Medical Laboratory Science
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Science is a multidisciplinary field focused on the study, analysis, and diagnosis of diseases through laboratory investigations of biological specimens such as blood, urine, and tissue samples. This course introduces students to core concepts in clinical chemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics, emphasizing both theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory skills. Students learn to operate and maintain laboratory equipment, interpret test results, adhere to quality control standards, and apply ethical principles in patient care. The course prepares graduates for roles as vital members of healthcare teams, ensuring accurate diagnosis and effective patient management.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology and Infection Control for Health Professionals 6th Edition by Gary Lee
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21 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Invisible World
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The infectious disease which is considered to be the greatest single cause of death in the world today is
A)malaria.
B)AIDS.
C)tuberculosis.
D)cholera.
E)plague.
Answer: C
Q2) Procaryotic cells can be distinguished from eucaryotic cells because only the former A)have a cell wall.
B)lack subcellular organelles.
C)are free-living.
D)reproduce by mitosis.
E)contain mitochondria.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Biological Reactions in Microbial Cells
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fungus that produces many useful antibiotics is
A)Streptococcus.
B)Aspergillus.
C)Bacillus.
D)Cephalosporium.
E)Saccharomyces.
Answer: D
Q2) The shape of a biological molecule is determined by the bond properties of which element?
A)Oxygen.
B)Nitrogen.
C)Sulfur.
D)Hydrogen.
E)Carbon.
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterium with spherical cells that exist in pairs would be termed a
A)staphylococcus.
B)bacillus.
C)diplococcus.
D)vibrio.
E)streptococcus.
Answer: C
Q2) Flagella are
A)protein filaments which enable bacterial cells to move.
B)found only in Gram-positive bacteria.
C)hair-like appendages on bacterial cells that detect nutrients in the environment.
D)structures that enable bacteria to attach to surfaces.
E)important for cell division in bacterial cells.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Genes and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biotechnology refers to
A)the various techniques for manipulating DNA.
B)the use of methods for harvesting microorganisms from nature.
C)the use of vaccines to prevent disease.
D)the use of antibiotics to treat disease.
E)the development of microorganisms that prevent disease.
Q2) A vaccine that is made from viral antigens produced in yeast cells
A)is likely to be a weaker type.
B)can only be used in animals.
C)is said to be plasmid-derived.
D)is a genetically engineered vaccine.
E)can treat a disease but not prevent it.
Q3) An enzyme that can break a DNA molecule at a specific point is called a
A)point mutase.
B)restriction endonuclease.
C)reverse transcriptase.
D)point depolymerase.
E)none of the above.
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6
Chapter 5: Viruses and Viral Diseases
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major reason we have relatively few antiviral drugs is that
A)viruses are resistant to most chemicals.
B)viruses use host cell mechanisms to replicate.
C)viruses don't have any enzymes to attack.
D)viruses don't have a cell wall.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Some viruses are associated with the development of cancer.An important characteristic of cancer cells is
A)the lack of contact inhibition.
B)the inability to synthesise protein.
C)the slow metabolism.
D)no nuclear membrane.
E)the lack of staining properties.
Q3) Which of the following could be a symptom of a viral infection?
A)Fever.
B)Lymphadenopathy.
C)Rash.
D)Pruritus.
E)Any of the above.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Eucaryotic Microorganisms: Fungi, protozoa and
Multicellular Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parasitic infection is one that
A)is caused by an organism that derives oxygen from its host.
B)always results in the death of the host.
C)does not harm the host in any way.
D)is diagnosed by a characteristic skin rash.
E)none of the above.
Q2) Candida albicans is a yeast which
A)is a source of antibiotics.
B)is a normal human commensal.
C)only causes infections after antibiotic use.
D)is a common cause of impetigo.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following statements about fungi is TRUE?
A)Fungi may be unicellular or multicellular.
B)All fungi are eucaryotic.
C)A few fungi are pathogenic to humans.
D)Fungi are heterotrophic.
E)All of the above.
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Chapter 7: Hostmicrobe Interactions and Principles of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person is said to be colonised by a pathogen when
A)the pathogen establishes itself in a body site without causing infection.
B)the pathogen can be removed by regular soap washing.
C)the pathogen causes an immune response.
D)there is visible inflammation at the site.
E)none of the above are correct because pathogens only infect and never colonise.
Q2) Which of the following may be a sign of infection?
A)Fever.
B)Inflammation.
C)Rash.
D)Diarrhoea.
E)All of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is usually an endogenous infection?
A)Urinary tract infection.
B)Tetanus.
C)Rabies.
D)Sexually transmitted infection.
E)Influenza.
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Chapter 8: Epidemiology: How Diseases Are Spread
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a baby acquires an infection from its mother during birth it is called a
A)congenital infection.
B)genital infection.
