Medical Laboratory Technology
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Technology is a specialized field focused on the analysis of bodily fluids, tissues, and other specimens to support the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases. This course covers the theoretical fundamentals and practical skills necessary to perform a wide range of laboratory procedures, including hematology, microbiology, clinical chemistry, immunology, and microscopy. Students will gain hands-on experience with modern laboratory instruments, quality control, and safety protocols, preparing them to work alongside healthcare professionals in hospitals, research laboratories, and diagnostic centers. Emphasis is placed on accuracy, ethical practices, and the interpretation of laboratory results to ensure high standards in patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Diagnostics Fundamentals Methods and Clinical Applications 2nd
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16 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3838
Page 2
Edition by Lela Buckingham
Chapter 1: DNA
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA replication requires the presence of:
A) DNA template
B) Pyrophosphate
C) Amino acids
D) Messenger RNA
Answer: A
Q2) DNA replication proceeds with the new daughter strand synthesized in the following orientation:
A) 5'to 3'
B) 3'to 5'
C) The daughter strand is not synthesized in any order.
D) Either 5'to 3'or 3' to 5'
Answer: A
Q3) In a DNA molecule, one end has a free hydroxyl group and one end has a free
A) phosphate group
B) hydroxyl group
C) amino group
D) carboxyl group
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most frequently methylated base in vertebrates is:
A) Adenine
B) Cytosine
C) Guanine
D) Thymine
Answer: B
Q2) The RNA polymerase holoenzyme consists of which of the following subunits?
A) ( \(\alpha\)2, \(\beta\), \(\beta\)' )
B) (\(\alpha\)2, \(\beta\),\(\beta\)' \(\sigma\))
C) (\(\alpha\), \(\alpha\)', \(\beta\), \(\beta\)' )
D) (\(\alpha\)2, \(\beta\), \(\beta\)', \(\rho\))
Answer: B
Q3) DNA sequences that are involved in the regulation of gene expression are called:
A) Cis factors
B) Trans factors
C) Inducers
D) Repressors
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alpha helices and beta-pleated sheets are what level of protein structure?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
Answer: B
Q2) The collection of proteins produced by a genome is called the:
A) Proteome
B) Protease
C) Ribosome
D) Genetic code
Answer: B
Q3) A codon consists of a sequence of how many nucleotides?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acid Extraction Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the concentration of RNA whereby a 1:10 dilution has an absorbance reading of 0.675 at 260 nm?
A) 33.75 \(\mu\)g/mL
B) 337.5 \(\mu\)g/mL
C) 27 \(\mu\)g/mL
D) 270 \(\mu\)g/mL
Q2) Diethyl pyrocarbonate (DEPC) is a chemical that is used to:
A) Inactivate DNAses
B) Measure DNA concentration
C) Isolate mitochondria
D) Inactivate RNAses
Q3) In inorganic DNA isolation, or "salting out" procedures, in the presence of low-pH and high-salt concentrations, which intracellular component precipitates out of solution?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) Carbohydrate
D) Protein
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Chapter 5: Resolution and Detection of Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an advantage of agarose over polyacrylamide gels?
A) Agarose is more stable than polyacrylamide.
B) Agarose monomers are not toxic.
C) Acrylamide takes a long time to polymerize.
D) Polyacrylamide gels must be used immediately after polymerization.
Q2) To separate a mixture of oligonucleotides with a resolution between bands of 1 bp, which of the following methods should be used?
A) Contour-clamped homogeneous electric field
B) Rotating gel electrophoresis
C) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
D) Traditional agarose gel electrophoresis
Q3) Which of the following can be used to detect the location of DNA bands in a gel after electrophoresis?
A) SYBR Green
B) Xylene cyanol green
C) Bromophenol blue
D) Hematoxylin
Q4) Nucleic acids migrate toward which pole in electrophoresis?
A) Cathode
B) Anode
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Analysis and Characterization of Nucleic Acids and Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) What was the great advantage to molecular analysis offered by Southern blot?
