Medical Office Administration
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Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Medical Office Administration is a comprehensive course designed to prepare students for roles in managing healthcare office environments. The curriculum covers essential topics such as patient scheduling, medical billing and coding, health records management, insurance processing, confidentiality laws like HIPAA, effective communication, and the use of specialized medical software. Students gain practical skills to handle administrative duties efficiently, interact professionally with patients and healthcare providers, and maintain smooth operations in various medical settings. This course equips learners with the knowledge and competencies necessary for a successful career in medical office administration.
Recommended Textbook
Todays Medical Assistant Clinical and Administrative Procedures 2nd Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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50 Chapters
3010 Verified Questions
3010 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Health Care System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of primary care seeks to balance the structure and function of the body through manipulation of muscles and joints?
A) Podiatry
B) Osteopathy
C) Pediatrics
D) Gynecology
Answer: B
Q2) If the office uses paper medical records, where are medical records of patients who have been seen within the past year usually stored?
A) In a medical records area near the reception area
B) In the basement of the medical office building
C) In an off-site medical record storage area that is within 2 miles of the office
D) In a special medical records area of the nearest local hospital
Answer: A
Q3) A medical assistant's scope of practice is strictly defined by federal law.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Professional Medical Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which areas of specialization offer certification in addition to a general certification in medical assisting?
A) Podiatric medical assistant
B) Medical administrative specialist
C) Certified coding specialist-physician-based
D) Ophthalmic medical assistant
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Q2) Neatness and grooming are important not only for professionalism, but also for reasons of health and safety.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which medical assistant is likely to be most successful?
A) One who rushes through tasks to finish everything quickly
B) One who uses every spare moment calling his or her child's daycare center
C) One who can remain calm when things do not go as planned
D) One who places the most emphasis on accurate paperwork
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Ethics and Law for the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most individual states have passed legislation defining a Patient Bill of Rights, based on the federal Consumer Bill of Rights and Responsibilities adopted in 1998. Which of the following is NOT considered a component of patient rights?
A) Right to refuse treatment
B) Right to continuity of care
C) Right to compensation in cases of malpractice
D) Right to select a physician
Answer: C
Q2) What is the name for the party against whom the lawsuit is brought, whether this is a doctor, medical facility, or hospital?
A) Accused
B) Defendant
C) Contractor
D) Plaintiff
Answer: B
Q3) In order to be legal, a contract must be written, signed, and notarized.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Interacting With Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the United States, the typical personal distance or comfort zone for conversation with others is
A) 3-4 feet
B) 1-2 feet
C) 6-7 feet
D) While touching
Q2) You were trying to educate Mr. Wilson about an upcoming procedure and post-surgical care. Unfortunately, because he skipped lunch that day and his blood sugar was low, he was not able to learn the information that would help to decrease his anxiety about the procedure. Mr. Wilson is demonstrating an example of
A) Impaired hearing
B) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
C) Poor listening skills
D) Self-actualization
Q3) The best response when dealing with an angry patient is to escort them out of the office and reschedule their appointment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Recognize the elements of oral communication using a sender-receiver process
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cells secrete mucus?
A) Goblet cells
B) Phagocytes
C) Fibroblasts
D) Mast cells
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of the integumentary system?
A) Protects underlying tissue from injury
B) Protects against water loss
C) Contains sense receptors
D) Helps in temperature regulation
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of bone?
A) Forms the framework of the body
B) Protects underlying tissues
C) Production of antibodies
D) Serves as an attachment for muscles
Q4) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q5) Identify body systems
Q6) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q7) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following produces hair?
A) Sebaceous gland
B) Stratum granulosum
C) Hair follicle
D) Sudoriferous gland
Q2) The cuticle of the hair is made up of
A) Melanocytes
B) Keratinized cells
C) Simple squamous epithelial tissue
D) Elastic fibers
Q3) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q4) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q5) Which of the following body areas have the most sweat glands?
A) Lips and cheeks
B) External genitalia and thighs
C) Neck and chest
D) Palms of hands and soles of feet
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
Q7) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the lifespan
Q8) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the tailbone?