C)portal infection.
D)maternal infection.
E)perinatal infection.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Epidemiologists are only concerned with mortality figures for infectious diseases.
B)Epidemiologists try to determine the reasons for an outbreak of infection.
C)In order to classify an outbreak as an epidemic the index case must be located.
D)Morbidity data refer to the number of deaths from a disease.
E)Epidemiology focuses on the diseases that an individual person has had.
Q3) Diseases that are always present in a community are described as A)epidemic.
B)systemic.
C)contagious.
D)endemic.
E)chronic.
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Chapter 9: The Bodys Defence Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The substance that changes the body temperature set-point to cause fever is
A)gammaglobulin.
B)anaphylatoxin.
C)endogenous pyrogen.
D)leukotriene.
E)interferon.
Q2) The inflammatory response is characterised by
A)decreased vascular permeability to serum proteins.
B)attraction of erythrocytes to the injured site.
C)vasodilation of local capillaries.
D)a decrease in diapedesis.
E)resorption of interstitial fluid into the bloodstream.
Q3) The role of opsonins in the human body is to A)enhance phagocytosis.
B)cause bacterial cells to burst.
C)neutralise toxins.
D)inactivate viruses.
E)reduce adherence of antigens to phagocytes.
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Chapter 10: Pathogenic Mechanisms and Evasion
Strategies of Microorganisms
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Streptokinase
A)is an enzyme that breaks down fibrin.
B)is an endotoxin of Streptococcus.
C)coagulates fibrinogen.
D)destroys human white cells.
E)none of the above.
Q2) The toxic shock syndrome toxin of Staphylococcus aureus
A)is a superantigen.
B)activates T lymphocytes.
C)causes a massive release of cytokines.
D)can suppress immune responses.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following enzymes can be used to distinguish between different species of staphylococci?
A)Hyaluronidase.
B)Fibrinolysin.
C)Streptokinase.
D)Coagulase.
E)Haemolysin.
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Chapter 11: Principles of Sterilisation and Disinfection
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35 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Gamma radiation can destroy all bacteria and viruses.
B)Ionising radiation kills bacteria by disrupting the structure of their DNA.
C)Gamma radiation sterilises because it can penetrate wrapped articles.
D)Gamma radiation is useful for sterilising biological solutions for injection.
E)Microwave radiation destroys all microorganisms by denaturing their proteins.
Q2) What is most likely to happen to the bacteria in food which is placed in a refrigerator at 4 C?
A)They die because bacteria cannot tolerate low temperatures.
B)They continue to multiply but at a much reduced rate.
C)They produce toxins which cause gastroenteritis when the food is eaten.
D)They all form endospores in order to survive.
E)They mutate in order to survive.
Q3) Which of the following methods is NOT a sterilising method?
A)Autoclaving at 121 C.
B)Treatment with ethylene oxide.
C)Irradiation with gamma rays.
D)Boiling at 100 C.
E)Low temperature hydrogen peroxide.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of a drug to prevent an infection is called
A)systemic chemotherapy.
B)deliberate chemotherapy.
C)preparative chemotherapy.
D)prophylactic chemotherapy.
E)none of the above because antimicrobials are only used to treat infections.
Q2) Empirical treatment means that
A)a 'best guess' for treatment is made based on a patient's signs and symptoms.
B)no treatment is started until the laboratory results are known.
C)only topical drugs can be used.
D)several drugs are used at the same time.
E)a standard treatment is applied regardless of a patient's age or symptoms.
Q3) A reverse transcriptase inhibitor,such as zidovudine,is used to treat
A)any viral infection.
B)human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)infection.
C)most protozoal infections.
D)some fungal infections.
E)any systemic infection.
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14
Chapter 13: Infection Control in Healthcare Facilities
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vancomycin-resistant enterococci
A)are resistant to vancomycin but not to other drugs.
B)most often cause infections in healthy people.
C)can cause surgical wound infections.
D)don't survive well in the hospital environment.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following tends to have the highest incidence of healthcare associated infections?
A)Large public hospitals.
B)Small public hospitals.
C)Small private hospitals.
D)Aged-care facilities.
E)Dental surgeries.
Q3) Transmission-based Precautions should be used for patients who
A)have hepatitis C.
B)are suffering from malaria.
C)have HIV.
D)are suspected of having TB.
E)all of the above.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Issues in Public Health
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of a vaccine?
A)If the person has had an anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the vaccine.
B)The use of a live vaccine in a person receiving immunosuppressive drugs.
C)The use of a live vaccine in a pregnant woman.
D)The use of a live vaccine in a person with leukaemia.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following diseases is not acquired in Australia,but may be diagnosed in people returning from overseas?
A)Ross River fever.
B)Yellow fever.
C)Hepatitis C.
D)Dengue fever.
