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Medical Laboratory Sciences is a multidisciplinary field that focuses on the analysis of body fluids, tissues, and other biological samples to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases. This course covers essential principles and techniques in clinical chemistry, microbiology, hematology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Students learn how to operate laboratory equipment, follow stringent quality control procedures, and ensure accurate and reliable test results. The curriculum emphasizes the importance of laboratory safety, data interpretation, and ethical considerations in patient care, preparing graduates to be integral members of the healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Human Physiology 4th Edition by Lauralee Sherwood
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111 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood is this tissue type.
A)nervous tissue
B)epithelial tissue
C)muscle tissue
D)connective tissue
Answer: D
Q2) Which cells are considered pluripotent?
A) neurons
B) tissue-specific stem cells
C) embryonic stem cells
D) both b and c
E) none of these answers.
Answer: C
Q3) The smallest unit capable of carrying out the processes associated with life is the ____________________.
Answer: cell
Q4) Homeostasis is maintained by ____________________ mechanisms.
Answer: negative feedback
Q5) ____________________ muscle tissue composes the heart.
Answer: cardiac
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Sample Questions
Q1) On average a cell contains how many lysosomes?
A) 3
B) 30
C) 300
D) 3,000
E) 3,000,000
Answer: C
Q2) Which molecule that directly enters the citric acid cycle.
A) acetyl CoA.
B) adenosine diphosphate.
C) citric acid.
D) oxaloacetic acid.
E) pyruvic acid.
Answer: A
Q3) ____________________ refers to the process of an intracellular vesicle fusing with the plasma membrane, then opening and emptying its contents to the exterior.
Answer: exocytosis
Q4) When ATP is utilized _________ and ___________ are produced.
Answer: ADP/Pi
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Sample Questions
Q1) electrical gradient for Na<sup>+</sup> at resting potential
A)Ion tends to be moved into the cell by this force.
B)Ion tends to be moved out of the cell by this force.
Answer: A
Q2) In the plasma membrane the polar ends of the phospholipid molecules are hydrophobic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which term is associated with transport maximum (Tm) of a carrier?
A) specificity
B) saturation
C) competition
D) passive diffusion
E) leak channels
Answer: B
Q4) Connective tissue has a large ____________________ matrix outside the cells.
Answer: extracellular
Answer: vesicular Page 5
Q5) Endocytosis and exocytosis are both kinds of ____________________ transport.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the incorrect statement about the postreceptor events of hydrophilic hormones.
A) Adenyl cyclase forms cAMP.
B) cAMP is a secondary messenger.
C) Some hydrophilic hormones use calcium ions as a secondary messenger.
D) The hydrophilic hormone binds to a cytoplasmic receptor to activate the second messenger system
E) cAMP activates protein kinase
Q2) Describe how second messenger system amplification occurs.
Q3) A high percentage of sodium and potassium ions move during each action potential.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements concerning hormones is incorrect?
A) a single endocrine gland may produce multiple hormones.
B) a single target cell may be influenced by more than one hormone.
C) a single hormone can influence only one type of target cell.
D) an endocrine organ may exert nonendocrine functions in addition to secreting hormones.
E) the same hormone may be secreted by more than one endocrine gland.
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Q1) The dura mater is the fragile, innermost meningeal layer that closely adheres to the surfaces of the brain and spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Regulates muscle tone; compares intentions of higher centers with performance of muscles and corrects any errors, especially with rapid phasic movements.
A)vestibulocerebellum
B)spinocerebellum
C)cerebrocerebellum
Q3) The thalamus
A) performs preliminary processing of all sensory input on its way to the cortex.
B) inhibits muscle tone throughout the body.
C) controls thirst, urine output, and food intake.
D) plays a role in emotional and behavioral patterns.
E) selects and maintains purposeful motor activity while suppressing useless or unwanted patterns of movement.
Q4) Describe the organization of the nervous system.
Q5) Enteric nervous system
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Q1) On average we lose 10% of our cochlear hair cells by the age of 65.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of sensory input is not integrated into the sense of equilibrium?
A) cutaneous.
B) proprioceptive.