A) Sacrum
B) Coccyx
C) Ileum
D) Lumbar
Q2) Which of the following is made up of flat bones?
A) Wrist bones
B) Sternum
C) Vertebrae
D) Bones of the cranium
Q3) Which of the following is a synarthrotic joint?
A) Intervertebral disk
B) Symphysis pubis
C) Suture in the skull
D) Thumb joint
Q4) Which of the following forms the upper jaw?
A) Maxillary bones
B) Nasal bones
C) Mandible
D) Zygomatic arch
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Chapter 8: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following stimulates skeletal muscle to contract?
A) Motor neurons
B) Dendrites
C) Sensory neurons
D) Mitochondria
Q2) The function of the quadriceps femoris muscle is to
A) Extend the leg
B) Flex the thigh
C) Rotate the leg
D) Adduct the thigh
Q3) Medical Terminology
Q4) Which of the following is characteristic of skeletal muscle?
A) It can respond to a stimulus from the nervous system
B) It can contract to produce movement
C) It is attached to the bones of the skeleton
D) It is under voluntary control
E) All of the above
Q5) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q6) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q7) List major organs in each body system
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Chapter 9: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What makes up the white matter of the brain?
A) Unmyelinated fibers
B) Neuron cell bodies
C) Myelinated fibers
D) Gyri
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of reflexes?
A) Coughing
B) Reaction to pain stimuli
C) Sneezing
D) Chewing
Q3) Which of the following divides the cerebrum into two hemispheres?
A) Transverse fissure
B) Central sulcus
C) Longitudinal fissure
D) Sagittal sulcus
Q4) The cerebral cortex consists of
A) Gray matter
B) Myelinated nerve fibers
C) White matter
D) Ganglia
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Chapter 10: The Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eyelashes
A)The space between the lens and retina
B)Inner layer of the eye that contains rods and cones
C)Space between the cornea and lens
D)Keeps perspiration out of the eye
E)Helps keep foreign objects from entering the eye
F)Mucous membrane that lines the eyelid and covers the front of the eye except for the cornea
G)Traps foreign particles and prevents them from entering the eye
H)Produces tears
I)White part of the eye
J)Pigmented vascular middle layer of the eye
K)Colored part of the eye
L)Opening in the eye
Q2) What type of receptors do extreme temperatures stimulate?
A) Heat receptors
B) Pain receptors
C) Cold receptors
D) Pressure receptors
Q3) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 11: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sex hormones are made up of
A) Steroids
B) Minerals
C) Proteins
D) Carbohydrates
Q2) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cortisol?
A) Increases blood glucose levels
B) Secreted in increased amounts in times of prolonged stress
C) Stimulates growth of bone and muscles
D) Counteracts the inflammatory response
Q4) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q6) The thyroid gland consists of two lobes which are located on either side of the
A) Liver
B) Esophagus
C) Trachea
D) Pancreas
Q7) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q8) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 12: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Has a round or slightly indented nucleus that almost completely fills the cell and stains a deep purplish blue
A)Neutrophils
B)Eosinophils
C)Basophils
D)Lymphocytes
E)Monocytes
Q2) Which of the following causes an increase in the number of neutrophils?
A) Parasitic infections
B) Viral infections
C) Acute infections
D) Fungal infections
Q3) The movement of leukocytes through a capillary wall and into the tissues is known as
A) Diffusion
B) Osmosis
C) Diapedesis
D) Filtration
Q4) Identify body systems
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of mucus in the respiratory tract?
A) Warms air entering from the outside
B) Destroys microorganisms
C) Traps foreign particles
D) Helps to equalize air pressure
Q2) The exchange of gases between the blood and tissue cells is known as
A) Inhalation
B) External respiration
C) Exhalation
D) Internal respiration
Q3) Internal nares
A)Air-filled cavities that reduce the weight of the skull
B)Bony ridges that project into the nasal cavity
C)Interior chamber of the nose
D)Divides the nose into two parts
E)Opening through which air enters the nasal cavity
F)Openings from the nasal cavity into the pharynx
G)Separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity
H)Posterior portion of the soft palate that helps direct food into the oropharynx
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Chapter 14: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes the release of gastric juice during the gastric phase of digestion?
