Medical Law and Ethics Practice Exam - 625 Verified Questions

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Medical Law and Ethics Practice Exam

Course Introduction

Medical Law and Ethics provides an in-depth exploration of the legal and ethical principles that guide healthcare practice. Covering topics such as patient rights, consent, confidentiality, end-of-life decision-making, professional negligence, and the regulation of medical professionals, the course examines how laws and ethical frameworks intersect in clinical settings. Students will analyze real-world cases, learn about statutory and regulatory requirements, and engage with contemporary debates around issues such as genetic testing, medical research, reproductive rights, and access to care, equipping them to navigate complex legal and ethical dilemmas in healthcare environments.

Recommended Textbook

Legal and Ethical Aspects of Health Information Management 4th Edition by Dana C. McWay

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15 Chapters

625 Verified Questions

625 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2583 Page 2

Chapter 1: Workings of the American Legal System

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58 Verified Questions

58 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51422

Sample Questions

Q1) Res judicata is a doctrine that courts are subject to, and it means :

A) a matter [already] judged.

B) let the master answer.

C) to let the decision stand.

D) utmost good faith.

Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following is associated with the Bill of Rights?

A) protects the rights to freedom of speech and religion.

B) provides the right to vote for those age 18 and above.

C) allows unlimited rights to sue states in federal court.

D) includes equality of rights under the law regardless of gender.

Answer: A

Q3) A defendant who has been found guilty in a _____ case may appeal the verdict.

A) civil

B) common

C) contract

D) criminal

Answer: D

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3

Chapter 2: Court Systems and Legal Procedures

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51423

Sample Questions

Q1) Which is the name of the process used by the defendant (or plaintiff)to obtain facts and information about the case from the plaintiff (or defendant)?

A) appeal

B) discovery

C) legal process

D) trial

Answer: B

Q2) Spoliation of evidence occurs as a result of _____.

A) claims that had been injured by a defective product,which was discarded or lost

B) negative evidentiary inference that is irrelevant to an ongoing legal proceeding

C) unconsciousness of guilt or lack of motivation to prevent evidence from being used

D) wrongful destruction or alteration of evidence and/or failure to preserve data

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Judicial Process of Health Information

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51424

Sample Questions

Q1) Which allows a healthcare record to be admitted into evidence?

A) business record exception

B) deposition exception

C) evidentiary exception

D) expert witness exception

Answer: A

Q2) Which occurs when the court directs a person or organization to appear to explain why the court should not take a proposed action?

A) court order

B) show cause order

C) subpoena

D) subpoena testificandum

Answer: B

Q3) A litigation response plan is a _____.

A) motion to quash

B) subpoena commanding the testimony of a witness

C) subpoena duces tecum commanding the production of documents

D) tool consisting of policies and procedures that address how to respond to the legal process requests

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Principles of Liability

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Medical abandonment may be applied to a patient who was _____.

A) discharged with continued chest pain and who later died of a heart attack upon returning to her home.

B) noncompliant regarding taking prescribed medications,for which his physician terminated their relationship.

C) unable to reach his physician who was out of town and who had arranged for his partner to be on call for his patients.

D) discharged with a diagnosis of false labor and who had a follow-up appointment with her obstetrician scheduled.

Q2) Which relationship begins with the credentialing process?

A) hospital-patient

B) hospital-physician

C) patient-physician

D) physician-patient

Q3) List the 4 elements that must be proven in a negligence claim.

Q4) Describe the difference between libel and slander.

Q5) List the 3 types of damages mentioned in the textbook.

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Chapter 5: Ethical Standards

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51426

Sample Questions

Q1) Under distributive justice,the willingness to comply with instruction or medical advice is best described as _____.

A) Compliance

B) Cooperation

C) Effort

D) Obedience

Q2) Autonomy is viewed as a freedom unless it _____.

A) Annoys health providers

B) Causes financial stress

C) Interferes with another's rights

D) Disputes religious beliefs

Q3) The double-effect principle refers to _____.