A) Ability to analyze specific regions of DNA without cloning them
B) A rapid method to eliminate DNA contaminants
C) A more efficient buffer system
D) Ability to analyze nanogram amounts of DNA
Q2) A hybridization assay is run under the following conditions: 40% formamide with 0.5X SSC at 70<sup>o</sup>C. When the bands were visualized, there were many more bands than expected in all wells on the membrane. Which of the following changes should be made to the hybridization conditions to get results that are closer to those expected?
A) Decrease formamide
B) Increase temperature
C) Increase SSC concentration
D) Decrease temperature
Q3) What process facilitates denaturation of long DNA fragments?
A) Precipitation
B) Removal of bases from the ends of the molecules
C) Dephosphorylation
D) Depurination
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Chapter 7: Nucleic Acid Amplification
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Sample Questions
Q1) A PCR reaction that uses more than one primer pair is called:
A) Long-range PCR
B) Multiplex PCR
C) Signal amplification
D) Quantitative PCR
Q2) Which of the following amplification procedures uses an RNA polymerase to generate amplicons?
A) Q beta replicase
B) Real-time PCR
C) Ligase chain reaction
D) Strand displacement amplification
Q3) Which of the following is the most likely source of PCR contamination?
A) Unfiltered dust particles
B) Environmental fungi
C) Eyelashes
D) PCR products from a previous reaction
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9
Chapter 8: Chromosomal Structure and Chromosomal Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is high-resolution banding achieved?
A) Increase the concentration of Giemsa.
B) Stain the chromosomes longer.
C) Stain the chromosomes at low temperatures.
D) Stain the chromosomes before maximal condensation.
Q2) What is the designation of a cell with three copies of every chromosome?
A) Euploid
B) Diploid
C) Triploid
D) Tetraploid
Q3) Which is the proper order for the four phases of the cell cycle?
A) G1, S, M, G2
B) G1, S, G2, M
C) G2, S, M, G1
D) M, S, G1, G2
Q4) A polymorphism is distinguished from a mutation in what way?
A) Its frequency in a given population
B) The size of the genetic region involved
C) The severity of effect on phenotype
D) Associations with other genetic events
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Chapter 9: Gene Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient DNA has been mixed in separate wells with a probe that detects the 1691G>A mutation associated with factor V Leiden and a probe that detects the normal sequence. Cleavase is added to all wells, and the fluorescence is measured in each well. Fluorescence was detected in the well that included the normal probe, and no fluorescence was detected in the well containing the mutant probe. Which of the following assays was performed?
A) Invader assay
B) Nonisotopic RNase cleavage assay
C) Chemical cleavage assay
D) High-density oligonucleotide array
Q2) A reference segment of DNA has the following sequence: GCTCACCATGG. Insertion of AG occurs between positions 7 and 8 in a particular genetic disease. How is this mutation denoted by accepted nomenclature?
A) 7C>AG
B) 7_8insAG
C) 8delAinsAG
D) 7_8delAG
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Chapter 10: DNA Sequencing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sequencing ladders resolved by gel electrophoresis are read in which of the following directions?
A) Top to bottom
B) Bottom to top
C) Across lanes
D) Diagonally
Q2) The ddNTP:dNTP ratio is too high (too much ddNTP). How will this affect sequencing results?
A) No effect
B) A sequencing ladder of only short fragments
C) A sequencing ladder of only long fragments
D) Equally spaced bands in every lane
Q3) Which of the following pieces of information has been determined about the human genome?
A) Chromosome 13 has the most genes per bp.
B) The size of the human genome is 3 Gbp.
C) The average gene size is 45 kbp.
D) Chromosome X has the fewest genes.
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Chapter 11: DNA Polymorphisms and Human Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a locus on chromosome 16 is homozygous, then the locus has:
A) Many different alleles on one chromosome 16
B) The same alleles on each chromosome 16 homolog
C) Different alleles on each chromosome 16 homolog
D) No alleles
Q2) DNA found at the scene of the crime was determined to have one peak at 212 bp at the amelogenin locus. The source of this DNA is which of the following?