C) vestibular.
D) visual.
E) visceral.
Q3) By ____________________, a stimulus of the same intensity does not elicit a receptor potential of the same magnitude.
Q4) Which one of the following is not involved in sending the vibrational signal to the inner ear?
A) external auditory meatus.
B) Eustachian tube.
C) malleus.
D) stapes.
E) tympanum.
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Q5) The eye structure with the greatest refractive ability is the
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of receptor binds norepinephrine on cardiac muscle, thus increasing cardiac activity?
A) cholinergic.
B) nicotinic.
C) alpha.
D) beta1.
E) beta2.
Q2) The terminals of both autonomic nerve fibers and motor neurons end in a single, enlarged knoblike structure that releases neurotransmitter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement characterizes sympathetic activity?
A) blood vessels with alpha receptors dilate.
B) the bronchioles constrict.
C) the pupils of the eye dilate.
D) the secretion of the sweat glands is inhibited.
E) the urinary bladder contracts and eliminates urine.
Q4) Most innervated blood vessels receive only sympathetic nerve fibers.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) Slow-oxidative muscle fibers have high resistance to fatigue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Composed of thick and thin filaments.
A)A band
B)I band
C)H zone
Q3) Initiates a monosynaptic reflex.
A)muscle spindle
B)Golgi tendon organ
C)both of these receptors
Q4) ____________________ is the intracellular signal for contraction.
Q5) With twitch summation, the muscle fiber is stimulated so rapidly that it does not have an opportunity to return to resting potential between stimuli.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast isotonic versus isometric contractions.
Q7) ____________________ refers to the series of events linking muscle excitation to muscle contraction.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A. Pressure in the aorta
B. Pressure in the pulmonary artery
A)A is greater than B
B)B is greater than A
C)A and B are equal
Q2) A. rate of ventricular filling in early diastole
B. rate of ventricular filling in late diastole
A)A is greater than B
B)B is greater than A
C)A and B are equal
Q3) Funny channels are found in both non-contractile and contractile cells in the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Atrial systole lasts throughout ventricular systole.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sympathetic stimulation increases the heart rate.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The sounds heard from a sphygmomanometer and stethoscope when measuring blood pressure are the same sounds as those heard when listening to heart valve closure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The major resistance vessels of the body are the
A) arteries.
B) arterioles.
C) capillaries.
D) lymphatics.
E) veins.
Q3) The pulse pressure is the
A) difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure.
B) average pressure throughout the cardiac cycle.
C) maximum pressure exerted in the arteries.
D) minimum pressure exerted in the arteries.
E) change in pressure that can be felt in an artery due to shutting of the aortic valve.
Q4) Caused by histamine
Q5) Small amount of NE constantly released onto arteriole
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Q1) Erythropoiesis
A) is accomplished in the bone marrow upon stimulation by erythropoietin.
B) is accomplished in the kidneys in response to reduced O<sub>2</sub> delivery to the kidneys.
C) refers to increased RBC count.
D) refers to RBC destruction.
E) none of these answers.
Q2) Are self-sustaining, single-celled organisms.
A)pertains to bacteria
B)pertains to viruses
Q3) The epidermis
A) has an outermost keratinized layer that is tough, airtight, and fairly waterproof.
B) contains melanocytes, keratinocytes, Langerhans cells, Granstein cells, and transient T lymphocytes.
C) has a richly vascularized inner layer.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q4) Explain the developmental processes involved in B and T cell formation.
Q5) ____________________ markedly enhances the actions of cell-killing cells..
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Q1) maximum volume of air that the lungs can hold
A)vital capacity
B)respiratory rate
C)FEV1
D)tidal volume
E)residual volume
F)total lung capacity
G)functional residual capacity
H)alveolar ventilation
I)pulmonary ventilation
J)inspiratory reserve volume
K)expiratory reserve volume
L)inspiratory capacity
M)anatomic dead space volume
Q2) When the tidal volume is large, as during exercise, the ______ reflex is triggered to prevent over inflation of the lungs.
Q3) blood is passing by inactive tissue
A)this change would increase the rate
B)this change would decrease the rate
C)this change would have no effect on the rate
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Q1) Reabsorption of chloride
A) is active.