A) Thinking about food
B) Smelling food
C) Presence of food in the stomach
D) Passage of chyme through the pyloric sphincter
Q2) Cementum
A)Visible portion of the tooth
B)Portion of the tooth embedded in the sockets of the mandible and maxilla
C)Small region in which the crown and root meet
D)Central core of the tooth
E)Consists of connective tissue, blood vessels, and nerves, and is located in the pulp cavity
F)The pulp cavity that is located in the root of the tooth
G)Opening in the root for nerves and blood vessels
H)Surrounds pulp cavity and forms the bulk of the tooth
I)Connective tissue that surrounds the dentin in the root
J)Firmly anchors the root in the socket
K)Surrounds the dentin in the crown of the tooth
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Chapter 15: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Renal pelvis
A)Functional unit of the kidney
B)Large cavity in the central region of the kidney that collects urine as it is produced
C)Triangular-shaped regions of the kidney that appear striated
D)Part of the renal cortex that extends into the spaces between adjacent pyramids
E)Connective tissue that holds the kidney in place
F)Thick layer of adipose tissue that surrounds each kidney
G)Tough fibrous connective tissue that encases each kidney
H)Indentation in the kidney
I)Outer reddish region of the kidney
J)Inner reddish brown region of the kidney
Q2) Which of the following does the urinary system NOT comprise?
A) Prostate gland
B) Kidneys
C) Ureters
D) Urinary bladder
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Chapter 16: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of spermatogonia?
A) They are immature cells.
B) They remain dormant until puberty.
C) Each spermatogonia contains 46 chromosomes.
D) They divide by meiosis.
Q2) Which of the following consists of a small mass of erectile tissue in the female that becomes erect in response to sexual stimulation?
A) Vestibule
B) Clitoris
C) Labia majora
D) Labia minora
Q3) When an infant girl is born, which of the following cells are present in the ovaries?
A) Primitive germ cells
B) Oogonia
C) Primary oocytes
D) Secondary oocytes
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Chapter 17: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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Sample Questions
Q1) AIDS cannot be transmitted through
A) Casual contact
B) Blood splashes
C) Sexual intercourse
D) Needlestick injuries
Q2) All Which of the following does NOT make a person less resistant to a pathogen?
A) Poor nutrition
B) Immunizations
C) Poor hygiene
D) Stress
Q3) What term is used to describe a microorganism that produces disease?
A) Nonpathogen
B) Pathogen
C) Bacteria
D) Infection
Q4) Which of the following is NOT an example of a work practice control?
A) Sanitizing the hands after removing gloves
B) Placing a lancet in a biohazard sharps container
C) Picking up broken glassware with gloved hands
D) Bandaging a cut on the hands before gloving
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Utility gloves over clean disposable gloves should be worn during the sanitization procedure to protect the hands from
A) Bloodborne pathogens
B) Infectious materials
C) Irritating chemicals
D) Cuts or punctures
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true statements regarding sterilization pouches?
A) They provide good visibility of the contents.
B) A sterilization indicator is usually present on the pouch.
C) They can be labeled.
D) They are reusable.
Q3) Identify safety signs, symbols, and labels
Q4) Compare different methods of controlling the growth of microorganisms
Q5) Something that is sterile is free of
A) Pathogens
B) All living microorganisms
C) All living microorganisms and spores
D) Nonpathogens
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 19: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q2) When the patient's forehead is sweating, which of the following ensures an accurate temporal artery temperature reading?
A) Cleaning the lens with an antiseptic wipe
B) Brushing the patient's hair to the side
C) Applying a probe cover
D) Taking the temperature behind the earlobe
Q3) The oxygen saturation level of a healthy individual is
A) 95-99%
B) 90-95%
C) 85-90%
D) 75-85%
Q4) Which of the following are symptoms that may occur during the course of a fever?