E)All of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is FALSE? Trachoma
A) is an eye infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.
B)has a high incidence among Aboriginal people in the Kimberley region.
C)is carried by mosquitoes.
D) can be treated with antibiotics.
E) if left untreated can cause blindness.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Microbial Techniques for Diagnosis of Infection
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anaerobic bacteria present in a purulent discharge should be protected from oxygen while being transported to the laboratory.This is done by
A)placing the specimen in ice.
B)transporting the specimen in the collection syringe.
C)using a sterile container.
D)using a specialised transport medium.
E)placing the specimen in a CO chamber.
Q2) The laboratory technique in which small amounts of DNA from a microorganism are amplified and then used to identify the organism is A)hybridisation.
B)complement fixation.
C)radioimmunoassay.
D)a nucleic acid probe.
E)polymerase chain reaction.
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Chapter 16: Skin, wound and Eye Infections
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a rare complication of A)measles.
B)chickenpox.
C)rubella.
D)shingles.
E)herpes.
Q2) Burns wounds
A)are highly susceptible to infection.
B)may be associated with depressed immune defences.
C)are covered over by a thick crust called an eschar.
D)often become infected after the patient is hospitalised.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a dermatophyte?
A)Aspergillus.
B)Trichophyton.
C)Microsporum.
D)Epidermophyton.
E)All of the above are dermatophytes.
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Chapter 17: Respiratory Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following increases the risk of respiratory infection?
A)Cigarette smoking.
B)Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
C)Alcoholism.
D)Old age.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Otitis media is the name given to
A)a middle ear infection.
B)an infection of the paranasal sinuses.
C)a viral infection of the throat.
D)bronchitis.
E)a sore throat.
Q3) Most organisms that cause respiratory infections come from
A)the hospital environment.
B)aerosols from water tanks.
C)contaminated surfaces.
D)people with infections.
E)swimming pools and spas.
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Chapter 18: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatitis B can be transmitted by
A)male homosexual contact.
B)exposure to infected patient blood.
C)at birth,from infected mother to baby.
D)intravenous drug use.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Cryptosporidium parvum gastroenteritis
A)is not notifiable in Australia because of low incidence rates.
B)is uncommon because it has a high infective dose.
C)typically results in cyst formation in the liver and spleen.
D)can occur in outbreaks due to contaminated swimming pools.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Clostridium perfringens
A)can cause gangrene.
B)forms resistant endospores.
C)is commonly found in the environment .
D)can cause diarrhoea.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 19: Cardiovascular and Multisystem Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rheumatic fever is due to
A)a potent exotoxin.
B)an immunological cross-reaction.
C)the spread of bacteria from the pharynx to the bloodstream.
D)toxin production in joints.
E)bacterial infection of the endocardium.
Q2) Schistosomiasis is not endemic in Australia because
A)it only occurs in desert areas.
B)the intermediate host is not found in Australia.
C)there is an effective vaccine available to high-risk people.
D)it has been eradicated.
E)none of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is TRUE concerning cytomegalovirus infection?
A)It can be spread during sexual intercourse.
B)It can be transmitted via the placenta from mother to foetus.
C)The virus is not cleared from the body when the patient recovers.
D)The infection is severe in the immunocompromised.
E)All of the above.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is TRUE? Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
A)is thought to be acquired by consumption of contaminated beef.
B)led to the slaughter of millions of cattle in Britain.
C)is caused by an infectious protein.
D)is always fatal.
E)All of the above.
Q2) A rabies-like virus transmitted by Australian fruit bats is
A)Menangle virus.
B)Hendra virus.
C)Nipah virus.
D)Lyssavirus.
E)Barmah Forest virus.
Q3) A man presents at the emergency department after puncturing his foot on an old nail.Upon questioning,he is uncertain as to whether he has been immunised against tetanus.This man should be
A)given tetanus toxoid and sent home.
B)kept in for observation for 24 hours to see if symptoms develop.
C)given tetanus immunoglobulin and tetanus toxoid.
D)advised to start a course of vaccination as soon as possible.
E)given a broad spectrum antibiotic.
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an effective means of preventing most sexually transmissible diseases?
A)Avoidance of high-risk encounters.
B)Use of condoms.
C)Contact tracing.
D)Vaccination.
E)All of the above are highly effective.
Q2) Pelvic inflammatory disease most often results from infection with
A)Treponema pallidum.
B)lymphogranuloma venereum.
C)herpes simplex type 1 virus.
D)Chlamydia trachomatis.
E)papillomavirus.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Chlamydial infections are treated with penicillin.
B)Chlamydia is rarely seen in Aboriginal people or in remote areas of Australia.
C)Chlamydia infection can cause pelvic inflammatory disease.
D)Chlamydia infection is always symptomatic.
E)Chlamydia does not affect koalas.
Page 23
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