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Medical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the principles underlying human health, disease, and medical treatment. This course covers core topics such as human anatomy, physiology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology, and genetics. Through lectures, laboratory work, and case studies, students gain a foundational understanding of how the human body functions, the mechanisms leading to illness, and the scientific basis for diagnostic and therapeutic interventions. The course also emphasizes the importance of research, ethics, and evidence-based practice in advancing medical knowledge and improving patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Larsens Human Embryology 4th Edition by Gary C. Schoenwolf
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Q1) A child exhibiting early symptoms of progeria undergoes genetic testing.A gene coding for which protein is likely to be mutated?
A) Laminin
B) Fibronectin
C) Collagen
D) Lamin-A
E) Insulin
Answer: D
Q2) Which phase of embryogenesis is characterized by extensive cell rearrangements that result in formation of a multilayered embryo?
A) Organogenesis
B) Cleavage
C) Oogenesis
D) Spermatogenesis
E) Fertilization
F) Gastrulation
Answer: F
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Q1) A baby is diagnosed with Down syndrome shortly after birth.Which of the following events occurred abnormally during prenatal development?
A) Anaphase of mitosis
B) Metaphase of mitosis
C) Telophase of mitosis
D) Anaphase of meiosis
E) Metaphase of spermatogenesis
Answer: D
Q2) A researcher knocks out expression of the POU domain transcription factor Oct4 in the early epiblast of a mouse embryo.Which cell type would you expect to be affected?
A) Neural crest cells
B) Neural plate cells
C) Mesodermal cells
D) Primordial germ cells
E) Endodermal cells
Answer: D
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Q1) A researcher inactivates the Sox17 gene in an animal model.As a result of this,one of the primary germ layers fails to form.What germ layer is most likely to be affected?
A) Ectoderm
B) Somatic mesoderm
C) Splanchnic mesoderm
D) Extraembryonic mesoderm
E) Endoderm
Answer: E
Q2) A young child is diagnosed with Angelman syndrome,a syndrome in which a deletion occurs in a portion of the long arm of chromosome 15.Both Angelman syndrome and another syndrome involve the same deletion,but the two syndromes differ depending on whether the defect was inherited from the mother or father.What is the related syndrome?
A) Prader-Willi syndrome
B) Down syndrome
C) Treacher Collins syndrome
D) Branchio-oto-renal syndrome
E) CHARGE syndrome
Answer: A
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Q1) A researcher inactivates Lefty1,a gene expressed in the anterior visceral endoderm of the mouse.What effect would inactivation of this gene have on the gastrula-stage embryo?
A) The epiblast becomes abnormally thickened throughout its cranial-caudal extent.
B) The primitive streak fails to form.
C) The endoderm fails to form.
D) The neural plate fails to form.
E) Extra primitive streaks form.
Q2) Which tissues ingress through the cranial end of the primitive streak?
A) Prospective neural plate
B) Prospective cardiogenic mesoderm
C) Prospective extraembryonic mesoderm
D) Prospective surface ectoderm
E) Prospective lateral plate mesoderm
F) Prospective placodal ectoderm
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Q1) A researcher inactivates a gene that affects the dorsal-ventral patterning of the neural tube.Which gene product is known to play such a role?
A) Notch
B) Neurogenin
C) Shh
D) Pdgf
E) Vegf
Q2) A woman has a child with spina bifida aperta.She is planning to have another child and is concerned that the second child will also have spina bifida aperta.What should her physician advise her to take daily to reduce the chances that the second child will have spina bifida aperta?
A) Aspirin
B) Warfarin
C) Accutane
D) Folic acid
E) Calcium supplements
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Q1) A girl is born with the following facial features: microcephaly,short palpebral fissures,epicanthal folds,flat midface,and micrognathia.What might be the cause of this constellation of abnormal features?
A) In utero exposure to alcohol
B) In utero exposure to Accutane
C) In utero exposure to chicken pox
D) Oligohydramnios
E) Polyhydramnios
Q2) A researcher generates a mutation in a Drosophila embryo that results in the transformation of the leg into an antenna.Which type of gene was likely mutated?
A) Pair-rule
B) Gap
C) Homeotic selector
D) Segment polarity
E) Maternal effect genes
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Q1) A family is delighted to learn that the mother is expecting twins.At the birth of the twin girls,the placenta and extraembryonic membranes are carefully examined,and it is concluded that the twins are likely dizygotic.Which finding would support this conclusion?
A) Separate amnions, chorions, umbilical cords, and placentae are present.