A) Headache
B) Increased pulse and respirations
C) Increased thirst
D) Loss of appetite
E) All of the above
Q5) Medical Terminology
Q6) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
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Chapter 20: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of auscultation?
A) Measuring body temperature
B) Measuring blood pressure
C) Urine testing
D) Testing pupillary reaction
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a curvature of the vertebral column?
A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Coccyx
Q3) The function of a speculum is to
A) Measure intraocular pressure
B) Grasp tissue and prevent it from slipping
C) Clamp off blood vessels and establish hemostasis
D) Open a body orifice or cavity for viewing
Q4) Psychology of Human Relations
Q5) Identify resources and adaptations that are required based on individual needs-i.e., culture and environment, developmental life stage, language, and physical threats to communication
Q6) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
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Chapter 21: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q2) Medical Terminology
Q3) Tympanometry is most useful in diagnosing patients with
A) Serous otitis media
B) Conductive hearing loss
C) Sensorineural hearing loss
D) Auditory nerve damage
Q4) During ear irrigation, which of the following techniques is performed to prevent injury to the tympanic membrane?
A) Cleansing the outer ear
B) Straightening the external ear canal
C) Injecting the irrigating solution toward the roof of the ear canal
D) Placing a cotton wick loosely in the ear canal
Q5) An eye instillation may be performed to
A) Remove a foreign object from the eye
B) Remove eye drainage
C) Flush out a harmful chemical
D) Treat an eye infection
Q6) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q7) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 22: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Local application of heat results in
A) Dilation of blood vessels in the area
B) Decreased blood supply to the area
C) Decreased tissue metabolism
D) Constriction of blood vessels in the area
Q2) Which of the following gaits is the slowest and most stable crutch gait?
A) Two-point
B) Four-point
C) Three-point
D) Swing-through
Q3) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q4) Redness of skin caused by dilation of superficial blood vessels in the skin is known as A) Hypoxia
B) Erythema
C) Suppuration
D) Inflammation
Q5) Anatomy and Physiology
Q6) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q7) Identify common pathology related to each body system
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Chapter 23: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q2) Pain associated with the menstrual period is known as
A) Dysmenorrhea
B) Dysplasia
C) Dysuria
D) Dyspareunia
Q3) What is the normal range for the fetal pulse rate?
A) 80-120 beats/min
B) 100-140 beats/min
C) 120-160 beats/min
D) 140-180 beats/min
Q4) Identify body systems
Q5) Which of the following is performed during the initial prenatal examination?
A) Measurement of vital signs
B) Physical examination
C) Breast examination
D) Pelvic examination
E) All of the above
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
Q7) Medical Terminology Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Pediatric Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify resources and adaptations that are required based on individual needs-i.e., culture and environment, developmental life stages, language, and physical threats to communication
Q2) The deltoid site should not be used as an IM injection site until the child
A) Is at least 18 months old
B) Has been walking for at least a year
C) Is at least 10 years old
D) Can sit quietly while the injection is administered
Q3) Which of the following is NOT included in a well-child visit?
A) Administration of immunizations
B) Physical examination
C) Collection of a throat specimen
D) Evaluation of growth and development
Q4) Anatomy and Physiology
Q5) A blood pressure cuff that is too large for a child may result in
A) A blood pressure reading that is falsely high
B) Not being able to hear the first clear tapping sound
C) Too much pressure being applied to the brachial artery
D) A blood pressure reading that is falsely low
Q6) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the life span
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Minor Office Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the medical assistant do if in doubt about the sterility of an article?
A) Use the article, making sure to use sterile technique.
B) Do not use the article; obtain another one.
C) Ask the physician if the article should be used.
D) Cleanse the article with a disinfectant before using.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a postoperative instruction for cryosurgery?
A) Normal activity can be resumed the day after surgery.
B) Abstain from intercourse for 2-3 weeks after the procedure.
C) A clear, watery vaginal discharge may occur for 2-4 weeks.
D) Use tampons to absorb drainage.
