeding.
C) brain injury due to the body's response to tissue damage.
D) injury as a result of medical therapy.
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is recommended that women of childbearing age take folic acid daily for prevention of
A) neural tube defects.
B) seizure disorders.
C) cerebral palsy.
D) hydrocephalus.
Q2) Parkinson disease is associated with A) demyelination of CNS neurons.
B) a pyramidal nerve tract lesion.
C) insufficient production of acetylcholine in the basal ganglia.
D) a deficiency of dopamine in the substantia nigra.
Q3) A patient who experiences early symptoms of muscle twitching, cramping, and stiffness of the hands may be demonstrating signs of A) Guillain-Barré syndrome.
B) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
C) Parkinson disease.
D) hydrocephalus.
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Expected management of acute otitis media includes
A) surgical removal of debris in the middle ear.
B) placement of ventilation tubes in the tympanic membrane.
C) antibiotic therapy.
D) adenoidectomy.
Q2) The nurse caring for an individual with vision impairment should be prepared to
A) keep the patient on bedrest to avoid injury.
B) speak to the patient with a clear, loud voice.
C) announcing himself or herself at all interactions.
D) provide as much bright light as possible.
Q3) Myopia is due to an error of light refraction in which
A) light rays are scattered as they pass through the cornea.
B) the focal point of an image is behind the retina.
C) far vision is impaired.
D) accommodation is impaired.
Q4) Ménière disease is characterized by
A) bilateral hearing impairment.
B) vertigo in association with hearing loss.
C) middle ear infection.
D) ossification of bones in the middle ear.
Page 49
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presenting with a severe, pounding headache accompanied by nausea and photophobia is likely experiencing a ________ headache.
A) tension
B) migraine
C) sinus
D) chronic
Q2) The physiologic mechanisms involved in the pain phenomenon are termed A) nociception.
B) sensitization.
C) neurotransmission.
D) proprioception.
Q3) Pain is thought of as
A) a subjective experience that is difficult to measure objectively.
B) associated with changes in vital signs reflecting its intensity.
C) experienced in the same way by all individuals.
D) always the result of tissue damage that activates nociceptors.
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The symptoms of hallucinations and paranoia that accompany schizophrenia are thought to be due to altered neurotransmitter activity in the brain, which results in excessive ________ receptor activation.
A) D2
B) serotonin
C) a-adrenergic
D) acetylcholine
Q2) The assessment of a client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia confirms good cognitive function and reveals affect that is animated.The client is open about describing the voices and the content of their comments, but demonstrates a disorganized thought process.These findings suggest that
A) "negative" psychotic symptoms predominate.
B) there is a high risk for suicidal behaviors.
C) drug therapy is likely to be ineffective.
D) "positive" psychotic symptoms predominate.
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements are true about post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
A) PTSD occurs up to 1 month after an event.
B) PTSD is an acute condition.
C) Remission may take as long as 3 to 4 years.
D) Women appear to take longer to recover from PTSD than men.
E) Acute stress disorder and PTSD are precipitated by a traumatic event.
Q2) In individuals dealing with obsessive-compulsive disorder, ____ are most bothered by both obsessions and compulsions.
A) 20%
B) 28%
C) 50%
D) 90%
Q3) An anxiety disorder that is precipitated by a traumatic event is known as A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) panic disorder.
D) phobia.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A concentric contraction results in A) muscle shortening.
B) no change in muscle length.
C) muscle lengthening.
D) muscle damage.
Q2) When oxygen for muscle activity from the respiratory vascular systems is insufficient for muscle activity, the body breaks down glucose, which results in A) hypoglycemia.
B) lactic acid buildup in muscle.
C) a large energy source.
D) exhaustion.
Q3) Radicular pain is pain caused by a A) tissue injury.
B) compressed nerve.
C) fracture of long bones.
D) meniscal tear.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) People who have osteoporosis are at risk for A) rhabdomyolysis.
B) osteomyelitis.
C) osteomalacia.
D) bone fractures.
Q2) The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called A) subluxation.
B) subjugation
C) sublimation.
D) dislocation.
Q3) A fracture in which bone breaks into two or more fragments is referred to as A) comminuted.
B) open.
C) greenstick.
D) stress.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Manifestations of osteoarthritis include
A) nodules on joints of the hands.
B) crepitus with joint movement.
C) pain that is worse upon arising in the morning.
D) stiffness that worsens with joint use.
E) narrowing of joint spaces.
Q2) The earliest manifestation of scleroderma is
A) thick, tight, shiny skin.
B) skin hyper/hypopigmentation.
C) renal impairment.
D) Raynaud phenomenon.
Q3) Enteropathic arthritis is associated with A) irritable bowel syndrome.
B) inflammatory bowel disease.
C) chronic constipation.
D) chronic diarrhea.
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which skin disorder is thought to be caused by an autoimmune reaction and is characterized by bullous eruptions?
A) Pemphigus
B) Psoriasis
C) Pityriasis rosea
D) Lichen planus
Q2) A 4-year-old is brought to the clinic for evaluation of dry, scaly, itchy patches on the face, antecubital areas, and behind the ears and knees.The skin is dry overall, and there is evidence of scratching.This is likely a case of
A) impetigo.
B) atopic dermatitis
C) psoriasis.
D) scabies.
Q3) A small blister is referred to as a A) nodule.
B) pustule.
C) macule.
D) vesicle.
E) papule.
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Page 56
Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary aim of burn wound management is to prevent A) trauma to burned tissue.
B) microbial colonization of the wound.
C) the wound from drying out.
D) premature wound closure.
Q2) The first priority when rescuing a burned individual is
A) establishing a patent airway.
B) removing his or her clothing.
C) eliminating the source of the burn.
D) covering the wounds with wet sheets.
Q3) The most common cause of burn injuries in children is A) house fires.
B) cigarette burns.
C) scalding with hot water.
D) contact with chemical agents.
Q4) The third element essential to survival after major burn injury is A) excision of the burn followed by skin grafting.
B) frequent wound debridement to encourage wound healing.
C) hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
D) continuous topical antibiotic therapy.
Page 57
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