B) Common amnion, chorion, umbilical cord, and placenta are present.
C) Common amnion, chorion, and placenta are present, along with separate umbilical cords.
D) Separate amnions and umbilical cords are present along with a common amnion, chorion, and placenta.
E) Separate amnions, chorions, and umbilical cords are present, along with a common placenta.
Q2) A developing fetus is diagnosed with congenital adrenal hyperplasia.What treatment would be appropriate for this condition?
A) Administer folic acid to the mother.
B) Administer propranolol to the mother.
C) Administer cyanocobalamin to the mother.
D) Do a fetal blood transfusion.
E) Administer dexamethasone to the mother.
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Q1) Postnatally,hair is continually lost and replaced.In which region of the hair are the progenitors of the new hair cells located?
A) Inner root sheath
B) Bulge
C) Outer root sheath
D) Hair matrix
Q2) FOXN1 mutations in humans and mice result in the loss of hair.What stage of hair development is affected?
A) Placode or hair germ
B) Hair peg
C) Bulbous hair peg
D) Keratinization of the hair shaft
E) Loss of the epithelial strand between the bulge and dermal papillae
Q3) Sweat glands use which mechanism of secretion?
A) Apocrine
B) Eccrine
C) Holocrine
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Q1) The nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc arises from which structure?
A) Sclerotome
B) Notochord
C) Myotome
D) Dermomyotome
E) Lateral plate mesoderm
Q2) In humans,there are a spectrum of syndromes,including spondylocostal dysostosis and Klippel-Feil anomaly,that are characterized by vertebral and rib abnormalities.Genetic mapping studies have identified mutations in several genes that affect one growth factor signaling pathway.Which is the pathway affected?
A) FGF
B) BMP
C) WNT
D) Retinoic acid
E) NOTCH
Q3) The skeletal structures of the face develop from which tissue?
A) Neural crest cells
B) Mesoderm
C) Neuroepithelium
D) Endoderm
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Q1) Weaver mice provide insight into mechanisms of cerebellar development.What gene is mutated in these mice?
A) Girk2
B) Phosphatidylinositol transfer protein alpha
C) Calcium channel alpha(1A) subunit
D) Zic2
E) Ephrin-A2
Q2) A researcher interested in patterning of the early neural tube identifies a new secreted factor expressed in the floor plate.Assuming that the newly identified factor plays a role in patterning,which axis of the developing neural tube would you expect to be perturbed if this factor is inactivated?
A) Cranial-caudal
B) Dorsal-ventral
C) Medial-lateral
D) Right-left
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Q1) A patient is diagnosed with neurofibromatosis type 1.What type of gene is mutated in this condition?
A) Transcription factor
B) Growth factor
C) Extracellular adhesion molecule
D) Tumor suppressor gene
E) Cytoskeletal protein
Q2) A child is diagnosed with congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis.The receptor for which growth factor is mutated in this condition?
A) Epidermal growth factor
B) Transforming growth factor beta
C) Scatter factor
D) Fibroblast growth factor
E) Nerve growth factor
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Q1) In tissue recombination experiments in culture it has been shown that branching morphogenesis of the lung involves epithelial-mesenchymal interactions.What is the source of the lung epithelium?
A) Ectoderm
B) Somatic mesoderm
C) Splanchnic mesoderm
D) Somitic mesoderm
E) Endoderm
Q2) A baby with a severe diaphragmatic hernia with herniation of visceral into the pleural cavity also has other anomalies of the respiratory system.What anomaly is likely to be present?
A) Pulmonary agenesis
B) Pulmonary hypoplasia
C) Pulmonary hyperplasia
D) Tracheoesophageal fistula
E) Hyaline membrane disease
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Q1) Why is the cardiogenic area limited to the lateral plate mesoderm?
A) Because Bmp released from the overlying ectoderm restricts Gata4 expression to lateral plate mesoderm.
B) Because Chordin released from the notochord limits Bmp signaling to the more lateral mesoderm.
C) Because Nkx2.5 expression is restricted to paraxial mesoderm.
D) Because Wnt signaling stimulates Bmp release from the overlying ectoderm.
Q2) When exerting herself,a 2-year-old female patient develops blue-colored lips and clubbed fingers,gasps for air,and breathes heavily.Prior to this age,the patient showed no signs of illness.Clinical tests reveal only pronounced right ventricular hypertrophy accompanied by evidence of pulmonary congestion.What is the most likely cause?
A) Patient has a ventricular septal defect.
B) Patient suffers from transposition of the great vessels.
C) Patient has tetralogy of Fallot.