Q3) What is the first line of defense of the body?
A) Mucous membranes
B) Skin
C) Acidic secretions of the stomach
D) White blood cells
Q4) Discuss infection control procedures
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q6) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q7) Psychology of Human Relations
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name given to an adverse reaction that is harmless and often tolerated by the patient to obtain the therapeutic effect of the drug?
A) Idiosyncratic effect
B) Side effect
C) Contraindication
D) Warning
Q2) What is the maximal amount of medication that can be administered through the subcutaneous route?
A) 1 ml
B) 2 ml
C) 3 ml
D) 5 ml
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of active pulmonary tuberculosis?
A) Fever
B) Chronic cough
C) Abdominal pain
D) Hemoptysis
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Page 29
Q5) Identify both abbreviations and symbols used in calculating medication dosages
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Chapter 27: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood condition
A)ather/o
B)cardio/o
C)electr/o
D)-emia
E)-gram
F)-graph
G)hypo-
H)-ia
I)isch/o
J)-meter
K)-metry
L)ox/i
M)-sclerosis
N)spir/o
Q2) The purpose of a peak flow meter is to
A) Diagnose asthma
B) Prevent an asthma attack
C) Measure how quickly air flows out of the lungs
D) Deliver asthma medication to the lungs
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Page 30
Chapter 28: Specialty Examinations and Procedures: Colon
Procedures, Male Reproductive Health, and Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of computed tomography (CT)?
A) Uses sound waves to produce an image
B) Used for diagnostic studies of the brain
C) Produces a series of cross-sectional pictures
D) May use a contrast dye during the scan
Q2) Which of the following increases the PSA level?
A) Fasting
B) Smoking
C) Vigorous exercise
D) Alcohol consumption
Q3) Which of the following is NOT ordered if the PSA level is elevated?
A) Transrectal ultrasound
B) Double-contrast barium enema radiographic examination
C) Biopsy of the prostate gland
D) CT scan
Q4) To prepare for a CT scan, the patient must
A) Discontinue all medications two days before the scan
B) Remove all radiopaque objects
C) Consume four glasses of water 1 hour before the scan
D) Perform a cleansing enema on the morning of the examination Page 31
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Chapter 29: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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Q1) What is the term for a substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test?
A) Standard
B) Analyte
C) Calibration
D) Control
Q2) Which of the following is a quality control method?
A) Discarding outdated reagents
B) Proper storage of test systems
C) Calibration
D) Allowing refrigerated controls to come to room temperature before use
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a CLIA-waived test?
A) Fecal occult blood testing
B) Urine pregnancy testing
C) Blood glucose determination
D) Microscopic analysis of urine sediment
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) Medical Law and Ethics
Q6) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
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Chapter 30: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bilirubin
A)an-
B)bilirubin/o
C)dys-
D)glyc/o
E)hemat/o
F)keton/o
G)noct/i
H)olig/o
I)-osis
J)poly
K)py/o
L)ur/o
Q2) How should urine reagent strips be stored?
A) In a cool area
B) In a dark container
C) In a dry area
D) With the cap tightly closed
E) All of the above
Q3) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 31: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following results in patient discomfort during the venipuncture procedure?
A) Allowing the alcohol to dry before making the puncture
B) Moving the needle after it has been inserted into the vein
C) Using the flange to change from one tube to another
D) Removing the needle at the same angle as insertion
Q2) An individual who collects blood specimens is known as a(n)
A) Vampire
B) Venipuncturist
C) Optometrist
D) Phlebotomist
Q3) Medical Laboratory Procedures
Q4) Which of the following indicates the correct order of draw for the vacuum tube method of venipuncture?
A) Red, green, lavender, gray
B) Red, lavender, gray, green
C) Lavender, red, gray, green
D) Red, gray, lavender, green
Q5) Identify safety techniques that can be used to prevent accidents and maintain a safe work environment
35
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Chapter 32: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal range for a red blood cell count for a woman (in cells per cubic millimeter of blood)?