B) is passive.
C) is dependent on the amount of sodium reabsorbed.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) both (b) and (c) above.
Q2) Extrinsic control of the GFR
A) is mediated by sympathetic nervous system input to the afferent arterioles.
B) is aimed at the regulation of arterial blood pressure.
C) does not require a special mechanism but occurs as part of the baroreceptor reflex.
D) can override autoregulatory mechanisms
E) all of these answers.
Q3) ____________________ is the inability to prevent the discharge of urine.
Q4) During reabsorption, for the most part chloride ions:
A) pass between cells
B) move down their electrical gradient
C) move against their concentration gradient
D) both (a) and (b)
E) all of the above
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Q1) When isotonic fluid is added to the ECF, fluid will
A) shift from the ICF into the ECF.
B) not shift between the ECF and ICF.
C) shift from the ECF into the ICF.
D) none of these answers.
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning the respiratory mechanism of pH control is correct?
A) respiratory rate and depth increase as a compensatory measure to combat metabolic acidosis.
B) the respiratory system can compensate completely for metabolic acidosis.
C) the respiratory responses to acid-base imbalances represent the first line of defense against changes in pH of the body fluids.
D) hyperventilation can cause acidosis
E) the respiratory system responds to changes in [H<sup>+</sup>] within 1 to 3 seconds
Q3) When total body input of a particular substance equals its total body output, a(n) ____________________ balance exists.
Q4) The barrier between the plasma and interstitial fluid is the
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recycled many times through enterohepatic circulation.
A)bile salts
B)pepsin(ogen)
C)amylase
D)lipase
E)trypsin(ogen)
Q2) Chewing increases which of the following secretions?
A) salivary secretion.
B) gastric secretion.
C) pancreatic secretion.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q3) Enzyme that digests fat.
A)bile salts
B)pepsin(ogen)
C)amylase
D)lipase
E)trypsin(ogen)
Q4) The most potent stimulus for inhibiting gastric motility and emptying is
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Q1) An endogenous pyrogen can be released by ____ in the body.
A) muscle cells.
B) pathogens.
C) platelets.
D) erythrocytes.
E) neutrophils.
Q2) The major means of increasing heat production in response to a cold environmental temperature is
A) skin vasoconstriction.
B) wearing warm clothing.
C) increased muscle activity, such as through shivering and increased voluntary exercise.
D) formation of "goose bumps."
E) increased food intake.
Q3) 5,300 calories is ____ kilocalories.
A) 00.53
B) 0.53
C) 5.3
D) 53
E) 5,300,000
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Q1) This hormone is tied to circadian rhythms:
A) GH
B) melatonin
C) FSH
D) GnRH
E) SCN
Q2) Hormones produced by the thyroid include
A) calcitonin.
B) thyroxine.
C) triiodothyronine.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q3) Increases blood fatty acid levels.
A)epinephrine
B)cortisol
C)aldosterone
D)dehydroepiandrosterone
Q4) ____________________ is the hormone that causes glycogenolysis in response to decreasing blood sugar levels.
Q5) Describe how blood calcium levels are regulated.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cells make androgen binding protein?
A) sperm
B) spermatagonia
C) theca
D) granulosa
E) Sertoli
Q2) During spermatogenesis, one spermatogonium containing
A) 46 chromosomes yields 16 spermatozoa, each containing 23 chromosomes.
B) 46 chromosomes yields 1 spermatozoon containing 23 chromosomes and a polar body containing the other 23 chromosomes.
C) 46 chromosomes yields 2 spermatozoa, each containing 23 chromosomes.
D) 46 chromosomes yields 1 spermatozoon containing 46 chromosomes.
E) 23 chromosomes yields 1 spermatozoon containing 23 chromosomes.
Q3) Which statement is true?
A) diploid cells contain 23 chromosomes
B) sperm and egg are haploid cells
C) sperm and egg are produced by mitosis
D) each human cells has 22 pairs of sex chromosomes
E) genetic males have two of the same sex chromosomes
Q4) A ertilized egg is known as a _______
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