A) faithfulness,loyalty,and devotion to one's duties in an incompetent person

B) obligations to be fair to all people and includes fairness,honesty,and impartiality

C) mentally challenged individuals or those who were once competent

D) recognizing that ethical choices may result in adverse outcomes

Q4) Autonomy refers to independence,self-determination,or freedom.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Ethical Decisions and Challenges

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37 Verified Questions

37 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An ethical situation could arise when an administrative team member asks the HIM manager to "fudge" statistical numbers to ensure compliance with an accrediting body.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which is true of ARRA?

A) ARRA provisions specify that patients are to receive a paper-based printout of all information transmitted in an electronic health record format.

B) ARRA reinforces a patient's right to have access to her own healthcare information when the patient record is in stored in a paper-based format.

C) ARRA restricts the transmission of healthcare information to the patient if the information was originally received in a manual format.

D) ARRA states that patients have the right to require a covered entity to electronically re-transmit information to an entity designated by the patient.

Q3) Describe what the ARRA is and how it has changed the HIM professional's role in healthcare.

Q4) List the 9 steps in ethical decision making

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Chapter 7: Bioethical Issues

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Allografts and homografts are transplants using _____ tissue.

A) Animal.

B) Combined human/animal.

C) Donor

D) The patient's own.

Q2) The difference between a living will and a durable power of attorney for healthcare is that a _____.

A) Durable power of attorney designates specific treatments that should be held or withheld in the event a patient becomes incapacitated

B) Durable power of attorney and living will are both executed by the family after the patient becomes incapacitated,determining the surrogate decision maker

C) Living will designates treatment,while a durable power of attorney designates a surrogate decision maker

D) Living will is executed while the patient is competent and designates a person who makes decisions in the event he is incapacitated

Q3) Prenatal surgery refers to surgery conducted upon the fetus after birth.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Patient Record Requirements

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51429

Sample Questions

Q1) When a health care facility files for bankruptcy and closes,a _____ is appointed to make decisions for the bankrupt health care provider.

A) Case trustee

B) Federal agency

C) Licensing authority

D) Third-party payer

Q2) If a patient requests that his health record be corrected or altered,the provider may accomplish this by _____.

A) Deleting the original information and documenting the corrected information

B) Denying the patient's request by informing the patient of this in writing

C) Refusing to make corrections/alterations because patients don't have this right

D) Requiring that a local judge review the patient's request to correct or alter data

Q3) If an item was not charted in a health record,it is presumed that _____.

A) If it wasn't documented,it wasn't done

B) It was not necessary to document that item

C) Providers can be excused for being too busy delivering care to document

D) When an order is written,it was carried out even if not documented as such

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Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Informed Consent

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41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51430

Sample Questions

Q1) Records held by a state agency correspond with principles of FOIA and fall into the _____ category of confidentiality protection?

A) Common law

B) Open record

C) Physician-patient privilege

D) Privacy

Q2) In which situation is implied consent appropriate for treatment of a child?

A) Parent or guardian refuses to allow a blood transfusion following a child's accident.

B) Providers determine that a child requires closed reduction of closed fracture.

C) Surgery to repair a ruptured spleen is performed in the absence of parent/guardian.

D) Sutures are needed for treatment of a laceration that resulted from a sporting event.

Q3) Good Samaritan laws provide legal protection for _____ treatment.

A) elective

B) healthcare

C) negligent

D) unauthorized

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11

Chapter 10: Access to Health Information

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51431

Sample Questions

Q1) Reporting of public health threats include _____.

A) Breaches of confidentiality

B) Child abuse

C) Domestic violence

D) Terminations of pregnancy

Q2) Which is an agreement constructed to authorize a business associate's access to protected health information (PHI)under the HIPAA Privacy Rule?

A) Description of the permitted uses of released patient information.

B) Government agencies that will be impacted by release of PHI.

C) Methods for notifying the provider whenever the information is accessed.

D) Name of primary business associate who will view the patient record.

Q3) HIPAA provides for two exceptions in which approval for research does not require full IRB review.They include _____.

A) Identified information and waiver or authorization

B) Limited data set and de-identified information

C) Minimum data set and UHDDS information

D) Research that meets criteria for emergency review

Q4) List three items that must be included on a valid release of information form.

Q5) What is the role of the IRB?

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Chapter 11: Specialized Patient Records

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45 Verified Questions

45 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51432

Sample Questions

Q1) The release of mental health information is _____.