A) 3-4 million
B) 4-5.5 million
C) 4.5-6.2 million
D) 5-6 million
Q2) White
A) an-
B) -emia
C) cyt/o
D) hemat/o
E) anti-
F) leuk/o
G) -coagulant
H) -ology
I) poly-
J) -osis
K) -penia
Q3) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q4) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
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Chapter 33: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may cause a control to fail to produce expected results?
A) Outdated testing reagents
B) Error in technique
C) Improper storage of testing components
D) All of the above
Q2) What results are produced by a high-level control?
A) Results that fall below the reference range for the test
B) Invalid results
C) Results that fall above the reference range for the test
D) Negative results
Q3) The hemoglobin A<sub>1c</sub> test measures the
A) Average amount of glucose in the blood over a three-month period
B) Amount of hemoglobin in the blood
C) Fasting blood glucose level
D) Amount of glycogen in the body over a 30-day period
Q4) What should be done if a control does not perform as expected?
A) Do not perform patient testing until the problem is resolved.
B) Perform patient testing as usual.
C) Perform calibration procedures.
D) Record results as invalid.
Page 37
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Chapter 34: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical Terminology
Q2) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q3) The invasion of the body by a pathogenic microorganism is known as
A) Inflammation
B) Infection
C) Disease
D) Susceptibility
Q4) Staphylococcal infections usually result in which of the following?
A) Gangrene
B) Petechiae
C) Pus formation
D) Maculopapular vesicles
Q5) The purpose of using transport media is to
A) Preserve a specimen in its original state until it reaches its destination
B) Keep the specimen at its optimal growth temperature
C) Reduce the number of pathogens in the specimen
D) Provide nutrients for the multiplication of the specimen
E) All of the above
Q6) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q7) Identify common pathology related to each body system
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Chapter 35: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what type of fracture is the bone splintered or shattered into three or more fragments?
A) Spiral
B) Comminuted
C) Open
D) Oblique
Q2) With what type of bleeding is there is a slow and steady flow of dark red blood?
A) Capillary
B) Venous
C) Arterial
D) Profuse
Q3) Which of the following snakes is poisonous?
A) Rattlesnake
B) Copperhead
C) Cottonmouth
D) Coral snake
E) All of the above
Q4) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q5) Medical Terminology
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
Page 39
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Chapter 36: The Medical Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) Laboratory tests ordered on a patient at an outside laboratory should be charted to provide documentation in case the following occurs:
A) The patient does not undergo the test.
B) The test results are abnormal.
C) The patient's condition gets worse.
D) The test results are negative.
Q2) Which of the following questions should be used to elicit the chief complaint from a patient?
A) Where does it hurt?
B) Are you sick?
C) How long have you been ill?
D) What seems to be the problem?
E) All of the above
Q3) An expansion of the chief complaint is known as the
A) Review of systems
B) Present illness
C) Progress report
D) Provisional diagnosis
Q4) Medical Law and Ethics:
Q5) Discuss principles of using Electronic Medical Record (EMR)
Page 40
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Chapter 37: Patient Reception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why may some physicians in a practice not be accepting patients?
A) They are planning to retire or move
B) They have joined the practice very recently
C) They want to pick and choose patients with interesting conditions
D) They have not yet chosen a medical specialty
E) All of the above
Q2) Written referrals usually state which of the following items?
A) How many visits are allowed
B) The problem for which the patient is being referred
C) The name of the physician who is making the referral
D) The name of the physician to whom the patient is being referred
E) All of the above
Q3) What is the name for the statement that allows the office to release information to the insurance company for billing purposes?
A) Assignment of benefits form
B) Receipt of HIPAA privacy practices
C) Release of information form
D) Authorization for treatment
Q4) Explore the issue of confidentiality as it applies to the medical assistant
Q5) Discuss procedures for accepting checks
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Chapter 38: Medical Office Computerization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following allows the physician to review and analyze business and practice activities?