A) Female
B) Male
C) Impossible to tell from one locus
D) This locus does not discriminate between males and females.
Q3) How many loci are considered core loci by the Federal Bureau of Investigation in the Combined DNA Indexing System?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 13
D) 16
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Chapter 12: Detection and Identification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a genotypic method for typing organisms?
A) Antibiogram patterns
B) Pulsed field gel electrophoresis
C) Serotyping
D) Bacteriophage typing
Q2) Which is a flow cytometry test?
A) Hybrid capture
B) NASBA
C) TMA
D) HPV OncoTect
Q3) A PCR assay that uses short primers that amplify random sequences found throughout the genome of the test organism is what variation of PCR?
A) Arbitrarily primed
B) Amplified fragment length polymorphism
C) Repetitive extragenic palindromic
D) Enterobacterial repetitive intergenic consensus
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Chapter 13: Molecular Detection of Inherited Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mutation del(15)(q11q13) on the paternal chromosome results in a disease that is different from when the same mutation occurs on the maternal chromosome. This difference results from which of the following?
A) Multifactorial inheritance
B) Imprinting
C) Hormonal differences
D) Sex linkage
Q2) Seventeen members of an extended family have a gene mutation. Only two of them have the associated phenotype. What is the term for this observation?
A) Complete penetrance
B) Mosaicism
C) Autosomal dominant inheritance
D) Incomplete penetrance
Q3) Mitochondrial mutations primarily affect which of the following tissues?
A) Skin
B) Bone
C) Muscle
D) Lung
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15
Chapter 14: Molecular Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following targets is tissue specific but not necessarily tumor specific?
A) PML/RARA
B) EWS/FLI-1
C) EGFR
D) BCR/ABL
Q2) What are the two checkpoints of the cell division cycle?
A) M to G1 and G1 to G2
B) G1 to G2 and M to S
C) G1 to S and G2 to M
D) S to G1 and G2 to M
Q3) This gene is frequently tested with K-ras and works on the same pathway downstream of K-ras in colon cancer.
A) HER2/neu
B) B-raf
C) N-ras
D) EGFR
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Chapter 15: Dna-Based Tissue Typing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are only expressed constitutively on "professional antigen-presenting cells," such as B lymphocytes?
A) HLA-A
B) Complement C2
C) TNF-alpha
D) Class II antigens
Q2) In PCR-SSOP, the HLA allele is identified based on which of the following?
A) Primers that are specific for particular alleles
B) Probes that are specific for particular alleles
C) Restriction enzyme cutting and band patterns
D) Differences in single-strand conformations
Q3) The level of detail to which an allele is identified is called which of the following?
A) Resolution
B) Ambiguity
C) Specificity
D) Typing
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Chapter 16: Quality Assurance and Quality Control in the Molecular Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is used to calibrate an instrument that measures analyte in saline?
A) An unknown patient sample diluted in saline
B) A reference standard diluted in saline
C) A positive control diluted in water
D) A reference standard diluted in water
Q2) An outbreak of Salmonella has occurred in the community. Molecular-based assays will be performed to determine if multiple isolates of Salmonella taken at hospital X are related to each other and part of the outbreak. Laboratory technologists have accumulated 10 different cultures growing Salmonella and suspect that there may be more isolated in the next few days. How should these organisms be handled until the molecular-based assays can be performed in about 3 days?
A) Maintain organisms in culture growing on solid agar in an incubator 35<sup>o</sup>-37<sup>o</sup>C.
B) Freeze suspensions of the organisms at -20<sup>o</sup>C.
C) Isolate DNA from all organisms and store at -20<sup>o</sup>C.
D) Isolate DNA from all organisms and store at 22<sup>o</sup>-25<sup>o</sup>C.
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