D) Patient has aortic valvular atresia.
E) Patient has an abnormal atrioventricular node.
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Q1) In the fetus,oxygenated blood coming from the placenta mixes with fetal systemic blood in all of the following places EXCEPT:
A) Between the junction of the ductus venosum and inferior vena cava
B) Within the right atrium
C) Within the ductus arteriosus
D) In the left atrium
E) At the junction between the dorsal aorta and umbilical artery
Q2) Loss-of-function mutations in what gene(s) can cause pharyngeal aortic arch defects?
A) Tbx1
B) Fgf8
C) Endothelin converting enzyme-1 (Ece1)
D) Pitx2c
E) All of the above
Q3) What embryonic structure(s) form the right subclavian artery?
A) Aortic arch 3 and dorsal aorta
B) Only the seventh intersegmental artery
C) Aortic arch 6 and dorsal aorta
D) Aortic arch 4, dorsal aorta, and seventh intersegmental artery
E) Aortic arch 3 and the seventh intersegmental artery
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Q1) What forms the definitive anorectal canal?
A) It is completely derived from the distal hindgut.
B) Two thirds of the anorectal canal is derived from the hindgut, and one third is from the anal pit.
C) It is completely derived from the anal pit.
D) It is entirely derived from the cloacal membrane.
E) It is entirely derived from the urogenital sinus.
Q2) Endodermal contact with the notochord during early GI development is essential for the development of what organ?
A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Anorectal sphincter
D) Gallbladder
Q3) What cells serve as the progenitors of hepatocytes?
A) Foregut endodermal cells
B) Mesodermal cells of septum transversum
C) Endothelial precursor cells
D) Cholangiocytes
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Q1) Mutations in particular genes can cause or increase the risk of specific congenital anomalies of the urogenital system.Which gene when mutated is most likely to be responsible for autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?
A) CFTR
B) AMH RECEPTOR
C) WT1
D) 5 F.-REDUCTASE
E) PDK1
Q2) A young mother brings her 5-year-old girl who is still in diapers to the pediatrician's office.The mother complains that the infant is constantly wetting her diapers even though the girl is potty-trained.Upon examination,you notice what appears to be urine coming from the vagina through a small orifice located in the upper vaginal wall.What is your initial diagnosis?
A) Rectovaginal fistula
B) Ectopic ureter
C) Rectovesicular fistula
D) Rectourethral fistula
E) Unicornate uterus
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Q1) The muscles of mastication,excluding the tongue muscles,arise from the mesoderm of which structure(s)?
A) First pharyngeal arches
B) Second pharyngeal arches
C) Occipital somites
D) Neural crest cells
E) Notochord
Q2) Researchers have shown that the Hox genes are important for patterning the pharyngeal arches.Which of the Hox genes is essential for the specification of the second pharyngeal arch and when genetically inactivated in mice,result in the homeotic transformation of the second pharyngeal arch into one with first pharyngeal arch identity?
A) Hoxa1
B) Hoxa2
C) Hoxa3
D) Hoxb1
E) Hoxb2
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Q1) Development of the sensory regions of the inner ear involves the formation of hair cells and supporting cells by the process of lateral inhibition controlled by Notch signaling.How would overexpression of the transcription factors Hes1 and 5,which are modulated by Notch signaling,be expected to affect the number of hair cells or supporting cells?
A) The overall number of supporting cells would increase.
B) The overall number of supporting cells would decrease.
C) The overall number of hair cells would increase.
D) The overall number of hair cells would decrease.
E) No change would occur in the number of hair cells or supporting cells.
Q2) Which is the most frequent genetic syndrome that affects the retina?
A) Osteoporosis-pseudoglioma syndrome
B) Leber congenital amaurosis syndrome
C) Retinitis pigmentosa
D) Familial exudative vitreoretinopathy
E) Norrie disease
Q3) The prosensory region in the saccule forms which structure(s)?
A) Cristae
B) Organ of Corti
C) Maculae
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Q1) Which signaling factor is essential for patterning of the limb across the cranial-caudal axis?
A) Shh
B) Wnt7a
C) Wnt5a
D) Fgf8
E) Bmp2
Q2) The term arachnodactyly specifically refers to which defect?
A) Absence of the entire limb
B) Absence of part of the stylopod
C) Presence of extra digits
D) Fusion of digits
E) Absence of one or more digits
F) Elongation of the digits
Q3) Nail-patella syndrome is caused by mutations in which gene?
A) WNT7a
B) ENGRAILED-1
C) FGF8
D) NOGGIN
E) LMX1B
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