A) File maintenance system
B) Reports system
C) Posting transactions system
D) Telecommunications
Q2) The electronic medical record (EMR) may contain preprinted forms similar to the paper medical record with fields to enter data.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A key that is used in conjunction with another key to enter commands into the computer is known as a
A) Modifier key
B) Lock key
C) Navigation key
D) Shift key
Q4) The shift key on a computer keyboard is an example of a modifier key.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient calls to request a medication refill, which information should always be included in the message?
A) How many months or years the patient has been taking the medication
B) The medication name and dose
C) The approximate date of the last appointment with the physician
D) Symptoms the patient is having that require a refill of the medication
Q2) Qualities such as friendliness and concern or boredom and indifference are clearly communicated over the telephone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the medical assistant has transferred a telephone call, but the light for that extension continues to blink, what does it mean?
A) The caller is talking to the intended recipient.
B) The caller has been accidentally disconnected.
C) The call has gone to the recipient's voicemail.
D) The intended recipient has not yet answered the telephone.
Q4) Identify styles and types of verbal communication
Q5) Medical Law and Ethics
Q6) Discuss legal scope of practice for medical assistants
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Chapter 40: Scheduling Appointments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which method(s) can be used to allow the physician to avoid falling behind or catch up with appointment times?
A) Leave at least 15-20 minutes free each morning and/or afternoon
B) Schedule a lunch break that is 20-30 minutes longer than the physician will need
C) End appointment times about an hour before the physician really plans to go home
D) Schedule the physician for examination rooms that are side by side
E) All of the above
Q2) If a patient has been seen in by a dermatologist in a medical group, the patient will be considered an established patient for all physicians affiliated with the medical group even if they have different medical specialties.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Who is responsible for giving the patient written instructions before surgery?
A) The surgeon's office
B) The primary care physician's office
C) The hospital or day surgery center
D) Written instructions are not necessary
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Chapter 41: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) If paper medical records are stored in file cabinets, it is more common to use lateral drawer file cabinets than vertical drawer file cabinets.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the implications of HIPAA for the medical assistant in various medical settings
Q3) If the terminal digit filing system is used, what is the first filing unit for the number 01-68-72-59?
A) 01
B) 59
C) 68
D) 72
Q4) Basic Keyboarding/Computer Concepts
Q5) Electronic medical record systems in one medical office will be able to share information with all other electronic medical record systems.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Medical Law and Ethics
Q7) Describe various types of content maintained in a patient's medical record
Page 45
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Chapter 42: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are special features that are often found on the photocopier in a medical office?
A) Duplex
B) Collate
C) Sort pages
D) Staple documents
E) All of the above
Q2) How should the medical assistant protect patient confidentiality when photocopying a patient's medical record to send to another health care facility?
A) File any spoiled copies in the medical record.
B) Collate and sort the photocopied pages manually.
C) Be sure that no other individual is near the photocopier.
D) Check for a signed authorization for release of information.
E) All of the above.
Q3) Recognize fundamental writing skills
Q4) In a business letter, all parts of the letter should be created in the same font.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Mail
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is a postage meter more efficient than an online postage service?
A) If the office uses special services frequently
B) If the office often mails packages using parcel post
C) If the office mails a large volume of patient bills weekly
D) An online postage service is always more efficient than a postage meter
Q2) The five-digit ZIP code identifies a specific delivery area such as a city block or office building.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If an optional attention line is used in addition to the recipient line, where should it be placed?
A) Just below the recipient line
B) As the top or first line of the address
C) Below and to the left of the recipient's address
D) Just below the return address in the upper left corner of the envelope
Q4) When should the medical assistant fold a letter first in half, then in thirds?
A) To insert in a #10 envelope.
B) To insert in a #6¾ envelope.
C) To insert in a manila envelope.
D) It is not necessary to do this for common envelope sizes.
Page 47
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Chapter 44: Managing Practice Finances
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do money market accounts compare with checking accounts?
A) They usually pay a lower rate of interest
B) Checks must usually be written for a higher minimum amount
C) Money market accounts usually do not require a minimum balance
D) Neither type of account limits the number of checks that can be written each month
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a reason the bank statement may not agree with the office record for a checking account?