A) Not allowed to be revoked by the patient or any of her family members

B) Required when the facility's representative signs the release authorization

C) Strictly prohibited under any circumstance,regardless of court involvement

D) Subject to strict rules regarding confidentiality,pursuant to individual state laws

Q2) A specialized patient record contains diagnoses regarding _____,

A) autoimmune disease

B) cancer therapies

C) mental illness

D) physical medicine

Q3) Mental health records can be released just like a general medical record.

A)True

B)False

Q4) An invalid release of information contains _____.

A) Conditions of revocation

B) Dates of expiration

C) Information known to be false

D) Requests for minor patient records

Q5) List the three components of a valid authorization.

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Chapter 12: Risk Management, Quality Management, and Utilization Management

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51433

Sample Questions

Q1) If an incident report is inadvertently released during the discovery process along with the medical record,_____ applies.

A) attorney work product privilege

B) Behringer Estate v.Medical Center at Princeton

C) business record exceptions

D) Federal Rule of Evidence 502

Q2) The Joint Commission's role in sentinel events includes _____.

A) Performing onsite reviews as the result of all sentinel events

B) The possibility of placing the organization on accreditation watch status

C) Requiring sentinel events to be reported within 45 days of an event

D) Withdrawing accreditation for reporting of sentinel events

Q3) Which data mining technique associated with the electronic health record enhances security and reduces patient risk?

A) Education of employees and providers about searches.

B) Identification of inconsistent patient record entries.

C) Prevention of unauthorized access of sensitive information.

D) Use of tracking software to locate breaches of confidentiality.

Q4) List the steps in the Utilization Review Process

Q5) Describe a sentinel event and give one example.

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Chapter 13: Information Systems

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51434

Sample Questions

Q1) The electronic authentication of medical record entries _____.

A) does not hold the author of the entries accountable

B) is recognized by national accreditation organizations

C) is required by federal and state legislatures in the U.S.

D) requires paper record as a backup to verify authenticity

Q2) What constitutes a legal heath record?

A) Business record generated at or for a healthcare organization.

B) Dictation of a healthcare facility's physicians and other providers.

C) Results of quality management audits that impact patient care.

D) Statistical reports that contain data used for accreditation purposes.

Q3) The patient's legal electronic health record is _____

A) Clearly defined by federal statues and written regulations

B) Defined by each institution with input from its legal counsel

C) Healthcare documentation imported from an R.H.I.O.

D) Information captured from one health care setting to another

Q4) Safeguards established by HIPAA security rules _____.

A) Ensure data integrity by protecting it from unauthorized deletion

B) Limit the availability of healthcare and other data to authorized users

C) Operate within the confines of stricter state legislation and rules

D) Protect confidentiality by allowing all providers to access information

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Chapter 14: Health-Care Fraud and Abuse

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51435

Sample Questions

Q1) The 48-hour project focused on the payments made to hospitals for services provided to patients within a three-day window of the patient's admission.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which is the false misrepresentation of fact that is relied on by another to that person's detriment and a departure from reasonable use?

A) Fraud and abuse

B) Insurance evasion

C) Legal malpractice

D) Malfeasance

Q3) Which bars a provider from receiving Medicare reimbursement either permanently or for a prescribed period of time?

A) Civil monetary penalty process

B) Fraud and abuse violations

C) Permissive and mandatory exclusion

D) Stark I and Stark II legislation

Q4) Describe one fraud enforcement program listed in your textbook.

Q5) List three main laws that address fraud and abuse.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16

Chapter 15: Law and Ethics in the Workplace

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51436

Sample Questions

Q1) List two ethics elements in a performance appraisal.

Q2) An employer is obligated to verify the _____ of employees who are hired to work.

A) Age,gender,and disability status

B) Employment authorization and identity

C) Independent contractor status

D) Medical ability and competency

Q3) Which legislation requires employers to verify the identity of employees prior to hiring them?

A) Employment Eligibility Verification Act

B) Homeland Security Act

C) Immigration Reform and Control Act

D) Social Security Act

Q4) The Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA)provides for _____.

A) Compensated time off for healthcare

B) Guaranteed leave time for surgery

C) Paid time off for maternity leaves

D) Unpaid time off to adopt a child

Q5) Sexual harassment is welcomed sexual advance.

A)True

B)False

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