A) Not all the written checks have cleared the bank.
B) There may be a fee for a returned check that has to be subtracted.
C) There may be interest on the account that must be added to the balance.
D) The office may have written more checks than usual during the month.
Q3) Which statement best describes the petty cash account?
A) It does not require records to be kept.
B) It is used to purchase items that are not ordered regularly.
C) It is used for incidental items that are usually not very expensive.
D) It is replenished by taking $25 from patient receipts every week.
E) All of the above.
Q4) Describe banking procedures
Q5) Compare types of endorsements
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Chapter 45: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define upcoding and why it should be avoided
Q2) What coding system is used by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for services and equipment that are not usually covered by ordinary health insurance?
A) CPT
B) DRG
C) HCPCS Level II
D) ICD-9-CM
Q3) In which section of the CPT manual is there an attempt to link reimbursement to the completeness of the examination and the amount of skill required to manage the patient's problems?
A) Primary Care
B) Initial Consultation
C) Diagnosis Establishment
D) Evaluation and Management
Q4) The medical assistant must look up CPT codes for most office visits and office procedures in the CPT manual before entering patient charges into the computer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Medical Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the amount of money that must be paid each year for services before the insurance company begins to pick up the payments?
A) Benefit
B) Premium
C) Deductible
D) Assignment
Q2) Which of the following is NOT required for each charge on an insurance claim form?
A) Procedure code
B) Time of service
C) Place of service
D) Date(s) of service
Q3) Unlike ordinary health insurance, workers' compensation also covers wages lost due to illness or accident.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Billing and Collections
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is a patient account usually considered overdue?
A) 30 days after being billed
B) 60 days after being billed
C) 90 days after being billed
D) 120 days after being billed
Q2) Once an agreement has been made with the patient to accept monthly installments, what regulations apply to the written agreement?
A) Bankruptcy laws
B) Fair Practices Act
C) Truth in Lending Act
D) Lenders Protective Act
Q3) It will probably cost less to bring a lawsuit against a patient in small claims court compared to a lawsuit in a regular court.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient often has a credit balance when the patient is seen twice in the same month.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: The Medical Assistant As Office Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) What protects physicians and office staff if patients claim that diagnostic procedures, tests, or treatments caused an injury?
A) Small claims court
B) Property and theft insurance
C) Professional liability insurance
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
Q2) How should all medical records, including computer data backup disks, be stored?
A) In boxes
B) In the physician's office
C) In the physician's house
D) In locked, fire-resistant file cabinets
Q3) Who is usually responsible for minor, routine office maintenance?
A) Office staff
B) The physician
C) The rental agent
D) A maintenance company
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Chapter 49: Emergency Protective Practices for the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disasters that tend to cause the most serious psychological effects include those that
A) Occur without warning
B) Pose a serious threat to personal safety
C) Have an uncertain duration
D) Result from malicious intent
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following agencies coordinates volunteer activities to prevent crime and respond to emergencies?
A) OSHA
B) Poison Control Center
C) Hazmat response team
D) Citizen Corps
Q3) What occurs during the recovery phase of GAS?
A) The body returns to its normal level of functioning.
B) The stress remains, but the body adapts.
C) The blood glucose level elevates.
D) The body reacts to a perceived threat.
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Chapter 50: Obtaining Employment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary purpose of networking during the job search?
A) To demonstrate good people skills
B) To obtain verbal information about potential jobs
C) To stay in contact with other individuals in the health care field
D) To give and receive emotional support during the job-hunting process
Q2) What is one of the first things a medical assistant graduate should do when starting a job search?
A) Construct a résumé.
B) Call a recruiting company and have it perform the search.
C) Set a goal and identify the ideal job for his or her current circumstances.
D) Have friends ask their bosses if they are planning on hiring anyone else.
Q3) It is illegal for an employer to ask an applicant for a medical assistant position to take a keyboarding test.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A targeted résumé usually begins with a specific employment objective that describes the type of position the applicant is seeking.
A)True
B)False
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